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Radiology > Skeletal Test > Flashcards

Skeletal Test Flashcards

1
Q

What is articular cartilage?

A

Cartilage that lines the bones at the joint.

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2
Q

What is the diaphysis?

A

Shaft of bone.

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3
Q

What is Epiphysis?

A

Ends of bone.

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4
Q

Why is Metaphysis?

A

Where the diaphysis and epiphyses meet.

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5
Q

What the medullary cavity?

A

Hollow area within diaphysis; contains bone marrow.

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6
Q

What is cortex?

A

Outer layer of bone (periosteum)

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7
Q

What is spongy bone?

A

Inner bone; the trabeculae

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8
Q

Is cartilage seen on an x ray?

A

No.

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9
Q

What is the epiphyseal plate?

A

Plate of bone of cartilage that separates the epiphyses from the diaphysis in children; the growth plate.

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10
Q

What is osteoblasts?

A

Cells that form bone; ossification

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11
Q

What is osteoclasts?

A

The cells that destroy bone; resorption. Bone distraction.

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12
Q

What is bone remodeling?

A

Normal bone growth is a balance of osteoblasts and osteoclasts.

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13
Q

What is osteophytes?

A

Small bony Spurs.

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14
Q

What is bursae?

A

Small fluid-filled sacs located near the joints.

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15
Q

What is arthritis?

A

Inflammation of a joint.

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16
Q

What does lysis and lytic mean?

A

To dissolve (destroy).

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17
Q

What are the five bone functions?

A 
Support
Protect
Aids in movement
Production of blood *
Stores calcium
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18
Q

What is transnational vertebra?

A

Has characteristics of two different vertebrae.

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19
Q

What is cervical rib?

A

May compress brachial nerve plexus or subclavian artery.

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20
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

The spine fails to unite posteriorly (lamina)

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21
Q

What is spina bifida occulta?

A

Indicated by slight dumpling of the skin or a tuft of hair at the level of defect.

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22
Q

What is a meningocele?

A

Hermitaion of the meninges.

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23
Q

What is myelomeningocele?

A

Herniation of the meninges and spinal cord.

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24
Q

What is osteopetrosis?

A

Marble bones.

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25
Q

Describe osteopetrosis.

A

Too little of the bone is being reabsorbed by the osteoclasts
Bones are weak and stress fractures occur often
Radiographic appearance - radiopague
Must increase technique.

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26
Q

What is the skeletal system?

A

None and cartilage.

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27
Q

Describe osteogenesis. (born with this)

A

Brittle bones disease.
Decrease in bone mass
Usually wheel chair bound because their bones cannot support their body weight
Decrease technique.

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28
Q

What is achondroplasia?

A

Most common form of dwarfism.

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29
Q

What is congenital hip dysplasia?

A

Acetabulum not growing correctly; too shallow.

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30
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Abnormal growth or development.

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31
Q

What is the radiographic appearance of congenital hip dysplasia?

A 
Ap - usually appears normal
Bilateral Cleaves (frog-leg) - hip is dislocated superiorly.
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32
Q

What is the treatment of congenital hip dysplasia?

A

Immobilization of the femoral head (a harness of pelvic cast is used)

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33
Q

What is the 2 most common forms of arthritis?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

Osteoarthritis

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34
Q

What is Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Autoimmune disease.

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35
Q

What is a autoimmune disease?

A

The body mistakenly attacks healthy tissue.

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36
Q

Describe rheumatoid arthritis.

A

Most common in middle aged women
Begins in joint of feet/hands then progresses.
Can be continuously progressive or have periods of remission

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37
Q

What are the radiographic appearances for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Early appearances - periarticular radiolucency.

End stage- crippling deformities.

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38
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

Degenerative joint diseases (DJD)

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39
Q

Describe osteoarthritis.

A

Loss of joint cartilage
Caused by wear and tear in older patients.
Predominantly affects the weight bearing joint (spine, knees, hips)

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40
Q

What are the radiographic appearances for osteoarthritis?

A

Narrowing of the joint space and an irregular pattern of osteophytes.

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41
Q

What are osteophytes?

A

Small bony Spurs?

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42
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Fusion of the spine; bamboo spine.

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43
Q

What is psoriatic arthritis?

A

Arthritis that develops in patients with psoriasis?

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44
Q

What is infectious arthritis?

A

Arthritis caused by infection. (Bacteria or virus)

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45
Q

What is tuberculous arthritis?

A

Arthritis caused by TB bacteria.

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46
Q

What is gout?

A

Acute form of arthritis that usually attacks the big toe.

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47
Q

What is gout caused by?

A

Increased levels of Utica acid in the blood.
Kidneys not functioning properly
Hereditary.

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48
Q

What is bursae?

A

Small fluid filled sacs located near the joints that reduce friction caused by movement.

*usually not seen in an x ray.

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49
Q

What is a rotator cuff?

A

Refers to the muscles and tendons that surround the glenohumeral joint.

50
Q

What is a rotator cuff tear?

A

Causes an abnormal communication between the shoulders joint and the bursa.

51
Q

What is an arthrogram?

A

Contrast injected into a join space to see if contrast escapes shoulder joint.
MRI sometimes done after this.

52
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

Acute inflammation of the bone and bone marrow.

53
Q

Describe osteomyelitis.

A

Caused by bacteria

Bacteria can reach bone by Hematogenous spread.

54
Q

What is the radiographic appearance of osteomyelitis.

A

Not detectable by plain radiographs until 10 after onset of symptoms
Nuc med can detect the disease within hours of onset.

55
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Decrease in bone mass.

56
Q

Describe osteoporosis.

A

Usually caused by accelerated resorption of bone. (Osteoclasts)
Prolonged steroid use
Immobilization (in a cast)

57
Q

What is the radiographic appearance of osteoporosis?

A

Radiolucent bones.
Picture frame pattern - sign of osteoporosis of the spine.
Cortex of vertebral bodies appear as a dense and prominent thin line.
Compression fractures of the spine common.
Reduce technique.

58
Q

What are treatments for Osteoporosis?

A

Weight bearing exercises
Hormonal replacement therapy
Dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D
Kyphoplasty and vertebroplasty prevent and treat vertebral collapse.

59
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Softening of the bone due to vitamin D deficiency.

60
Q

What is rickets?

A

Osteomalacia in children.

61
Q

What is Paget’s disease?

A

A chronic bone disease believed to be caused by a “slow virus”

62
Q

What is a slow virus?

A

A virus that takes a slow progressive course of action.

63
Q

What is Fibrous dysplasia?

A

Fibrous tissue rapidly grows within the medullary cavity.

Usually begins during childhood.

64
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Abnormal growth and development

Excessive bone repair and destruction.

65
Q

What is ischemia?

A

A decreased supply of blood to an organ

66
Q

What is the radiographic appearance of necrosis?

A

Late stage seen as radiopague.

67
Q

What is a simple bone cyst?

A

Fluid filled, seen as radiolucent on a radiograph.

68
Q

What is an Incomplete fracture?

A

Portion of the cortex intact.

69
Q

What is a closed fracture?

A

Overlaying skin intact.

70
Q

What is an open fracture (compound fracture)

A

Overlaying skin is disrupted (bone is sticking out of skin)

71
Q

What is a transverse fracture?

A

Runs at a right angle to the long axis of the bone.

72
Q

What is an oblique fracture?

A

Runs at a course of approximately 45 degrees to the long axis of the bone.

73
Q

What is a spiral fracture?

A

Encircles the shaft.

74
Q

What is an avulsion fracture?

A

Small fragments torn from bony prominences.

75
Q

What is comminuted fracture?

A

Composed of more than two fragments.

76
Q

What is a compression fracture?

A

Compaction of bone that results in decreased height (vertebrae).

77
Q

What is a depressed fracture?

A

Occurs in the skull or tibial plateau.

78
Q

What is a pathologic fracture?

A

Fracture not caused by force but rather some other pathologic process (tumor, infection, or disease)

79
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

Incomplete fracture of children.

80
Q

What is a torus (buckle) fracture?

A

The cortex in intact with buckling.

81
Q

What is a bowing fracture?

A

Bowing of the bone due to force but not forceful enough to produce fracture.

82
Q

What is a non-displaced fracture?

A

No angulation or separation of the bone fragments.

83
Q

What is a displaced fracture?

A

Angulation and separation of the bone fragments.

84
Q

What is a dislocation?

A

Displacement of a bone from its normal articulation.

85
Q

What is a subluxation?

A

Displacement of a vertebrae.

86
Q

What must be be done for fractures in radiographs.

A

Must have 2 projections at least 90 degrees to each other.

87
Q

What is a closed reduction?

A

The fracture is manipulated without surgical incision.

88
Q

What is an external fixation?

A

Splint or cast.

89
Q

What should you do with technique with fiberglass and plaster casts?

A

Increase.

90
Q

What is an open reduction?

A

The fracture is repaired surgically.

91
Q

What does ORIF stand for?

A

Open reduction internal fixation.

92
Q

What is internal fixation?

A

Metal plates, screws, wires, rods, nails.

93
Q

What is malunion?

A

Healing of fracture fragments in faulty position.

94
Q

What is delayed union?

A

Any fracture that takes longer to heal than average?

95
Q

What is nonunion?

A

Healing process has stopped and the fragments remain ununited.

96
Q

What is a colles fracture?

A

Transverse fracture through the distal radius with dorsal angulation.

97
Q

What is a scaphoid (navicular) fracture?

A

Initial radiograph may appear normal but repeat radiograph obtained weeks later will reveal fracture.

98
Q

What is a boxers fracture?

A

Fracture of the 5th metacarpal.

99
Q

How can you detect a fracture of the elbow.

A

Fat pad sign

Demonstrated on lateral pictures of elbow.

100
Q

What is a Potts fracture?

A

Bimalleolar fracture (medial and lateral malleolus.

101
Q

What is a trimalleolar fracture?

A

Fracture of medial/lateral malleoli and distal posterior aspect of tibia.

102
Q

What is a jones fracture?

A

Fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal. (Can see lateral better on lateral ankle)

103
Q

How can you tell a dislocated shoulder?

A

1 Anterior dislocation the humeral head will be beneath coracoid process
2 Posterior dislocation the humeral head will be beneath acromion process.
(Anterior most common)

104
Q

Explain dislocation of the hip.

A

Posterior dislocation most common.

105
Q

What is a Jefferson fracture?

A

A comminuted fracture of the ring of the atlas.

106
Q

What is hangmans fracture?

A

Fracture of c2 with anterior subluxation of c2 over c3.

107
Q

What is a clay shovelers fracture?

A

Avulsion fracture if a spinous process in the lower cervical or upper thoracic spine.

108
Q

What is a compression fracture.

A

Common in the thoracolumbar spine.

109
Q

What are intervertebral disk?

A

Act as shock absorbers between the vertebrae.

110
Q

What is sciatica?

A

Pain that radiates down the back of the thigh and lower leg.

111
Q

What causes sciatica?

A

A herniated disk.

112
Q

What is myelography?

A

Contrast injected into the spinal canal.

113
Q

What is Degenerative disk disease?

A

Intervertebral disk space narrowing.

114
Q

What is spondylitis?

A

Inflammation of the spine.

115
Q

What is spondylosis?

A

Arthritis of the zygapophyseal joints.

116
Q

What is spongylolysis?

A

A stress fracture of the pars interarticularis.

Radiographically seen as a collar on the dog or dogs neck is broke

117
Q

What is spongylolisthesis?

A

Forward displacement of one vertebrae over a lower one.

Due to spondylolysis

118
Q

What is menisci?

A

Cartilage of the knee.

119
Q

What is metabolic disease?

A

A disease that occurs because a body process malfunctions.

120
Q

What is bone metastases?

A

Cancer that had spread to the bone.

121
Q

Which direction must an intervertebral disk herniate to put pressure on the spinal cord?

A

Posteriorly.

Radiology (20 decks)

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