Smith 5 - Equine Resp Flashcards

1
Q

DDX for pleural effusion

A

bacterial pneumonia (73%)

-less common: hemothorax, chest penetration, esophageal perf, neoplasia, fungal pneumonia

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2
Q

frequent anaerobe in equine pleuropneumonia resistant to penicillins

A

bacteriodes fragilis

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3
Q

CS of rhodococcus

A

-chronic suppurative bronchopneumonia with extensive abscessation

Cough, fever, lethargy

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4
Q

__% of foals with subclinical rhodococcus recover without abx

A

80-90%

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5
Q

intestinal r. equi

A

multifocal ulcerative enterocolitis and typhlitis over the Peyer’s patches with granulomatous or suppurative inflammation of mesenteric / colonic LNs

-can be a single large mesenteric LN abscess adhered to bowel

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6
Q

r. equi polysynovitis tx

A

not necessary - if lung dz is responding to tx

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7
Q

r. equi septic arthritis

A

aggressive local tx needed
will be very lame

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8
Q

r. equi VapA gene

A

-only VAP to have a role in virulence
-encodes an immunodominant temperature-inducible surface-expressed lipoprotein

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9
Q

factors necessary for r. equi virulence

A

VapA gene
regulator genes virR and virS

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10
Q

type I immune response to r. equi

A

T helper lymphocytes produce IFN-g
sufficient to effect pulmonary clearance

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11
Q

type II immune response to r. equi

A

IL-4 production
not effective at clearing infection

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12
Q

common bacteria causing neonatal foal pneumonia <30 days

A

-sepsis / ascending infection
-E. coli, kleb, actinobacillus, salmonella

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13
Q

causes of pneumonia in foals 1-6 months old

A

strep zoo and r. equi
-less common actinobacillus, b. bronchiseptica, E. coli, kleb, pasturella, pseudomonas, salmonella

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14
Q

pneumocystis carinii

A

fungal cause of pneumonia, usually concurrent infection or in SCID foals

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15
Q

CS of URT fungal infection

A

serosanguineous or mucopurulent discharge and airway noise

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16
Q

BAL cytology w/ fungal pneumonia

A

degenerate neutrophils, intracellular hyphae

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17
Q

polyene antibiotic that combines with ergosterol in fungal cell membrane –> increased cell permeability

A

amphotericin B

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18
Q

destroy fungi by inhibition of ergosterol biosynthesis in the fungal cell membrane

A

-azoles

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19
Q

saprophytic fungus that causes granulomatous lesions in nasal passages, trachea, or soft palate
-histo similar to pythiosis
-hyphae are thin walled, highly septate, irregularly branching

A

conidiobolomycosis

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20
Q

saprophytic, round, basidiomycetous yeastlike fungus
-large heteropolysaccharide capsule that does not stain-
-causes pneumonia, rhinitis, meningitis, and abortion

A

cryptococcus neoformans

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21
Q

broad septet hyphae with parallel sides and acute right-angled branching
-vascular invasion
-pneumonia in immunocompromised horses, esp. ones with enterocolitis

A

aspergilliosis

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22
Q

prognosis of aspergillus pneumonia

A

FATAL

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23
Q

dimorphic saprophytic fungus; yeasts can be seen inside giant multinucleated cells
-spherical yeasts, unilateral broad based budding
-causes pyogranulomatous pneumonia, pulmonary abscesses, peritonitis, abscesses

A

blastomycosis

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24
Q

epizootic lymphangitis

A

histoplasmosis capsulatum
-ocular, cutaneous, respiratory, or asymptomatic dz
DDX: glanders
Field test: histofarcin skin test

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25
Q

soil saprophyte that likes semi-arid areas with sandy alkaline soil
-forms nonbonding spherules when inhaled
-causes weight loss, fever, abdominal pain, respiratory dz, nasal granulomas, and diffuse infections

A

coccidioides immitis

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26
Q

where does s. equi attach

A

cells in the crypt of the lingual and palatine tonsils, and to the follicular associated epithelium of the pharyngeal and tubal tonsils

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27
Q

strangles serology is useful for detecting

A

recent but not current infection

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28
Q

purpura hemorrhagic is a

A

-type III hypersensitivity
-aseptic necrotizing vasculitis

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29
Q

uncontrolled pulmonary inflammation and coagulation lead to accumulation and activation of leukocytes and platelets in the lungs, altered permeability of the pulmonary barrier, and accumulation of edema within the airways

A

ARDS

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30
Q

Severe ARDS

A

PaO2/FiO2 <100mmhg

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31
Q

Moderate ARDS

A

PaO2/FiO2 100-200 mmghg
-or PaO2 <42 on room air

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32
Q

Mild ARDS / ALI

A

PaO2/FiO2 200-300mmhg
-or PaO2 <63 on room air

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33
Q

perilla mint, crofton weed, crotalatia, and senecio all cause?

A

interstitial pneumonia in horses

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34
Q

Hx: weight loss, fever, cough
Rads: multiple coalescing nodular densities over a diffuse interstitial pattern

A

EMPF

35
Q

__ can cause ARDS in older foals

A

rhodococcus

36
Q

equine parasitic pneumonia

A

young foals, migration of parascaris equorum larvae through lung parenchyma

37
Q

what toxic plants can cause interstitial pneumonia

A

PA’s (mostly crotalaria, trichodesma, and senecio) -toxic metabolite activated in the liver, travels to the lungs

crofton weed

perilla ketones

38
Q

smoke inhalation pneumonia

A

acute diffuse interstitial, followed by opportunistic bacteria

39
Q

4 phases of interstitial pneumonia

A

1) parenchymal injury and alveolitis
2) proliferative
3) chronic interstitial fibrosis
4) irreparable fibrosis

40
Q

complications of interstitial pneumonia and fibrosis

A

-cor pulmonale
-pulmonary hypertension

41
Q

definitive test for chronic interstitial pneumonia

A

lung biopsy + histo

42
Q

culture medium for equine influenza

A

embryonated chicken eggs

43
Q

anti-viral used for EMPF

A

acyclovir

44
Q

most frequently diagnosed viral resp dx of the horse

A

influenza

45
Q

the flu virus in horses

A

-enveloped, with segmented single stranded negative sense RNA
-Orthomyxoviridae
-members of group A

46
Q

viral hemagglutinin (HA)

A

-glycoprotein
-determines host specificity
-receptor binding protein

47
Q

viral neuraminidase (NA)

A

facilitates mobility of virus by assisting in the release of budding particles from host cells

48
Q

influenza subtypes in horses

A

H7N7 (A/equine/1)
H3N8 (A/equine/2)

49
Q

most significant influenza lesions are in the

A

lower airway

50
Q

how does flu enter the resp epithelial cell

A

receptor mediated endocytosis

51
Q

CS of influenza

A

-fever 48-96 hours post infection
-serous nasal discharge becoming more mucop
-dry hacking cough may last 3 weeks
-anorexia

52
Q

EHV-1, 3, & 4 are

A

alphaherpesvirinae
-linear dsDNA

53
Q

which EHV can infect other species (donkeys, cattle, camelids)

A

EHV-1

54
Q

EHV-2 & 5 are

A

gammaherpesvirinae

55
Q

equine coital exanthema

A

EHV-3

56
Q

EHV-? can cause resp disease but only single abortions (not storms)

A

4

57
Q

how does EHV-1 spread from resp tract

A

lymphocyte-associated viremia
-then spreads from leukocytes to epithelial cells at secondary site

58
Q

development of EHM is correlated with

A

magnitude and duration of viremia

59
Q

EHV-1 abortion

A

-last 4 months of gest
-vasculitis of small arteriolar branches of glandular endometrium
-thrombosis, microcotyledonary infarction, perivascular cuffing, and transplacental spread of virus
-spits out fetus with no warning signs

60
Q

EHM effects

A

-widespread vascular injury
-damage to BBB
-thromboischemic necrosis in SC and brain

61
Q

eq adenoviruses

A

-EAdV1 = acute resp dz, conjunctivitis, and fatal pneumonia in SCID arab foals
-EAdV2 = intestinal infection and d+ in normal foals

62
Q

dictyocaulus arnfeldi infectious stage

A

L3 on pasture - ingested, migrate to intestines and lungs via lymphatics, infiltrate alveoli

63
Q

what fungus helps spread lungworm

A

philbolus

64
Q

IL-17

A

-implicated in asthma
-secreted by Th-17 cells
-promotes maturation, chemotaxis, and activation of neutrophils
-upregulated IL-8 expression and promotes airway neutrophilia

65
Q

Glanders

A

-burkholderia mallei
-facultative intracellular gram negative bacteria
-nasal, pulmonary, or cutaneous forms
-nodules
-purulent yellow discharge

66
Q

cause of EIPH

A

-pulmonary blood
-rupture of alveolar capillary membranes
-secondary to increase in transmural pressure

67
Q

most reported primary lung tumor in horses

A

granular cell tumor

68
Q

eupatorium adenophora

A

crouton weed poisoning
-pneumotoxicosis

69
Q

in horses, is inspiration or expiration active?

A

both

70
Q

when does cyanosis become apparent?

A

a. 5 mg/100 mL (5 g/dL) of deoxygenated hemoglobin is present

b. PaO2 is 35-45 mm Hg

c. Severely anemic patients may never become cyanotic

71
Q

Pulmonary aspergillosis most often follows

A

severe gastrointestinal disease that resulted in mucosal compromise

72
Q

most frequently diagnosed viral resp dz in the horse

A

FLU

H3N8 A/Eq/2

73
Q

Dictyocaulus arnfieldi

A

direct life cycle

infective stage is L3

PPP 2-4 months

74
Q

EVA replicates where

A

adrenals, thyroid, liver, testes, endothelial cell

75
Q

EVA resp dz

A

Respiratory disease – periocular edema

Fever, anorexia, lethargy, serous oculonasal discharge, cough, conjunctivitis, distal limb, prepucial, scrotum, and mammary edema, and urticaria localized to the sides of the neck and face +/- generalize

76
Q

Hendra Virus

A

Fever, respiratory signs, facial swelling, ataxia, head pressing, recumbency, frothy nasal discharge, tachycardia, death within 36 hours

Necropsy: syncytial giant cells containing cytoplasmic inclusion bodies with paramyxovirus nucleocapsid in the pulmonary endothelium

77
Q

Dx of carbon monoxide toxicity

A

carboxyhemoglobin >10%

78
Q

Diagnosing RAO

A

BAL neutrophilia
SAA
Haptoglobin

79
Q

IAD is more common in horses that also have

A

DDSP

80
Q

Gold standard Dx for Glanders

A

culture

81
Q

primary pulmonary neoplasms

A

most frequently granular cell tumors

confined to the lungs

82
Q

most common equine thoracic neoplasm

A

lymphosarc

gastric SCC also likes to met there

83
Q

guttural pouch structures

A

cranial nerves VII, IX, X, XI, and XII, the cranial sympathetic trunk the internal carotid artery; and branches of the external carotid arter