Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

All the Small Things > Random Stuff 3 > Flashcards

Random Stuff 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the effect of ANG II on bradykinin levels?

A

Increases breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When in gestation does chorionic villus sampling occur? What is the risk associated with this?

A
  • After 10 weeks

- Limb defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The uterine artery is a branch of what artery?

A

Anterior internal iliac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The middle rectal artery contributes blood to what part of the female pelvic anatomy?

A

uterus and rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The vaginal artery is a branch of what artery?

A

Internal iliac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is adenomyosis, and what are the classic exam findings?

A

Endometriosis within the uterine myometrium, causing an enlarged, boggy uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the DOC for enterococcus?

A

Ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the treatment for newly acquired HBV?

A

Lamivudine and IFN-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What IFN is used in the treatment of Hep B?

A

IFN-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the MOA and use of Lamivudine?

A
  • Cytidine analog that inhibits reverse transcription and blocks Hep replication
  • Hep B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the treatment for HCV?

A

-Ribavirin and pegylated IFN-alpha2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the MOA and use of ribavirin?

A
  • Guanosine analog

- RSV and Hep C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the classic side effect of isoniazid administration, beside the peripheral neuropathy from B6 deficiency?

A

Hepatotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the HLA haplotype that is associated with DM I?

A

HLA-DR3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the four diseases associated with HLA-DR2?

A
  • SLE
  • Goodpasture
  • MS
  • Hay fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the teratogenic effects of phenytoin?

A
  • Skull malformations
  • Underdeveloped nails and facial features
  • MR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the components of the following mnemonic for Cp450 inducers: Chronic alcoholics Steal Phen-Phen, and Never Refuses Greasy Carbs”?

A
  • Alcohol
  • St. John’s wort
  • Phenytoin
  • Phenobarbital
  • Nevirapine
  • Rifampin
  • Carbamazepine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the components of the following mnemonic for Cp450 inhibitors: A Cute Gentleman Cipped Iced Grapefruit juice Quickly And Kept Munching on Soft Cinnamon Rolls

A
  • Acute alcohol abuse
  • Gemfibrozil
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Isoniazid
  • Grapefruit juice
  • Quinidine
  • Amiodarone
  • Ketoconazole
  • Macrolides
  • Sulfonamides
  • Cimetidine
  • Ritonavir
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the substrates for p450 enzymes (always think when outdoors)?

A
  • Anti-epileptics
  • Theophylline
  • Warfarin
  • OCPs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lesions to the left posterior corpus callosum leads to what neurological deficit?

A

Reading impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A lesion to the right angular gyrus would produce what symptoms?

A

Hemineglect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area located?

A

Posterior part of the left superior temporal gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which antiepileptic medication can cause a folate deficiency?

A

Phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

At what rib level on the right side of the rib cage is the horizontal fissure?

A

4th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where are GLUT-1 transporters found?

A
  • Cortical neurons

- RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where are GLUT-2 transporters expressed?

A

Pancreatic Beta cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the cause of alkaptonuria? Which amino acid is broken down by this pathway?

A
  • Defect in homogentisate 1,2 dioxygenase

- Tyrosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the molecular cause of CF?

A

defective processing from the ER to the golgi, because the protein is retained in the ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the role of GP120 and GP41 on AIDS virus?

A
  • CP120 = binds to CXCR4

- CP40 = causes fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the DOC for enterobius vermicularis?

A

Albendazole, mebendazole or pyrantel pamoate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the DOC for: Trypanosoma cruzi?

A

Benznidazole

Nifurtimox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the DOC for: Onchocerca volvulus

A

Ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the DOC for: dracunculus medinensis?

A

Niridazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What four parts of the developing embryo eventually comprise the diaphragm?

A
  • Septum transversum
  • Pleuroperitoneal folds
  • Body wall
  • Dorsal mesentery of the esophagus

(“Several Parts Build Diaphragm”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the function of the occipital pole in the brain?

A

Area where the nerve fibers from the macula go

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the drug that is used to reverse 5FU?

A

Thymidine (since 5FU inhibits thymidylate synthase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the treatment for strep pharyngitis in a patient with a PCN allergy?

A

Macrolide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is PAD?

A

Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the formula for calculating tidal volume based on CO pressures?

A

Vd = Vt *([PaCO2 -PECO2] / PaCO2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What happens to potassium levels with a VIPoma? HCl?

A

Hypokalemia

Achlorhydria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the other name for Bordet-Gengou agar?

A

Potato agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the MOA and use of flucytosine?

A

Pyrimidine antimetabolite, similar to 5FU, used to treat fungal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the MOA of terbinafine?

A

Inhibits squalene epoxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Vincristine is specific for what phase of the cell cycle?

A

M phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Bleomycin is specific for what phase of the cell cycle?

A

G2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Cisplatin is specific for which phase of the cell cycle?

A

Cycle non-specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Etoposide is specific for what phase of the cell cycle?

A

G2 and late S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Methotrexate is specific for what phase of the cell cycle?

A

S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the heme enzyme that Pb inhibits? What, then, builds up in the serum?

A

ALA dehydratase

Delta Aminolevulinic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What type of collagen is defective in ehlers danlos syndrome?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which type of beta blockers mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia?

A

Non-selective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the histological characteristics of mucor?

A

Broad, irregular nonseptate hyphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the histological characteristics of small lymphocytic lymphoma?

A

Defacement of lymph node architecture, with small, cells with irregular nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which Vasopressin receptor mediates the increase in aquaporins in the collecting duct: V1 or V2?

A

V2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What chemo drug is used for a Wilms tumor?

A

Vincristine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which antifungal drug can, when taken systemically, cause hyperpigmentation? Why?

A

Ketoconazole

-Inhibits 17alpha hydroxylase and cholesterol desmolase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Methotrexate acts during which phase of the cell cycle?

A

S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Bleomycin acts at which stage of the cell cycle?

A

G2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Cyclophosphamide acts during which phase of the cell cycle?

A

Nonspecific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Doxorubicin acts during which phase of the cell cycle?

A

Nonspecific

61
Q

What is the function of the mesolimbic pathway? What disease is thought to originate from dysfunctions in this area?

A
  • Involved in reward system

- Responsible for schizophrenia

62
Q

What is the function of the nigrostriatal pathway? What disease is thought to originate from dysfunctions in this area?

A
  • EP motor system

- PD

63
Q

What is the function of the tuberoinfundibular pathway? What disease is thought to originate from dysfunctions in this area?

A
  • Prolactin regulation

- Galactorrhea

64
Q

What is the function of the mesocortical pathway? What disease is thought to originate from dysfunctions in this area?

A
  • Motivation, emotion

- Negative s/sx of schizophrenia

65
Q

Which crystals are positively birefringent: sodium urate, or calcium pyrophosphate?

A

Calcium pyrophosphate

66
Q

What is the MOA of TCAs?

A

Block reuptake of NE and 5HT

67
Q

What is the MOA, ad use of mirtazapine?

A
  • alpha2 antagonist that increases the release of NE and 5HT

- Antidepressant

68
Q

What is the MOA of bupropion?

A

NE and dopamine reuptake inhibition

69
Q

Match: V1, V2 | Gs, Gq

A 
V1 = Gq
V2 = Gs
70
Q

What is the DOC for community acquired pneumonia?

A

Macrolide (e.g azithromycin)

71
Q

What is the DOC for klebsiella pneumoniae?

A

Gentamicin

72
Q

Piperacillin-Tazobactam is used for pneumonia caused by what organism?

A

Pseudomonas

73
Q

What is the function of the cells of Kulchitsky?

A

Enteroendocrine cells that contain granules of 5HT and other things which are secreted

74
Q

What is the MOA of shiga toxin?

A

Causes glycosidase cleavage of rRNA to inactivate the 60s ribosome of mammalian cells

75
Q

What is the MOA of E.coli stable toxin?

A

Stimulates guanylate cyclase to stimulate Cl secretion, and inhibit NaCl absorption

76
Q

What happens to the tonicity of saliva as the rate of salivation increases?

A

Goes from hypotonic relative to the serum, to almost isotonic

77
Q

What happens to bicarb concentration at higher salivation rates?

78
Q

What is the major circular DNA virus?

A

Hepadnaviridae (Hep B)

79
Q

WHat are the three major drugs that undergo zero order kinetic elimination?

A
  • EtOH
  • Phenytoin
  • High dose ASA
80
Q

What is endemic typhus, and what causes it?

A

-Rickettsia prowazekii infection causing a rash, causing a rash that starts on the trunk, and moves outward

81
Q

How does the rash spread in endemic typhus as compared to RMSF?

A

Endemic typhus starts on the abdomen and goes outward, opposite that of RMSF

82
Q

What does the Weil-Felix reaction test for?

A

Rickettsial antibodies

83
Q

What embryological structure gives rise to the smooth parts of the ventricles?

A

Bulbus cordis

84
Q

What is the function of Meissner’s corpuscles?

A

Light tough

Position sense

85
Q

What is the function of the organ of corti?

A

Senses movement of the cilia in the middle ear

86
Q

What is the function of Krause’s end bulbs?

A

Detecting pressure in the oropharynx

87
Q

What is the function of Merkel cells?

A

pressure deep static touch (e.g. sharp edges)

88
Q

What is the function of Pacinian corpuscles?

A

Pressure, coarse touch, vibration, and tension

“Pacinian packs a punch”

89
Q

What is the function of C fibers? What about Adelta? Which is fast, and which slow?

A

Both for pain and temp
C = slow
A-delta = fast

90
Q

What is the DOC for a UTI in a pregnant woman?

A

Cephalosporin

91
Q

What is the inhaled anesthetic that is most likely to cause seizures?

92
Q

What is the common adverse effect of halothane?

A

Hepatotoxic

93
Q

What is the MOA and use of Zileuton?

A

Blocks leukotriene production to prevent asthma attacks

94
Q

What is the MOA of zafirlukast?

A

Leukotriene receptor blocker

95
Q

During which phase of meiosis does Down’s syndrome arise?

A

Meiosis I anaphase

96
Q

What is the MOA and use of theophylline?

A
  • Phosphodiesterase inhibitor

- Asthma

97
Q

What is the treatment for theophylline overdose?

A

beta blockers to decrease cAMP levels

98
Q

What is the long-ish term sequale of CMV retinitis?

A

Retinal detachment

99
Q

Which has nystagmus: PCP use or amphetamine use?

100
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of Haemophilus ducreyi?

A

Gram negative coccobacillus

101
Q

What is Werdnig-Hoffmann disease, and what is the inheritance pattern?

A
  • AR destruction of the anterior horns of the spinal cord, leading to paralysis
  • Presents early (neonate)
102
Q

Put in order of infectivity: Hep C, HIV, Hep B

A

Hep B, Hep C, HIV

103
Q

Why is bone marrow contraindicated for the treatment of Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia?

A

T cells are still functioning and effective

104
Q

What are the side effects of ganciclovir?

A

Nephrotoxicity and myelosuppression

105
Q

What is the DOC for tourette’s?

A

Haldol or other antipsychotics

106
Q

What is the MOA and use of exemestane?

A
  • Aromatase inhibitor

- Estrogen positive breast CA

107
Q

Which is more common: seminoma or a leydig cell tumor?

108
Q

What is the drug used to treat CN poisoning? MOA?

A
  • Na thiosulfate

- Converts CN into thiocyanate

109
Q

What is the MOA of CN poisoning?

A

CN inhibits Cytochrome oxidase

110
Q

What is the MOA of amantadine in the treatment of the flu?

A

Prevents viral uncoating by binding to the M2 protein on the influenza A virus

111
Q

What is the difference in clinical presentation of ITP and TTP?

A

ITP presents solely with thrombocytopenia, whereas TTP have kidney failure, CNS issues etc

112
Q

What is the role of demeclozine in DI?

A

Causes it, by inhibiting ADH receptor activity at V2

113
Q

What is the DOC for leprosy?

114
Q

What are the components of the ABVD regimens for hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Adriamycin (doxorubicin)
Bleomycin
Dacarbazine
Vinblastine

115
Q

What are the two TB drugs that require activation before they are effective?

116
Q

What is the MOA of clozapine?

A

Dopamine AND 5HT receptor blocker

117
Q

What are the results of the quad screen for T21?

A
  • Decreased AFP
  • Increased beta-HCG
  • DEcreased estriol
  • Increased inhibin A
118
Q

What are the results of the quad screen for T18?

A
  • Decreased AFP
  • Decreased beta-HCG
  • Decreased estriol
  • Normal inhibin A
119
Q

What are the results of the quad screen for T13?

A
  • Normal AFP
  • Decreased beta-HCG
  • Normal Estriol
  • Normal inhibin A
120
Q

What is the DOC for achalasia?

121
Q

What chromosome is ADPKD on?

122
Q

What chromosome is ARPKD on?

123
Q

What is the MOA and use of aldesleukin?

A

-IL-2 analog that is used to treat RCC and metastatic melanoma, by stimulating T cells

124
Q

What is the genetic problem in Duchenne and Becker’s muscular dystrophy respectively?

A
  • BMD = In frame deletion

- DMD = Out of frame deletion

125
Q

What is the function of phospholamban in cardiac muscles?

A

Dephosphorylation of phospholamban inhibits SERCA transporter for Ca back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

126
Q

What is the protein that is defective with Dubin-Johnson syndrome? Inheritance pattern?

A

AR mutation in canalicular multispecific organic anion transporter

127
Q

What are the two calcineurin inhibitors, and what is their common toxic effect?

A
  • Tacrolimus
  • Cyclosporine

-Nephrotoxic

128
Q

What is the MOA of tacrolimus?

A

BInds FK506 to inhibit IL-2 production

129
Q

What is the MOA of cyclosporine?

A

Binds cyclophilin to inhibit IL-2 production

130
Q

What is the MOA of sirolimus?

A

mTOR inhibitor to inhibit IL-2 production

131
Q

What are the three cephalosporins that can be used to treat pseudomonas infections?

A
  • Cefoperazone
  • Ceftazidime
  • Cefepime
132
Q

What is the function of topoisomerase?

A

To relieve supercoiling

133
Q

What is the name of the enzyme that forms thiocyanate from CN? What is the function of thiosulfate on this?

A
  • Rhodanese

- Donates a sulfur group

134
Q

What is the treatment for strep throat if there is a PCN allergy?

A

Clindamycin

135
Q

The CCA sequence on tRNA molecules is on the 3’ or 5’ end?

136
Q

What is the vaginal infection that persists at low, physiologic pH?

137
Q

What is responsible for the infertility of Klinefelter’s syndrome? What are the effects of this on hormone levels?

A

Lack of leydig cells means there’s increased LH

138
Q

What is the MOA Of daptomycin?

A

Depolarizes the bacterial cell membrane

139
Q

Tumor suppressor or oncogene: c-myc

140
Q

Tumor suppressor or oncogene: APC

141
Q

Tumor suppressor or oncogene: p53

142
Q

Tumor suppressor or oncogene: PTEN

143
Q

Tumor suppressor or oncogene: VHL

144
Q

Tumor suppressor or oncogene: tyrosine kinase receptors

145
Q

Tumor suppressor or oncogene: ERK

146
Q

Tumor suppressor or oncogene: WNT

147
Q

What subset of class I antiarrhythmics increased both AP duration, and ERP? How?

A
  • IA
  • Block Na channels, (increased AP duration)
  • BLock K channels (increase ERP)
148
Q

What is the innervation of the brachioradialis?

A

Radial nerve

149
Q

What is gentamicin generally used for? What is the classic side effect?

A
  • Gram negative rod infections

- Tinnitus

All the Small Things (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions