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All the Small Things > Micro VIII > Flashcards

Micro VIII Flashcards

1
Q

What is the morphology of campylobacter jejuni?

A

Gram negative rod that is comma shaped

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2
Q

What does campy cause?

A

Bloody diarrhea

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3
Q

Does camp grow on macconkey?

A

Naw dawg

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4
Q

What are the shapes of campy and helicobacter?

A

Seagull shape

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5
Q

What is the agar that is used to culture campy and helicobacter pylori?

A

Skirrow’s medium

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6
Q

What is the DOC of Campy?

A

Erythromycin

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7
Q

Is Campylobacter oxidase-positive or negative?

A

Positive

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8
Q

Diagnosis of campy is quite often difficult. Hence,

one suspects infection with campy after:

A

R/o other causes

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9
Q

What is the morphology and gram stain of H. Pylori? Shape? Motility? Urease?

A

Gram negative rod
Curve shaped
Motile
Urease positive

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10
Q

Where do ulcers occur with H. Pylori?

A

Antrum of the stomach

Duodenum

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11
Q

What is the effect of ammonia in the GI mucosa?

A

irritates

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12
Q

What is the long term risk of H. pylori infx?

A

Gastric CA

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13
Q

What is the triple therapy for h. pylori?

A

Bismuth salts
Amox / erythromycin
Metronidazole

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14
Q

What is the stain that can be used for H . Pylori?

A

Warthin-Starry silver stain

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15
Q

Helicobacter is the leading cause of duodenal ulcers and chronic gastritis. What is the second cause of ulcers?

A

NSAIDs

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16
Q

EBV predisposes to what cancers?

A

burkitt’s and nasopharyngeal

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17
Q

HSV 8 causes what ca?

A

Kaposi

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18
Q

What is schistosomiasis CA?

A

Bladder

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19
Q

What is the morphology, lactose fermenting status, and motility of Klebsiella pneumoniae?

A

Gram negative rod
Lactose fermenting
Non-motile

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20
Q

What is the cause of UTIs caused by klebsiella?

A

Catheterization

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21
Q

What is the treatment for Klebsiella?

A

All generations of cephalosporins

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22
Q

Name the lactose-positive enterobacteriaceae.

A

E.coli

Klebsiella

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23
Q

Name the lactose-negative enterobacteriaceae.

A

Pseudomonas

S

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24
Q

Name the top four causes of sepsis as a result of

urinary tract infection.

A

The top four are: Klebsiella, Proteus, Pseudomonas, and E coli.

killer pee’s expansion

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25
Q

What is the sputum that is had with klebsiella?

A

Currant jelly

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26
Q

Last resort for pseudomonas bacteria=?

A

polymyxin E (Colistin)

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27
Q

What is the gram stain, lactose fermenting status, urease, flagella, and motility of proteus?

A

Gram-negative rods, non lactose-fermenting; urease-positive, flagellated and highly motile
(swarming effect on agar)

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28
Q

Tumbling motility = ?

A

Listeria

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29
Q

Swarming motility = ?

A

Proteus

30
Q

Proteus increases the risk for what UG pathology?

A

Struvite Kidney stones

31
Q

Proteus cross reacts with what with Weil-Felix serology?

A

Rickettsia

32
Q

What are 3 components of struvite calculi?

A

MAP stands for: Magnesium, Aluminum and Phosphate!

33
Q

Are struvite stones radio-opaque or translucent?

A

Struvite stones, translucent (with light opacity);

and urate crystals are transparent!

34
Q

Most renal stones (75%) contain what?

A

COP stands for: Calcium, Ammonium and Phosphate

35
Q

Are COP calculi radio-opaque or translucent?

A

COP stones are opaque;

36
Q

What is the treatment for proteus?

A

Cephalosporin

37
Q

What are the four causes stones?

A
  1. COP
  2. Struvite
  3. Uric acid stones
  4. cystinuria
38
Q

What are the amino acids that cannot be resorbed with cystinuria?

A

Cysteine

39
Q

What are the three components of struvite stones?

A

Mg
Ammonium
Phosphate

40
Q

What are the characteristics of pseudomonas? Lactose? Oxidase?

A

Gram negative rod
Non lactose fermenters
Oxidase positive

41
Q

What are the virulence factors of pseudomonas? (2)

A
  • Exotoxin that inactivates EF-2

- antiphagocytic capsule

42
Q

What is the treatment for pseudomonas?

A

Ticarcillin or piperacillin together, with aminoglycosides

43
Q

What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?

A

Inhibits bacterial 30S ribosomal subunit

44
Q

What is the important side effect of gentamicin?

A

Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

45
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Ciprofloxacin?

A

Inhibition DNA gyrase

46
Q

What is the important side effect of Ciprofloxacin?

A

Cartilage and tendon damage

47
Q

What other bug acts like pseudomonas and produces a

toxin that inhibits EF-2

A

diphtheria

48
Q

Exotoxin of pseudomonas by ADP-ribosylation inhibits
EF2.There is another compound produced by
pseudomonas that inhibits p21ras via ADP-ribosylation;
what is it?

A

The compound that inhibits p21ras is Exo-enzyme S. This inhibition may
distort structural proteins such as microtubules and particularly affects
epithelial cells. From another standpoint, Exotoxin S may have some
anticancer effects (please see next page’s diagram on oncogenes and
anti-oncogenes).

49
Q

What is the second most common cause of nosocomial
pneumonia and the most common cause of intensive
care unit pneumonia?

A

Pseudomonas

50
Q

What is the most common cause of osteomyelitis?

A

The most common cause of osteomyelitis is Streptococcus pyogenes

51
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of bacteroides Fragilis? Aerobic?

A

Gram negative rod

Anaerobic growth

52
Q

What are the early s/sx of septic shock?

A

Vasodilation

53
Q

What is warm shock?

A

HIgh CO and low peripheral vascular resistance occurs first, d/t release of histamine, bradykinins, 5HT, and endorphins

54
Q

What is cold shock?

A

Late stage, low CO stage***

55
Q

What happens after the cold stage of shock?

A

Catecholamines release cause selective vasoconstriction of the renal, pulmonary and splanchnic circulations. This brings about multisystem failure.

56
Q

What are the 2 treatments for bacteroides fragilis?

A

Metronidazole

Clindamycin

57
Q

What are the top two causes of sepsis due to

abdominal infection?

A

Escherichia coli and bacteroides fragilis

58
Q

What is the mechanism of action of metronidazole?

A

Selectively absorbed by obligate anaerobic bacteria and
sensitive protozoa metronidazole is activated by getting reduced to an
active anion radical that damages DNA and proteins

59
Q

What bugs are acted upon by metronidazole? (6)

A

Protozoa (Giardia, amoeba, Trichomonas), Clostridium difficile,
Bacteroides and Helicobacter.

60
Q

What are the 3 bacteria for metronidazole treatment?

A

C diff
Bacteroides
H. pylori

61
Q

What are the gram stain and morphology of TB?

A
  • Rod

- Acid fast using Ziehl-Neelsen stain

62
Q

Is TB an anaerobic?

A

Obligate aerobe

63
Q

What is the virulence factor that causes TB to be resistant?

A

Cord factor

64
Q

How does TB survive within macrophages?

A

The waxy wall prevents the fusion of

the phagosome with a lysosome after phagocytosis

65
Q

How infectious is TB?

A

10 bacteria cause dz

66
Q

What is the mechanism of action of isoniazid?

A

INH inhibits mycolic acid formation

67
Q

What is Pott’s disease?

A

Pott’s disease (Spinal tuberculosis) is caused by hematogenous spread
from a primary focus or reactivated site and destroys the vertebral bodies
and disks and may cause paraplegia

68
Q

What is the mechanism of action of rifampin?

A

Rifampin inhibits RNA polymerase

69
Q

What is caseous necrosis?

A

Mycolic acid release from dead TB cells causes the cheesy

characteristics of the granuloma

70
Q

What are the cell types in granulomatous inflammation?

A

Lymphocytes, Giant epithelial cells and multinucleated giant cells

All the Small Things (29 decks)

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