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Dental Pathology > Respiratory Pathology > Flashcards

Respiratory Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

the “common cold”, usually viral with bacterial infection developing thereafter; may involve pharynx, tonsils, bronchi?

A

rhinitis

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2
Q

allergic from of rhinitis?

A

hay fever

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3
Q

catarrhal discharge; mucopurulent discharge secondary to bacterial infection; recurrences may lead to polyp formation?

A

rhinitis

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4
Q

common infection secondary to breakdown in the normal secretion elimination system; predisposing factors: typically upper viral respiratory infection?

A

sinusitis

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5
Q

bacteria associated with sinusitis?

A

s. pneumoniae and h. influenzae

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6
Q

headache, fever, facial pain, malaise; nasal discharge; maxillary sinusitis may mimic a toothache?

A

sinusitis

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7
Q

treatment for acute sinusitis?

A

amoxicillin or appropriate antibiotic

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8
Q

treatment for chronic sinusitis?

A

sinus surgery

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9
Q

necrotizing granulomatous process of unknown etiology, classically affects upper airway, lungs, kidneys; epitaxis, pain, nasal obstruction; later signs include ulceration and destruction of adjacent tissue or structures; any organ may be involved?

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis

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10
Q

oral lesions: large, chronic ulcers, “strawberry gums”?

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis

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11
Q

subepithelial hemorrhage; poorly formed granulomas; scattered giant cells; vasculitis?

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis

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12
Q

in diagnosis of Wegener’s, look for …?

A

c-ANCA

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13
Q

treatment of Wegener’s?

A

prednisone and cyclophosphamide

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14
Q

aggressive, destructive process of T lymphocytes; adults; nasal stuffiness, epitaxis; deep necrotic ulcerations; may progress to palatal perforations?

A

extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma, nasal type

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15
Q

necrosis and angiocentric arrangement of atypical inflammatory cells?

A

extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma, nasal type

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16
Q

benign but aggressive vascular neoplasm of the nasopharynx; almost exclusively of male adolescents; resemblance to nasal turbinates?

A

nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

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17
Q

nasal obstruction, epitaxis; anterior bowing of the posterior wall of the maxillary sinus?

A

nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

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18
Q

dense fibrous connective tissue with myofibroblasts; numerous, variably-sized, thin-walled vessels?

A

nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

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19
Q

benign, papillary overgrowth of epithelium primarily on nasal septum?

A

papilloma

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20
Q

benign but aggressive neoplasm of the sinuses; high rate of recurrence and destruction with possible invasion of the orbit and cranial vault; inward growth of squamous epithelium?

A

inverted papilloma

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21
Q

malignancy of the nasopharyngeal mucosa that is more common in parts of Asia; associated with Epstein-Barr virus, vit. C deficiency; diets high in salted fish (nitrosamines)?

A

nasopharyngeal carcinoma

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22
Q

enlarged cervical nodes usually the first sign; unilateral serous otitis media and hearing loss?

A

nasopharyngeal carcinoma

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23
Q

common; secondary to viruses, diphtheria, cig smoking; may result in obstruction

A

laryngitis

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24
Q

“croup”; under age of 3; upper respiratory viral infection; loud breathing and cough with difficulty in breathing?

A

acute laryngotracheobronchitis

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25
Q

tumors; overgrowths of edematous inflammatory tissue, “Singer’s nodes”

A

polyps

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26
Q

tumors; HPV related, single or multiple (children)

A

papillomas

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27
Q

associated with smoking, asbestos; ulcerated, fungated; hemoptysis, increasing hoarseness

A

squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx

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28
Q

heavy and wet lungs; development of pneumonia; left sided heart disease, allergies, CNS disorders

A

pulmonary congestion and edema

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29
Q

most common preventable cause of hospital death; deep vein thrombosis; dyspnea w/ or w/o shock or sudden death, pain, hemoptysis, acute or chronic cor pulmonale?

A

pulmonary embolism

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30
Q

large embolus at bifurcation of the pulmonary artery?

A

saddle embolus

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31
Q

appears as wedge shaped area of necrosis?

A

small or multiple emboli

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32
Q

arteriosclerosis or increased pulmonary vascular blood flow associated with pulmonary hypertension; pulmonary hypertension secondary to mitral stenosis, fibrosis, COPD; death secondary to right-sided heart failure

A

pulmonary vascular sclerosis

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33
Q

airless lung, appearing shrunken, red-blue, rubbery and non-crepitate?

A

atelectasis

34
Q

infant (neonatal) respiratory distress syndrome (hyaline membrane disease); secondary to over-sedation of the mother, aspiration of blood or amniotic fluid, birth injuries, prematurity

A

primary atelectasis

35
Q

the fundamental defect of hyaline membrane disease (RDS) is …?

A

deficiency of pulmonary surfactant

36
Q

hyaline membranes and necrosis of alveolar walls?

A

hyaline membrane disease of the newborn

37
Q

main treatment of hyaline membrane disease of newborn is …?

A

prevention

38
Q

complete airway obstruction; resorption of air distal to the obstruction?

A

secondary atelectasis (collapse), obstructive (resorption) type

39
Q

mechanical collapse due to external pressure; entire lung or portion?

A

secondary atelectasis (collapse), compression type

40
Q

adult version of hyaline membrane disease; secondary to alveolar epithelium and endothelial damage; increase in permeability leading to fluid in the septa and alveolar sacs; hyaline membrane formation

A

acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

41
Q

resistance to expiration

A

COPD

42
Q

examples of COPD

A

emphysema; chronic bronchitis; bronchiectasis; asthma

43
Q

progressive dyspnea; reduced recoil; cyanosis; weight loss; hypoxic brain damage; bronchopneumonia; cor pulmonale

A

COPD

44
Q

enlargement and destruction of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles?

A

emphysema

45
Q

affecting respiratory bronchioles of the upper lobes (strongly associated with smoking)

A

centrilobular (centriacinar) emphysema

46
Q

affects respiratory bronchioles and distal alveoli (alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency)

A

panacinar emyphsema

47
Q

persistent cough with copious sputum for at least 3 months for 2 consecutive years; common in smokers and smog-ridden cities; inflammation, fibrosis and narrowing of bronchioles?

A

chronic bronchitis

48
Q

hypertrophy of mucous glands, metaplastic formation of mucin-secreting goblet cells in the surface epithelium of bronchi; chronic inflammation; late fibrosis?

A

chronic bronchitis

49
Q

some chronic bronchitis patients develop significant … with outflow obstruction?

A

COPD

50
Q

many patients will have both chronic bronchitis and …

A

emphysema

51
Q

abnormal, permanent and irregular dilation of bronchi associated with superimposed, necrotizing infection; typically secondary to other pulmonary diseases

A

bronchiectasis

52
Q

especially before age 20; cyanosis, coughing, copious purulent and/or bloody sputum, fever, digital clubbing?

A

bronchiectasis

53
Q

chronic inflammatory disorder that causes sudden episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightening and cough; increased responsiveness to stimuli-bronchoconstriction, inflammation, mucous secretion

A

bronchial asthma

54
Q

IgE mediated, type 1 hypersensitivity broncial asthma

A

atopic

55
Q

bronchial asthma triggered by respiratory viral infections, which probably lower the threshold of the vagal receptors of the irritants?

A

non-atopic

56
Q

bronchial asthma with leukotriene production?

A

drug-induced

57
Q

curshmanns spirals-accumulation of epithelial cells and mucous and charcot-leyden crystals-granules of eosinophils seen in sputum

A

bronchial asthma

58
Q

prolonged bronchial asthmatic attack that can last days or weeks, sometimes resulting in death?

A

status asthmaticus

59
Q

entire lobe; severe fibropurulent reaction with massive edema; bacterial pneumonia

A

lobar pneumonia

60
Q

four discrete stages of lobar pneumonia

A

congestion; red hepatization; gray hepatization; resolution

61
Q

patchy distribution within lobes; multilobar and bilateral; neutrophil rich exudate; bacterial pneumonia

A

bronchopneumonia

62
Q

which pneumonia carries a better prognosis: community or hospital acquired

A

community

63
Q

mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

tuberculosis

64
Q

ghon complex; low grade fever, night sweats, fatigue (secondary tuberculosis); weight loss (consumption); chronic bloody cough?

A

tuberculosis

65
Q

diffuse dissemination seen in the immune compromised patient?

A

miliary tuberculosis

66
Q

necrotizing granulomatous inflammation; multinucleated giant cells; demonstrated by acid fast method?

A

tuberculosis

67
Q

histoplasma capsulatum; endemic to mississippi and ohio river valleys; spores in soil contaminated with bird or bat droppings?

A

histoplasmosis

68
Q

calcified hilar nodes; acute-flu like; granulomatous inflammation; 1-2 micron yeasts in macrophages; silver stain or PAS

A

histoplasmosis

69
Q

T or F: for acute histoplasmosis, no treatment is usually necessary

A

T

70
Q

treatment of choice for mild cases or as maintenance therapy of histoplasmosis

A

itraconazole

71
Q

1 cause of lung abscess?

A

aspiration

72
Q

secondary to aspiration or complication of pneumonia, obstruction, septic emboli, trauma; cough with foul smelling mucus, fever, pain

A

lung abscess

73
Q

idiopathic multisystem granulomatous process; improper degradation of antigenic material; effects lungs, lymph nodes, skin, eyes, and salivary glands

A

sarcoidosis

74
Q

variable onset; dyspnea; dry cough; fever, malaise; fatigue, athralgia; lymphadenopathy?

A

sarcoidosis

75
Q

granulomatous inflammation; langhans or foreign body giant cell; schaumann bodies; asteroid bodies

A

sarcoidosis

76
Q

elevated angiotensin converting enzyme; kveim test

A

sarcoidosis

77
Q

1 fatal cancer in US (associated with smoking, asbestos, radioactive ores)

A

bronchogenic carcinoma

78
Q

histologic subtypes of bronchogenic carcinoma

A

squamous cell; adenocarcinoma, undifferentiated

79
Q

most common subtype of bronchogenic carcinoma

A

adenocarcinoma

80
Q

spread to hilar and scalene nodes, then to adrenals, liver, brain, bone and kidney; weight loss, chest pain, dyspnea, hemoptysis; paraneoplastic syndromes; many secondary diseases associated

A

bronchogenic carcinoma

Dental Pathology (22 decks)

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