Smith 5 - 32 Eq GI Flashcards

1
Q

E - excess salivation results in what derangements

A

hypoCl, hypoNa, hypoK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

type I gastric impaction

A
  • feed
  • no increase in stomach size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

type II gastric impaction

A
  • feed
  • increased stomach size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

type III gastric impaction

A

phytobezoar or persimmons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

E - MODS

A

multi organ dysfunction syndrome
-dysfunction of 2 or more organs in severe sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

E - ulcerative duodenitis

A
  • acid related
  • foals w gastric dz too
  • CS more severe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

E - mechanisms of increased secretion in DPJ

A

1) passive transmucosal exudation secondary to mucosal / submucosal inflammation –> protein rich fluid
2) active secretion caused by increased cyclic nucleotides –> low protein, high electrolyte fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

equine proliferative enteropathy

A

lawsonia

  • fever, lethargy, edema, D+, colic, weight loss
  • weanlings - young
  • invasion of crypt cells in ileum causes excess mitotic division and hyperplasia
  • lesions distal jej and ileum
  • tx: macrolides + rifampin, chloro, oxytet, doxy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Eq lymphosarcoma

A

usually SI, diagnosed on ab tap cytology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

E - what can cause diarrhea without inflammation

A

CHF or cirrhotic liver disease - increased intestinal hydrostatic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

E - effector cell of acute colitis

A

neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

E - which salmonella is most common

A

s. enterica typhimurium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

E - gold standard PHF diagnosis

A

qPCR of whole blood to detect N. risticii in leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

E - cause of abx-associated D+

A

c. diff
- toxin A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

E - c. diff toxin A

A
  • secretory and cytotoxic
  • activates immune cells to release pro inflammatory cytokines and mediators
  • works w NT substance P
  • effects mediated through direct effect on intestinal cells + enteric nervous system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

E - c. diff toxin B

A

secretory?
little relevance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

E - c. diff Tx

A

metro, vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

E - coronavirus enteritis

A

fever, lethargy, colic, and D+

  • usually lasts a week and self limiting
  • can cause acute necrotizing neutrophilic SI inflammation

**hyperammonemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

E - cantharidin effects

A
  • mucosal ulceration
  • cystitis, nephrosis, myocarditis
  • hypoCa and Mg
  • pupd, diffuse D+, thumps, can acutely die
20
Q

E - features of grain overload

A

hyperlactatemia, metabolic acidosis, sepsis

21
Q

E - actinobacillus equuli peritonitis

A

mild to mod colic, lethargy, elevated HR/RR

  • marked elevation in ab tap protein and cell count
  • responds well to penicillin
  • does not cause sepsis
22
Q

E - what causes post operative ileus

A

inflammation in the muscularis

23
Q

bethanecol

A
  • prokinetic
  • used because it increases contractility ex: delayed gastric emptying
  • increases strength and duration of cecum and RVC
24
Q

neostigmine

A

inhibits cholinesterase –> increases receptor levels of ach

25
Q

metoclopramide

A
  • moderate partial 5-HT4 agonist
  • moderate 5-ht3 antagonist
  • antagonist of dopamine 1 and 2 receptors

–> 5HT effects thought to be the most prokinetic

  • facilitates ach release and smooth muscle contraction
  • can cross BBB and cause seizure
26
Q

domperidone

A
  • competitive agonist at dopamine 2 receptors
  • these are inhibitory receptors
  • prokinetic in humans
27
Q

erythromycin lactobionate

A
  • direct motion receptor agonist that works directly on smooth muscle cells
  • hastens cecal emptying
28
Q

combining two NSAIDs

A
  • prolongs pharmacological effects
  • increases toxicity
  • same toxicity as giving a double dose of one
29
Q

Ptyalism DDX

A

Dysphagia: esophageal obstruction, oral foreign body, rabies, neurological disease

Toxicity: heavy metals, parasympathomimetics, cholinesterase insecticides (organophosphates and carbamates), cholinergic agonists – *slaframine from red clover contaminated with rhizoctonia/rhix

30
Q

Ranula

A

salivary mucocele that occurs secondary to obstruction of the sublingual salivary duct

treatment is to create a fistula into the oral cavity

31
Q

most frequently reported oral tumor in the horse

A

Oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma

32
Q

persistent right fourth aortic arch

A

can cause congenital obstruction of the esophagus

constriction by the ligamentum arteriosum extending between the right aorta and the left pulmonary artery with secondary dilation cranial to the obstruction

33
Q

rebound secretory response

A

o The use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) increases gastric pH

o Increased gastric pH increases gastrin secretion from the G-cells in an attempt to lower gastric pH

o Enhanced gastrin secretion causes proliferation of enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cells

o Once proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are discontinued, this leads to massive HCl secretion

o This is the theory behind weaning off of omeprazole

34
Q

competitively blocks the H2 receptor on the basolateral surface of the parietal cell

A

ranitidine

35
Q

Functional secretion of chloride in the crypt cell is caused by

A

an increase in cAMP.

This also leads to kinases being secreted that block sodium chloride absorptive process in the mucosal cells

36
Q

DPJ Prognosis

A

TP > 3.5g/dL

anion gap > 15mEq/L

both associated with poorer prognosis

37
Q

Excessive fluid and electrolyte secretion into the small intestine, and, consequently, large volumes of enterogastric fluid.

Serositis is a consistent finding, characterized by bright red to dark petechial and ecchymotic hemorrhages on the serosal surface.

A

DPJ

38
Q

Suspicion based on clinical signs, hypoalbuminemia, thickening of segments of small intestinal wall observed on ultrasound, positive serology, and molecular detection in feces.

Mechanism of enteritis involves invasion of the proliferating crypt cells in the ileum, causing extensive mitotic division and severe hyperplasia.

Mucosa becomes grossly thickened and develops corrugated appearance. Limited brush border leads to limited absorptive capacity causing the weight loss and hypoproteinemia usually observed.

Generally manifested in foals less than 1 year of age between the months of August and February.

A

EPE / Lawsonia

39
Q

Most consistent lab finding with lawsonia / EPE

A

TP < 5g/dL

albumin < 2

40
Q

Dx testing for lawsonia

A

Real time PCR has been shown to best sensitivity.

Immunoperoxidase monolayer assay is the most specific when determining presence of antibodies in adult horses with EPE

41
Q

Dx of equine septic peritonitis

A

AB tap Glucose < 30mg/dl

OR AB glu 50mg/dl LESS than the systemic glucose

OR AB glu < 50% of systemic

+ ab pH < 7.3

42
Q

most common anaerobe in equine septic peritonitis

A

bacteroides fragilis

43
Q

actinobacillus peritonitis

A

Infection is thought to be secondary to GI translocation or strongyles migration

o Horses commonly present with signs of colic +/- fever. A chronic form is possible and commonly presents with weight loss.

o Peritoneal WBC are usually markedly elevated (>100,000/ul) with an elevated peritoneal TP.

o Gram – rods commonly visible on smear of peritoneal fluid and bacterial culture reveals pure growth of A. equuli.

o These hoses respond well to penicillin/gentamicin and have a good prognosis. Antibiotics should be continued for 7 days following peritoneal fluid returning to normal.

44
Q

hemoperitoneum

A

Diagnosis is a characteristic ‘smoke swirling’ sign in the abdomen; confirmed by a peritoneal PCV >5%, elevated TP and gross appearance

Tx is stabilization; abx ARE indicated

45
Q

cisapride

A

2nd generation benzamide.

Acts at 5-HT4 and 5-HT3 to increase ACh.

Potential cardiac side effects. Not available in the USA

46
Q

most commonly isolated serotype of salmonella in equine diarrhea

A

typhimurium

47
Q

risk factors for small colon disease

A

minis

arabians

ponies

older > 15years

mares