SCP2 Flashcards

1
Q

The ultimate goal of performing a CN examination is to

A

…localise the lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Visual acuity and colour perception is attributed to CN _____

A

II (Optic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The “Jaw jerk” reflex tests which cranial nerve?

A

V (Trigeminal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which two cranial nerves are responsible for soft palate elevation?

A

IX (Glossopharyngeal) and X (Vagus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A defect in the motor branch of CN IX or X could result in a deviation of the uvula (towards/away from) the side of the lesion.

A

AWAY from

(Remember: “Push it towards, Pull away”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is CN X (vagus nerve) tested in the cranial nerve exam?

A

Elevation of uvula, cough, gag (reflex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which cranial nerves could be involved in nystagmus?

A

III (Oculomotor), IV (Trochlear), and VI (Abducens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If a patient presents with issues related to visual acuity or colour perception, where is the most common site of the problem?

A

Most likely an ocular or retinal problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A defect in the inner retina/optic nerve/visual pathway results in ________ defects

A

red/green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of colour defects are associated with outer retinal diseases?

A

blue-green defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Visual field defects most commonly localize in the _______ ____________.

A

cerebral hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the medical term for “unequal pupils?”

A

Anisocoria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Aniridia refers to an abnormal ______

A

iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the pretectal nucleus of the midbrain associated with CN III and the pupillary light reflex?

A

The Edinger-Westphal nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A “Marcus-Gunn Pupil” refers to what type of pupillary defect?

A

A relative afferent pupillary defect.

This is a condition where one optic nerve is relatively defective compared to the other. The defect causes info to travel slower along the optic nerve, so it will not respond as quickly to the light stimulus, so there is a delay in constriction on one side.

AFFERENT PUPILLARY DEFECT = SLOWER SIGNALLING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a classic cause of a relative afferent pupillary defect?

A

Optic neuritis- think MS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is located at the head of the optic nerve?

A

the optic disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Blurred margins or swelling of the optic disc are indicative of what condition?

A

Raised intracranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The eye movement pathway begins with afferent fibres traveling via CN II (optic nerve), which arrive to the ________ _________ nucleus –> visual cortex –> prefrontal cortex –> midbrain EW/CN III nucleus –> Efferent fibres of CN III and V1

A

lateral geniculate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which muscle of the eye is responsible for the “down & out” (inferolateral) movement of the eyeball?

A

Superior oblique muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which four eye muscles connect to the common tendinous ring?

A

All 4 recti muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Damage to which cranial nerve will result in the eye appearing “down and out” and ptosis?

A

CN III (Oculomotor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An irregularly shaped pupil represents what type of injury?

A

surgical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In a CN IV (trochlear) defect, the head will be tilted (towards/away from) the affected side

A

away from

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If CN VI (Abducens) is working normally, the sclera around the lateral iris should _________ on lateral gaze.

A

disappear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where is the most likely site of a defect presenting with monocular diplopia (double vision in one eye)?

A

intraocular defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In the case of horizontal binocular diplopia (double vision in both eyes) where is the most likely site of the defect?

A

Lateral/medial rectus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Multidirectional nystagmus suggests dysfunction in which area?

A

the cerebellum

29
Q

If there is a defect in CN (___), which innervates the pterygoid muscles, the jaw will deviate TOWARDS the affected side

A

V (Trigeminal)

30
Q

Is the “jaw jerk” reflex a normal or an abnormal finding when testing CN V (trigeminal)?

A

An abnormal finding- jaw jerk should not be present

31
Q

What is “Bell’s phenomenon?”

A

Bell’s phenomenon is a medical sign of Bell’s palsy that allows observers to notice an upward and outward movement of the eye, when an attempt is made to close the eyes.

32
Q

Which cranial nerve supplies the parotid gland?

A

CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)

33
Q

Which half of the face is affected in a stroke?

A

Only the lower half

34
Q

In Weber’s test, a person with sensorineural hearing loss hears the sound better in their right ear. This reflects a defect on which side?

A

The patient’s left side. In Weber’s test, the tone is referred to the patient’s better ear in sensorineural hearing loss, with indicates impairment in the contralateral ear.

35
Q

The innervation of which cranial nerve is from the medulla to C5?

A

CN XI (Spinal accessory)

36
Q

When the left SCM muscle contracts, the head turns to the ________

A

right

37
Q

Dysmetria (dysdiadochokinesis), nystagmus, and slurred speech are signs of a defect in which area of the brain?

A

the cerebellum

38
Q

Problems with speech articulation are known as _____- and involve which four cranial nerves?

A

Dysarthria

CN’s 7, 9, 10, and 12

39
Q

How is power affected in UMN lesions? Preferentially affects _________ in arms, and __________ in legs

A

Extensors, flexors

40
Q

Wasting and fasciculations are signs of _____ lesions.

A

LMN

41
Q

What is the pattern of wasting distribution in myopathies vs neuropathies?

A

Myopathies: proximal muscle wasting
Neuropathies: distal muscle wasting

42
Q

Medical term for “wild flinging movements”

A

Ballism

43
Q

Semi-purposeful abnormal movements

A

Athetosis

44
Q

Sustained abnormal contraction of muscle

A

Dystonia

45
Q

Brief jerks of the muscle

A

Myoclonus

46
Q

Sustained clonus (> 6 jerking movements) is indicative of a/an ______ lesion

A

UMN

47
Q

__________ rigidity is a classic sign of Parkinson’s disease, and is a sign of an _____________ disorder/

A

Cogwheel, extrapyramidal

48
Q

What is the muscle, nerve, and nerve root involved in shoulder abduction?

A

Deltoid, axillary nerve, C5

49
Q

Muscle, nerve and nerve root for testing elbow flexion (upper limb power)?

A

biceps, musculocutaneous, C5/C6

50
Q

Muscle, nerve, nerve root for testing elbow extension (upper limb power)?

A

Triceps, radial, C7

51
Q

Muscle, nerve, nerve root for wrist extension?

A

Extensor carpi radialis longus, posterior interosseous nerve, C6

52
Q

Muscle, nerve, nerve root for hip flexion?

A

Iliopsoas, iliofemoral nerve, L1/L2

53
Q

Muscle, nerve, nerve root for hip extension?

A

Gluteus max, sciatic, L5/S1

54
Q

Muscle, nerve, nerve root for knee flexion?

A

Hamstrings, sciatic nerve, S1

55
Q

Muscle, nerve, nerve root for knee extension?

A

Quadriceps, femoral nerve, L3/L4

56
Q

Muscle, nerve, nerve root for dorsiflexion of the foot?

A

Tibialis anterior, deep peroneal nerve, L4/L5

57
Q

Muscle, nerve, nerve root for plantar flexion of the foot?

A

Gastrocnemius/soleus, tibial nerve, S1/S2

58
Q

Nerve root levels for upper limb reflexes: (Biceps, supinator, triceps)

A

C5: Biceps
C6: Supinator
C7: Triceps

59
Q

Nerve root levels for lower limb reflexes: (knee jerk, ankle jerk)

A

Knee jerk: L3/L4

Ankle jerk: S1

60
Q

What is the distribution of sensory impairment in peripheral neuropathy?

A

“glove and stocking” distribution- longer nerves are affected first

61
Q

Impaired pain and temp sense on the right side, impaired light tough and vibration sense on the left side. Pyramidal weakness, increased tendon reflexes in left leg, and extensor plantar response on left side. Light touch causes exquisite pain. These are symptoms of _____________ syndrome.

A

Brown-sequard

62
Q

Sensory impairment of thumb, first and second fingers and part of third finger, motor impairment of abductor pollicis brevis and opponens pollicis describes what type of peripheral nerve lesion?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

63
Q

Nerve affected in carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Median

64
Q

Sensory impairment on dorsolateral aspect of hand, impaired extension of fingers and wrist describes which peripheral neuropathy?

A

Radial nerve palsy

65
Q

Sensory impairment of medial aspect of ring & little fingers, impairment in small muscles of hand (hollowed out “LI4”)

A

Ulnar nerve palsy

66
Q

A sensory impairment that mainly affects the foot and toe dorsiflexors (“Strawberry pickers”) involves which nerve?

A

Common peroneal

67
Q

A patient with a loss of proprioception- more unsteady with eyes closed than with eyes open, is known as a positive __________ sign and is indicative of a defect in the ___________.

A

Romberg’s, cerebellum

68
Q

“Steppage gait” is associated with what type of lesion? (UMN/LMN)

A

LMN lesion