Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What percentage of the world’s deaths are caused by infections?

A

33%

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2
Q

What are the two major emerging threats related to infection in high-income countries?

A
  1. Healthcare-associated infections

2. Antibiotic resistance

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3
Q

List the four major types of micro-organisms which cause human infectious disease

A
  1. Viruses
  2. Bacteria
  3. Fungi
  4. Protists
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4
Q

In 1876, who established that microbes can cause disease?

A

Robert Koch

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5
Q

Koch’s postulates: #1

A specific ___________ is always associated with a given disease.

A

microorganism

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6
Q

Koch’s postulates: #2

The microorganism can be __________ from the diseased animal and __________ in pure culture in the laboratory.

A

isolated, grown

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7
Q

Koch’s postulates: #3

The cultured microbe will cause __________ when transferred to a healthy animal.

A

disease

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8
Q

Koch’s postulates: #4

The _______ type of microorganism can be isolated from the newly _________ animal

A

same, infected

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9
Q

Do prokaryotic cells have a nucleus?

A

No

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10
Q

Do prokaryotic cells have internal membranes?

A

No

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11
Q

How is prokaryotic DNA organised?

A

One circular chromosome in a nucleoid

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12
Q

Which type of cells contain extensive and specialised organelles- prokaryotic or eukaryotic?

A

Eukaryotic

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13
Q

How are bacteria named?

A

Genus, then species

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14
Q

In the strain of E.coli known as “0157:H7,” what do the “O” and “H” refer to?

A

Different antigens

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15
Q

Bacteria are most helpfully classified by shape and _________

A

staining

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16
Q

The ability to take up stain is based on the __________ and accessibility of cell wall ____________________.

A

thickness, peptidoglycans

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17
Q

List the four layers encapsulating gram negative prokaryotic cells (from outermost to innermost layer)

A
  1. Capsule
  2. Outer membrane
  3. Peptidoglycan layer
  4. Plasma membrane
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18
Q

Which two layers make up the bacterial cell wall?

A

The outer membrane and the layer of peoptidoglycan

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19
Q

Gram-positive bacteria have a uniformly dense cell wall consisting primarily of

A

peptidoglycan

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20
Q

Which types of bacteria have a very this peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane?

A

Gram negative bacteria

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21
Q

An __________ is a toxic, heath stable lipopolysaccharide substance present in the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria that is released from the cell upon lysis.

A

Endotoxin

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22
Q

What type of bacteria have lipopolysaccharide?

A

Gram negative bacteria

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23
Q

Gram negative bacteria have what toxic substance in their outer membrane layer?

A

Lipopolysaccharide

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24
Q

Peptidoglycans have 3-5 amino acid proteins, which is significant because it makes them resistant to

A

enzymatic destruction

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25
Q

What kind of enzymes assist with cross-linking of peptidoglycans?

A

Transpeptidase enzymes

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26
Q

Which class of antibiotic prevents the cross-linking of peptides by binding bacterial transpeptidases?

A

Beta lactam antiobiotics (penicillin,s cephalosporins, carbapenems)

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27
Q

Which class of antibiotic is only effective in gram positive bacteria?

A

Glycopeptides (e.g. Vancomycin)

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28
Q

Bacterial capsules are made up of

A

polysaccharides

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29
Q

What is the medical importance of the bacterial capsule?

A

It “hides” the immunogenic cell wall

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30
Q

Immunity requires antibodies to the _______

A

capsule

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31
Q

Which part of the bacteria confers virulence?

A

The capsule

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32
Q

Mobile genetic elements code for ________ and antibiotic resistent _______.

A

toxins, genes

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33
Q

These are DNA sequences that are able to move location in the genome

A

Transposons

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34
Q

Circular “extrachromosmal” DNA that replicates independently.

A

Plasmids

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35
Q

This type of independently replicating DNA can be passed down to progeny or transmitted between bacteria

A

Plasmids

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36
Q

Non-replicating, dormant form of bacteria that are resistant to drying, temperature, disinfection, and digestion.

A

spores

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37
Q

Bacillus spp and Clostridium spp are two examples of bacteria that can form ________

A

spores

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38
Q

Name four examples of bacteria virulence factors:

1. ___________ molecules

A

adhesion

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39
Q

Name four examples of bacteria virulence factors:

2. ___________ to degrade host proteins

A

Enzymes

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40
Q

Name four examples of bacteria virulence factors:

3. Degrade ___________ mediators

A

immune

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41
Q

Name four examples of bacteria virulence factors:

4. _________ host cells

A

Lyse

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42
Q

Gene regulation - bacterial growth. Describe what happens in the lag phase of bacterial growth

A
  • no increase in cell numbers
  • Adjustment to new environment
  • Gene regulation
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43
Q

Gene regulation - bacterial growth. Describe what happens in the log or exponential phase of bacterial growth

A
  • Cell doubling
  • Slope of curve = growth rate of that organism in that environment
  • This is where the person would have either a superficial infection, or bacteraemia
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44
Q

Gene regulation - bacterial growth. Describe what happens in the stationary phase of bacterial growth

A
  • Nutrients become depleted
  • Metabolites build up
  • Divison stops
  • Gene regulation
  • ABSCESS
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45
Q

Gene regulation - bacterial growth. Describe what happens in the death phase of bacterial growth

A
  • Exhaustion of resources

- Toxicity of environment

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46
Q

Bacteria are most helpful classified by ________ and staining

A

shape

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47
Q

Shape of Streptococcus and Enterococcus bacteria?

A

Coccus/cocci = round

48
Q

Shape of Enterobacter spp?

A

Bacillus/bacilli = rod-shaped; long

49
Q

Shape of Vibrio cholera?

A

Vibrio = comma-shaped

50
Q

Shape of Coccobacillus?

A

In between Coccus and Bacillus- oval

51
Q

Shape of Campylobacter jejuni (spirilium)?

A

Rigid spiral

52
Q

Shape of spirochete?

A

Coiled spirals

53
Q

What are the three requirements for successful viral infection?

A
  1. Enough virus
  2. Cells accessible, susceptible, and permissive
  3. Local antiviral defense absent or overcome
54
Q

List the 5 types of viral transmission:

A
  1. Horizontal (between members of the same species)
  2. Iatrogenic (Due to activity of a health care worker)
  3. Nosocomial (Infection occurs in hospital)
  4. Vertical (Transfer of infection between parent and offspring)
  5. Germ line (Agent transmitted as part of the genome - e.g. pro-viral DNA)
55
Q

What is the most common route of entry for viral infections?

A

Respiratory tract

56
Q

List the 5 methods of acquiring viral infections (body system “breach”)

A
  1. Respiratory tract
  2. Alimentary tract (eating, drinking, etc)
  3. Urogenital tract
  4. Eye
  5. Skin
57
Q

Viral infections can be ________, __________ or _________.

A

acute, chronic, latent

58
Q

This type of viral infection is characterised by a rapid onset of dz, a relatively brief period of symptoms, and resolution within days

59
Q

These types of viral infections are caused by pathogens with slow growth rates, promoting an infection that is persistent for long periods.

60
Q

This is an infection that is hidden, inactive, or dormant

61
Q

Can latent infections be transmitted to another host, even without any visible signs of disease?

62
Q

This is the capacity of a virus to cause disease in an infected host

63
Q

This is the amount of virus needed to kill 50% of infected animals

64
Q

How can virulence be quantified? (5)

A
  1. LD 50
  2. Mean time to death
  3. Mean time to appearance of sx
  4. Measurement of fever, weight loss
  5. Measurement of pathological lesions
65
Q

Viral genes affecting virulence fall into four classes:

1. Those that affect the abilty of the virus to ______

66
Q

Viral genes affecting virulence fall into four classes:

2. Those that modify the ______ _________ mechanisms

A

host’s defense

67
Q

Viral genes affecting virulence fall into four classes:

3. Those that enable the virus to ______ in the host

68
Q

Viral genes affecting virulence fall into four classes:

4. Those which have intrinsic _______ _________ effects

A

cell killing

69
Q

This describes that capability of a virus to infect a distinct group of cells in the host

70
Q

Tropism is determined by

A

the availability of virus receptors on the surface of a host cell.

71
Q

A _________ host is a person who can become infected by an infectious agent.

A

susceptible

72
Q

Name 5 risk factors that can accelerate risk of infection

A
  1. Age (< 6 months old, and in the elderly)
  2. Nutrition and sociocultural condition
  3. Open wounds/invasive procedures
  4. Suppressed immune system
  5. Presence and/or number of infectious organisms
73
Q

A ________ cell or host is one that allows a virus to circumvent its defenses and replicate.

A

permissive

74
Q

What is the most common type of test used to detect levels of antibodies?

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

75
Q

ELISA assays are usually _________, using a reaction that converts the substrate into a coloured product which can be measured using a plate reader.

A

chromogenic

76
Q

Which type of serologic testing enables you to run multiple tests for different viruses simultaneously?

A

Automation and Random Access Analyser

77
Q

Which testing method is the best of non-cultivable viruses?

A

Viral nucleic acid detection testing (PCR)

78
Q

What is the most common type of viral nucleic acid detection test?

79
Q

What type of serologic test for viral infections can also quantify viral load?

80
Q

Explain concepts of viral prevention

A
  1. PPE: Gloves, masks

2. Vaccines, chemoprophylaxis, immunoprophylaxis

81
Q

Which four common viruses are there currently no vaccines for?

A
  1. HIV
  2. HCV
  3. CMV
  4. EBV
82
Q

HAART drugs are used to treat

83
Q

Lamivudine is used to treat

84
Q

Ribavarin and PEG intereron are used to treat

85
Q

Tamiflu is used to treat

86
Q

Acyclovir is used to treat

87
Q

Ganciclovir is used to treat

88
Q

What are the 5 main methods used to diagnose infectious disease?

A
  1. Microscopy
  2. Bacterial culture
  3. Tissue culture
  4. Serology
  5. Molecular techniques (PCR)
89
Q

What type of laboratory test is more sensitive for detecting very small numbers of bacteria- microscopy or culture?

90
Q

What is the main strength of bacterial culture?

It’s good for bacteria you can _________ and ________.

A

stain, grow

91
Q

What type of lab test is best for antiobiotic susceptibility testing?

A

Bacterial culture

92
Q

Bacterial culture provides provisional identification of bacteria based on the bacteria’s ___________.

A

metabolism

93
Q

What is the time frame to achieve results in a bacterial culture?

A

24 hours for provisional identification,

48 hours to get definitive information

94
Q

What are the limitations of bacterial culture?

A
  1. Slow (definitive results take 48 hours)
  2. Labour intensive
  3. Some microorganisms are “unculturable,” such as syphilis
95
Q

How is HIV mainly diagnosed?

96
Q

This lab test can show the response of the immune system to pathogens

97
Q

Which type of lab testing is helpful in the detection of antibodies in viral infections?

98
Q

In serology testing, how can you distinguish between acute and chronic infections? (hint: Antibodies)

A

The presence of different isotypes IgM vs IgG can distinuish between acute and chronic infection

99
Q

Which two types of bacteria don’t stain well and are also difficult to culture? What is a better test to diagnose infections with these microorganisms?

A

Chlamydia and mycoplasm infections

Serology

100
Q

What is the main limitation with serology testing, in terms of looking for antibodies?

A

Antibodies can take weeks to develop

101
Q

This lab technique that takes a specific sequence of DNA and amplifies it to be used for further testing. It amplifies dsDNA molecules (fragments) with the same size and sequence by enzymatic method and cycling condition.

102
Q

Four steps of PCR:

1. _______________ by heat

A

Denaturation

103
Q

Four steps of PCR:

2. Annealing ________ to target sequence

104
Q

Four steps of PCR:

3. ___________ TAQ DNA polymerase synthesizes in the 5’ to 3’ direction

105
Q

Four steps of PCR:

4. The first PCR cycle ends with _____ new DNA strands that are identical to original target

106
Q

Which type of laboratory testing in helpful in determining the causative agent in viral encephalitis?

107
Q

PCR testing has a good ___________ predictive value- a high probability that people with a negative test truly DON’T have the disease.

108
Q

Which lab technique is used to monitor viral load? (e.g. HIV or HCV)

109
Q

Main limitation of PCR:

Can only be used to identify the presence or absence of a _________ pathogen or gene.

110
Q

This type of culture may consist of a single cell, a population of cells, or a whole or part of an organ

A

Tissue culture

111
Q

What type of culture is helpful in studying

  1. the cytopathic effects on cells
  2. expression of viral proteins detected at the cell surface
A

Tissue culture

112
Q

What laboratory technique is used to differentiate bacteria by the chemical and physical properties of the cell walls?

A

Gram staining

113
Q

Safranin or fuchsine is the counterstain that shows up as pink or red in what type of bacteria?

A

Gram negative bacteria

114
Q

Name some examples of gram positive bacteria

A
  1. Staphylococcus
  2. Streptococcus
  3. Enterococcus
  4. Listeria
  5. Lactobacillus
115
Q

Name some examples of gram negative bacteria

A
  1. E.coli
  2. Pseudomonas
  3. Chlamydia
  4. Yersinia pestis
116
Q

Acid-fast stains such as Ziehl-Neelsen, or fluorescent stains such as auramine are used to identify what type of bacteria?

A

Mycobacteria