Random Stuff 3 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the effect of ANG II on bradykinin levels?
A
Increases breakdown
2
Q
When in gestation does chorionic villus sampling occur? What is the risk associated with this?
A
- After 10 weeks
- Limb defects
3
Q
The uterine artery is a branch of what artery?
A
Anterior internal iliac
4
Q
The middle rectal artery contributes blood to what part of the female pelvic anatomy?
A
uterus and rectum
5
Q
The vaginal artery is a branch of what artery?
A
Internal iliac
6
Q
What is adenomyosis, and what are the classic exam findings?
A
Endometriosis within the uterine myometrium, causing an enlarged, boggy uterus
7
Q
What is the DOC for enterococcus?
A
Ampicillin
8
Q
What is the treatment for newly acquired HBV?
A
Lamivudine and IFN-alpha
9
Q
What IFN is used in the treatment of Hep B?
A
IFN-alpha
10
Q
What is the MOA and use of Lamivudine?
A
- Cytidine analog that inhibits reverse transcription and blocks Hep replication
- Hep B
11
Q
What is the treatment for HCV?
A
-Ribavirin and pegylated IFN-alpha2
12
Q
What is the MOA and use of ribavirin?
A
- Guanosine analog
- RSV and Hep C
13
Q
What is the classic side effect of isoniazid administration, beside the peripheral neuropathy from B6 deficiency?
A
Hepatotoxic
14
Q
What is the HLA haplotype that is associated with DM I?
A
HLA-DR3
15
Q
What are the four diseases associated with HLA-DR2?
A
- SLE
- Goodpasture
- MS
- Hay fever
16
Q
What are the teratogenic effects of phenytoin?
A
- Skull malformations
- Underdeveloped nails and facial features
- MR
17
Q
What are the components of the following mnemonic for Cp450 inducers: Chronic alcoholics Steal Phen-Phen, and Never Refuses Greasy Carbs”?
A
- Alcohol
- St. John’s wort
- Phenytoin
- Phenobarbital
- Nevirapine
- Rifampin
- Carbamazepine
18
Q
What are the components of the following mnemonic for Cp450 inhibitors: A Cute Gentleman Cipped Iced Grapefruit juice Quickly And Kept Munching on Soft Cinnamon Rolls
A
- Acute alcohol abuse
- Gemfibrozil
- Ciprofloxacin
- Isoniazid
- Grapefruit juice
- Quinidine
- Amiodarone
- Ketoconazole
- Macrolides
- Sulfonamides
- Cimetidine
- Ritonavir
19
Q
What are the substrates for p450 enzymes (always think when outdoors)?
A
- Anti-epileptics
- Theophylline
- Warfarin
- OCPs
20
Q
Lesions to the left posterior corpus callosum leads to what neurological deficit?
A
Reading impairment
21
Q
A lesion to the right angular gyrus would produce what symptoms?
A
Hemineglect
22
Q
Where is Wernicke’s area located?
A
Posterior part of the left superior temporal gyrus
23
Q
Which antiepileptic medication can cause a folate deficiency?
A
Phenytoin
24
Q
At what rib level on the right side of the rib cage is the horizontal fissure?
A
4th
25
Where are GLUT-1 transporters found?
- Cortical neurons
| - RBCs
26
Where are GLUT-2 transporters expressed?
Pancreatic Beta cells
27
What is the cause of alkaptonuria? Which amino acid is broken down by this pathway?
- Defect in homogentisate 1,2 dioxygenase
| - Tyrosine
28
What is the molecular cause of CF?
defective processing from the ER to the golgi, because the protein is retained in the ER
29
What is the role of GP120 and GP41 on AIDS virus?
- CP120 = binds to CXCR4
| - CP40 = causes fusion
30
What is the DOC for enterobius vermicularis?
Albendazole, mebendazole or pyrantel pamoate
31
What is the DOC for: Trypanosoma cruzi?
Benznidazole
| Nifurtimox
32
What is the DOC for: Onchocerca volvulus
Ivermectin
33
What is the DOC for: dracunculus medinensis?
Niridazole
34
What four parts of the developing embryo eventually comprise the diaphragm?
- Septum transversum
- Pleuroperitoneal folds
- Body wall
- Dorsal mesentery of the esophagus
("Several Parts Build Diaphragm")
35
What is the function of the occipital pole in the brain?
Area where the nerve fibers from the macula go
36
What is the drug that is used to reverse 5FU?
Thymidine (since 5FU inhibits thymidylate synthase)
37
What is the treatment for strep pharyngitis in a patient with a PCN allergy?
Macrolide
38
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is PAD?
Type III
39
What is the formula for calculating tidal volume based on CO pressures?
Vd = Vt *([PaCO2 -PECO2] / PaCO2)
40
What happens to potassium levels with a VIPoma? HCl?
Hypokalemia
| Achlorhydria
41
What is the other name for Bordet-Gengou agar?
Potato agar
42
What is the MOA and use of flucytosine?
Pyrimidine antimetabolite, similar to 5FU, used to treat fungal infections
43
What is the MOA of terbinafine?
Inhibits squalene epoxidase
44
Vincristine is specific for what phase of the cell cycle?
M phase
45
Bleomycin is specific for what phase of the cell cycle?
G2
46
Cisplatin is specific for which phase of the cell cycle?
Cycle non-specific
47
Etoposide is specific for what phase of the cell cycle?
G2 and late S
48
Methotrexate is specific for what phase of the cell cycle?
S phase
49
What is the heme enzyme that Pb inhibits? What, then, builds up in the serum?
ALA dehydratase
| Delta Aminolevulinic acid
50
What type of collagen is defective in ehlers danlos syndrome?
3
51
Which type of beta blockers mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia?
Non-selective
52
What are the histological characteristics of mucor?
Broad, irregular nonseptate hyphae
53
What is the histological characteristics of small lymphocytic lymphoma?
Defacement of lymph node architecture, with small, cells with irregular nuclei
54
Which Vasopressin receptor mediates the increase in aquaporins in the collecting duct: V1 or V2?
V2
55
What chemo drug is used for a Wilms tumor?
Vincristine
56
Which antifungal drug can, when taken systemically, cause hyperpigmentation? Why?
Ketoconazole
| -Inhibits 17alpha hydroxylase and cholesterol desmolase
57
Methotrexate acts during which phase of the cell cycle?
S phase
58
Bleomycin acts at which stage of the cell cycle?
G2
59
Cyclophosphamide acts during which phase of the cell cycle?
Nonspecific
60
Doxorubicin acts during which phase of the cell cycle?
Nonspecific
61
What is the function of the mesolimbic pathway? What disease is thought to originate from dysfunctions in this area?
- Involved in reward system
| - Responsible for schizophrenia
62
What is the function of the nigrostriatal pathway? What disease is thought to originate from dysfunctions in this area?
- EP motor system
| - PD
63
What is the function of the tuberoinfundibular pathway? What disease is thought to originate from dysfunctions in this area?
- Prolactin regulation
| - Galactorrhea
64
What is the function of the mesocortical pathway? What disease is thought to originate from dysfunctions in this area?
- Motivation, emotion
| - Negative s/sx of schizophrenia
65
Which crystals are positively birefringent: sodium urate, or calcium pyrophosphate?
Calcium pyrophosphate
66
What is the MOA of TCAs?
Block reuptake of NE and 5HT
67
What is the MOA, ad use of mirtazapine?
- alpha2 antagonist that increases the release of NE and 5HT
| - Antidepressant
68
What is the MOA of bupropion?
NE and dopamine reuptake inhibition
69
Match: V1, V2 | Gs, Gq
```
V1 = Gq
V2 = Gs
```
70
What is the DOC for community acquired pneumonia?
Macrolide (e.g azithromycin)
71
What is the DOC for klebsiella pneumoniae?
Gentamicin
72
Piperacillin-Tazobactam is used for pneumonia caused by what organism?
Pseudomonas
73
What is the function of the cells of Kulchitsky?
Enteroendocrine cells that contain granules of 5HT and other things which are secreted
74
What is the MOA of shiga toxin?
Causes glycosidase cleavage of rRNA to inactivate the 60s ribosome of mammalian cells
75
What is the MOA of E.coli stable toxin?
Stimulates guanylate cyclase to stimulate Cl secretion, and inhibit NaCl absorption
76
What happens to the tonicity of saliva as the rate of salivation increases?
Goes from hypotonic relative to the serum, to almost isotonic
77
What happens to bicarb concentration at higher salivation rates?
Increases
78
What is the major circular DNA virus?
Hepadnaviridae (Hep B)
79
WHat are the three major drugs that undergo zero order kinetic elimination?
- EtOH
- Phenytoin
- High dose ASA
80
What is endemic typhus, and what causes it?
-Rickettsia prowazekii infection causing a rash, causing a rash that starts on the trunk, and moves outward
81
How does the rash spread in endemic typhus as compared to RMSF?
Endemic typhus starts on the abdomen and goes outward, opposite that of RMSF
82
What does the Weil-Felix reaction test for?
Rickettsial antibodies
83
What embryological structure gives rise to the smooth parts of the ventricles?
Bulbus cordis
84
What is the function of Meissner's corpuscles?
Light tough
| Position sense
85
What is the function of the organ of corti?
Senses movement of the cilia in the middle ear
86
What is the function of Krause's end bulbs?
Detecting pressure in the oropharynx
87
What is the function of Merkel cells?
pressure deep static touch (e.g. sharp edges)
88
What is the function of Pacinian corpuscles?
Pressure, coarse touch, vibration, and tension
"Pacinian packs a punch"
89
What is the function of C fibers? What about Adelta? Which is fast, and which slow?
Both for pain and temp
C = slow
A-delta = fast
90
What is the DOC for a UTI in a pregnant woman?
Cephalosporin
91
What is the inhaled anesthetic that is most likely to cause seizures?
Enflurane
92
What is the common adverse effect of halothane?
Hepatotoxic
93
What is the MOA and use of Zileuton?
Blocks leukotriene production to prevent asthma attacks
94
What is the MOA of zafirlukast?
Leukotriene receptor blocker
95
During which phase of meiosis does Down's syndrome arise?
Meiosis I anaphase
96
What is the MOA and use of theophylline?
- Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
| - Asthma
97
What is the treatment for theophylline overdose?
beta blockers to decrease cAMP levels
98
What is the long-ish term sequale of CMV retinitis?
Retinal detachment
99
Which has nystagmus: PCP use or amphetamine use?
PCP
100
What is the gram stain and morphology of Haemophilus ducreyi?
Gram negative coccobacillus
101
What is Werdnig-Hoffmann disease, and what is the inheritance pattern?
- AR destruction of the anterior horns of the spinal cord, leading to paralysis
- Presents early (neonate)
102
Put in order of infectivity: Hep C, HIV, Hep B
Hep B, Hep C, HIV
103
Why is bone marrow contraindicated for the treatment of Bruton's agammaglobulinemia?
T cells are still functioning and effective
104
What are the side effects of ganciclovir?
Nephrotoxicity and myelosuppression
105
What is the DOC for tourette's?
Haldol or other antipsychotics
106
What is the MOA and use of exemestane?
- Aromatase inhibitor
| - Estrogen positive breast CA
107
Which is more common: seminoma or a leydig cell tumor?
Seminoma
108
What is the drug used to treat CN poisoning? MOA?
- Na thiosulfate
| - Converts CN into thiocyanate
109
What is the MOA of CN poisoning?
CN inhibits Cytochrome oxidase
110
What is the MOA of amantadine in the treatment of the flu?
Prevents viral uncoating by binding to the M2 protein on the influenza A virus
111
What is the difference in clinical presentation of ITP and TTP?
ITP presents solely with thrombocytopenia, whereas TTP have kidney failure, CNS issues etc
112
What is the role of demeclozine in DI?
Causes it, by inhibiting ADH receptor activity at V2
113
What is the DOC for leprosy?
Dapsone
114
What are the components of the ABVD regimens for hodgkin's lymphoma?
Adriamycin (doxorubicin)
Bleomycin
Dacarbazine
Vinblastine
115
What are the two TB drugs that require activation before they are effective?
INH
| PZA
116
What is the MOA of clozapine?
Dopamine AND 5HT receptor blocker
117
What are the results of the quad screen for T21?
- Decreased AFP
- Increased beta-HCG
- DEcreased estriol
- Increased inhibin A
118
What are the results of the quad screen for T18?
- Decreased AFP
- Decreased beta-HCG
- Decreased estriol
- Normal inhibin A
119
What are the results of the quad screen for T13?
- Normal AFP
- Decreased beta-HCG
- Normal Estriol
- Normal inhibin A
120
What is the DOC for achalasia?
CCBs
121
What chromosome is ADPKD on?
16
122
What chromosome is ARPKD on?
6
123
What is the MOA and use of aldesleukin?
-IL-2 analog that is used to treat RCC and metastatic melanoma, by stimulating T cells
124
What is the genetic problem in Duchenne and Becker's muscular dystrophy respectively?
- BMD = In frame deletion
| - DMD = Out of frame deletion
125
What is the function of phospholamban in cardiac muscles?
Dephosphorylation of phospholamban inhibits SERCA transporter for Ca back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
126
What is the protein that is defective with Dubin-Johnson syndrome? Inheritance pattern?
AR mutation in canalicular multispecific organic anion transporter
127
What are the two calcineurin inhibitors, and what is their common toxic effect?
- Tacrolimus
- Cyclosporine
-Nephrotoxic
128
What is the MOA of tacrolimus?
BInds FK506 to inhibit IL-2 production
129
What is the MOA of cyclosporine?
Binds cyclophilin to inhibit IL-2 production
130
What is the MOA of sirolimus?
mTOR inhibitor to inhibit IL-2 production
131
What are the three cephalosporins that can be used to treat pseudomonas infections?
- Cefoperazone
- Ceftazidime
- Cefepime
132
What is the function of topoisomerase?
To relieve supercoiling
133
What is the name of the enzyme that forms thiocyanate from CN? What is the function of thiosulfate on this?
- Rhodanese
| - Donates a sulfur group
134
What is the treatment for strep throat if there is a PCN allergy?
Clindamycin
135
The CCA sequence on tRNA molecules is on the 3' or 5' end?
3'
136
What is the vaginal infection that persists at low, physiologic pH?
Candida
137
What is responsible for the infertility of Klinefelter's syndrome? What are the effects of this on hormone levels?
Lack of leydig cells means there's increased LH
138
What is the MOA Of daptomycin?
Depolarizes the bacterial cell membrane
139
Tumor suppressor or oncogene: c-myc
oncogene
140
Tumor suppressor or oncogene: APC
Oncogene
141
Tumor suppressor or oncogene: p53
Oncogene
142
Tumor suppressor or oncogene: PTEN
Oncogene
143
Tumor suppressor or oncogene: VHL
Oncogene
144
Tumor suppressor or oncogene: tyrosine kinase receptors
oncogene
145
Tumor suppressor or oncogene: ERK
oncogene
146
Tumor suppressor or oncogene: WNT
oncogene
147
What subset of class I antiarrhythmics increased both AP duration, and ERP? How?
- IA
- Block Na channels, (increased AP duration)
- BLock K channels (increase ERP)
148
What is the innervation of the brachioradialis?
Radial nerve
149
What is gentamicin generally used for? What is the classic side effect?
- Gram negative rod infections
| - Tinnitus
