Random Review Stuff 2 Flashcards
(151 cards)
1
Q
What is the MOA, use, and classic side effects (2) of polymyxin B?
A
- Binds to gram negative cell walls, and destroy the membrane by acting like a detergent
- Gram negative infections
- Numbness of extremities, nephrotoxic
2
Q
What male structures does the Wolffian duct develop into? (BEEDS)
A
- Bladder
- Epididymis
- Ejaculatory duct
- Ductus deferens
- Seminal vesicles
3
Q
Which diuretics have a side effect of hyperuricemia?
A
Thiazides
4
Q
Which diuretics has a side effect of ototoxicity?
A
Furosemide
5
Q
Does campylobacter have a flagella?
A
One
6
Q
The odds ratio is used for which type of studies?
A
Retrospective
7
Q
At what prevalence rate (high/low) is the odds ratio = relative risk?
A
High prevalence
8
Q
What are the two major antibodies that target IL-2?
A
Basiliximab
Daclizumab
9
Q
What are the four CD markers that are found in CLL?
A
CD5
CD19
CD20
CD23
10
Q
Smudge cell on a PBS = what cancer?
A
CLL
11
Q
Damage to the subthalamic nucleus results in what?
A
Hemiballismus
12
Q
A lesion where will produce INO?
A
MLF
13
Q
What is the gene mutation that is associated with Hirschsprung’s disease?
A
RET
14
Q
What is the hormone that causes the male genitalia to form in utero?
A
DHT
15
Q
What are the four major muscles that are innervated by the median nerve?
A
- Abductor pollicis brevis
- Extensor pollicis brevis
- Lumbrical 1 + 2
- Opponens pollicis
16
Q
What is Refsum disease? What organelle is affected? S/sx?
A
- Disorder of long chain FA metabolism and in the formation of H2O2 in peroxisomes
- Ataxia, nerve conduction issues, cataracts
17
Q
What is the skin side effect of bleomycin?
A
Hyperpigmentation
18
Q
What is the DOC for strep viridans endocarditis?
A
PCN
19
Q
UA that is positive for blood by dipstick, but negative for RBCs via UA is strongly suggestive of what?
A
Rhabdomyolysis
20
Q
What is the cofactor that is needed for Dopamine decarboxylase?
A
Vit C
21
Q
What is the cofactor needed for pyruvate decarboxylase?
A
Biotin
22
Q
AIr crescent sign on a CXR indicates what infectious agent?
A
Aspergillus
23
Q
What is odd about the optimal growth temperature for campylobacter?
A
High-42 degrees C
24
Q
What is the bacteria that is gamma hemolytic, grows well in bile and in NaCl solutions?
A
Enterococcus
25
What type of diarrhea does clostridium perfringens cause (watery, or bloody)?
Watery
26
What is the MOA of adenosine in terminating SVTs?
Hyperpolarizing AV node tissue by increasing the conductance of K, and reducing Ca current
27
What is the DOC for treating Trypanosoma cruzi?
Nifurtimox
28
What is the DOC for treating Babesia?
Quinine
29
What is the vector for babesia?
Ixodes tick
30
What is the DOC for treating Leishmania donovani?
Sodium stibogluconate
31
What is the DOC for treating Toxoplasma?
Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine
32
What is the DOC for treating entamoeba histolytica?
- Metronidazole
| - Iodoquinol if asymptomatic
33
What are the s/sx of pineal masses?
- Increased ICP
| - Gaze issues
34
What is parinaud syndrome, and what causes it?
Pressure on the pretectal region of the midbrain causing vertical gaze and pupil abnormalities
35
What is the MOA of colchicine? Use?
Inhibits tubule production for gout
36
What are the components of the five P's mnemonic of drugs that cause acute interstitial nephritis?
- Pee (diuretics)
- Pain-free (NSAIDs)
- PCN and cephalosporins
- PPIs
- rifamPin
37
What is the MOA and use of Gabapentin?
- GABA analog that blocks Ca channels
| - Simplex / complex szs
38
What is the MOA and use of phenytoin?
- Na channel blocker
| - Seizure prophylaxis
39
What are the only two drugs that are indicated for absence seizures?
- Ethosuximide
| - Valproic acid
40
What is the GABA channel that barbiturates and benzos work on?
GABA A
41
What are the four short acting benzos (ATOM)?
Alprazolam
Triazolam
Oxazepam
Midazolam
42
What does the compartment does the femoral nerve innervate in the thigh?
Anterior compartment
43
What compartment does the sciatic nerve innervate in the thigh?
Hamstrings
44
What cells give rise to a Wilms tumor?
Neoplastic embryonic renal cells of the metanephros
45
What are the two main tumor markers that are elevated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma?
CA 19-9
| CEA
46
At what tanger stage are young women growing in height at the fastest rate?
stage III
47
What is the reducing equivalent in steroid production?
NADPH
48
Is cholera oxidase negative or positive?
Positive
49
What is the MOA of ETEC toxin?
Stimulates guanylate cyclase to activate cGMP, resulting in Cl secretion
50
What is the MOA of pertussis toxin?
Irreversibly disabling Gi, causing increased in cAMP
51
What is the MOA of corynebacterium toxin?
ADP ribosylation
52
What are the two major comma shaped bacteria?
- Campylobacter
| - Vibrio cholerae
53
What is the defect in Fanconi anemia? Signs? Treatment?
- Non-homologous end joining
- Tons of all cell lines
- BMT
54
What is the MOA of clindamycin?
Blocks 50s ribosomal subunit
55
What occurs in the Chloride shift of the blood?
Cl in the RBCs is exchanged for HCO3- in the blood, to prevent acid/base abnormalities (H+ is bound to RBC amino acids)
56
What happens to the MCHC with spherocytosis?
Increases
57
What is the MOA of sodium nitroprusside?
Increases the release of cGMP, via direct release of NO
58
What is the MOA and use of fenoldopam?
- Dopamine D1 receptor agonist
| - HTN crises
59
Which HIV medication can cause megaloblastic anemia?
Zidovudine
60
Where in the cell are proline and lysine hydroxylated (scurvy question)?
ER
61
Besides SSRIs, what are the antidepressants of choice in a patient with heart block?
MAOIs
62
What is the MOA and use of doxepin?
TCA
| Depression
63
What are the four major MAOIs (MAO Takes Price In Shanghai")
Tranylcypromine
Phenelzine
Isocarboxazid
Selegiline
64
What is the MOA of erythromycin inducing gut motility?
Stimulates motilin receptors in the gut
65
What are the electrolyte disturbances that can occur with VIPomas?
Hypokalemia
| Hypochloridia
66
Does hypokalemia or hyperkalemia cause digoxin toxicity? Why?
Hypokalemia, because K and digoxin bind to the same site
67
Patients with Fanconi anemia have an increased susceptibility to what antineoplastic agent?
Cyclophosphamide
68
What are the physical exam findings of patients with Fanconi's anemia?
- Short stature
| - thumb / radial defects
69
What is the general MOA of glucocorticoids? (2)
- NFkappaB inhibition
| - Inhibition of phospholipase A2
70
What is the MOA of edrophonium?
Short acting, reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
71
What are the classic side effects of bisphosphonates?
- Esophagitis
| - Osteonecrosis of the jaw
72
MCTD is a combination of which autoimmune rheumatic diseases?
- SLE
- Systemic sclerosis
- Polymyositis
73
What are the two radiolucent kidney stones?
- Uric acid
| - Cystine stones
74
What is the effect of PGI2 on the coagulation cascade?
Inhibits platelet aggregation
75
What is the anti-pseudomonal abx of choice if there is an allergy to PCN?
Aztreonam
76
What diuretics, generally, are sulfa derivatives?
All except the K sparing ones
77
What is the abx of choice for UTIs? Secondary?
- TMP-SMX
| - Nitrofurantoin
78
What are the anti-HTN drugs that are used to treat pregnant women?
-Hydralazine
-alpha-Methyldopa
-Labetalol
-Nifedipine
("hypertensive moms love nifedipine")
79
What is the difference in the toxins produced by vibrio cholerae and bordetella pertussis?
Bordetella inhibits Gi proteins to increase cAMP
-Cholera increases Gs to increase cAMP
80
What are the two bacteria that inhibits EF-2?
Diphtheria
| Pseudomonas
81
What are the top two causes of the common cold, in order?
1. Rhinovirus
| 2. Coronavirus
82
What is the most common cause of viral URIs and viral conjunctivitis in children?
Adenovirus
83
What thyroid dysfunction does Li cause?
hypothyroidism
84
What is the MOA of carbamazepine? Classic side effect?
- Na channel blocker
| - Agranulocytosis
85
What is the MOA of topiramate?
- Blocks Na channels
| - Potentiates GABA
86
What is the first line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?
Carbamazepine
87
What is the first line treatment for seizures in neonates?
Phenobarbital
88
What is the MOA and use of Tiagabine?
Blocks GABA reuptake
| -Simple and complex seizures
89
What is the inheritance pattern of I cell disease?
XLR
90
Is the Varicella vaccine live attenuated or killed?
Live attenuated
91
What is the genetic defect and inheritance pattern for FAP?
- APC mutation
| - AD
92
What is the MOA and use of Ranibizumab?
- Anti-VEGF ab
| - Glaucoma and colon CA
93
What is the MOA and use of pegaptanib?
- Anti-VEGF ab
| - Glaucoma and colon CA
94
What cholesterol drug increases HDL levels?
Niacin
95
What is the MOA and use of Olestra?
- Bulky molecule resistant to digestion by lipases
| - Weight loss (controversial)
96
What is the inheritance pattern of 5alpha reductase deficiency?
AR
97
What is the gene on the Y chromosome that allows for male differentiation? What does this cause?
- SRY gene
| - Testes determining factor secretion
98
What is the role of testes determining factor?
Stimulates the differentiation of sertoli and leydig cells
99
What is the role of sertoli cells in male development?
Secrete Mullerian inhibitor factor to degenerate the paramesonephric ducts
100
What is the role of Leydig cells in male development?
Secrete testosterone to convert to DHT, which stimulates the development of the male external genitalia
101
What is the role of DHT in the development of males?
Converts the genital tubercle and urogenital sinus to the male external genitalia
102
Why is doxycycline the DOC for rickettsial diseases?
Accumulates intracellularly
103
What are the adverse effects of tetracyclines?
- Discoloration of teeth
- Inhibition of bone growth in children
- Photosensitivitiy
104
Why should tetracycline not be given to prego women?
Discoloration of teeth and bone development inhibition
105
What drugs should never be taken with tetracyclines, due to decreased uptake?
Milk, antacids or iron containing preps, as tetracyclines are chelators
106
What drug used to treat IBD is known to cause orange colored sweat?
Sulfasalazine
107
Narcolepsy is associated with a decrease in which neurotransmitter? Where is this produced?
Orexin--lateral hypothalamus
108
What is the function of the neurotransmitter Orexin?
Promote wakefulness and prevent inappropriate entry into REM
109
What are the general drugs classes used to treat narcolepsy?
- SSRIs
| - Stimulants
110
Which type of RNA is most resistant to RNAses? Why?
rRNA, since it complexes with proteins to assume its final structure
111
What is the MOA of edema toxin from Bacillus anthracis?
Increases cAMP to cause edema
112
What area of the brain is implicated in schizophrenia? What is the dysfunction here?
- Mesolimbic pathway
| - Increased dopamine
113
What area of the brain is involved in the reward pathway?
Mesolimbic pathway
114
What area of the brain connects the midbrain to the limbic system?
Mesolimbic pathway
115
What is the major site of NE production in the brain?
Locus ceruleus--a nucleus in the pons
116
What is the dopaminergic pathway that is affected in PD?
Nigrostriatal pathway
117
Where in the brain is serotonin produced?
Raphe nuclei (in the reticular formation)
118
What area of the brain is responsible for EOM that occur during REM?
Paramedian pontine reticular formation
119
What is the MOA and use of Finasteride?
Inhibits the production of DHT by 5alpha-reductase
120
What is the MOA and use of Leuprolide?
-GnRH analog that binds to LH receptor in the pituitary, leading to desensitization
121
What happens to the eyes in DKA? Why?
- Mydriasis
| - Increases sympathetic tone
122
What are the four diseases in which target cells are seen?
- Hb C
- Asplenia
- Liver disease
- Thalassemia
123
What are the two major analogs to GnRH?
- Leuprolide
| - Goserelin
124
What is the main antiandrogen that is used to block androgen receptors?
Flutamide
125
Draw the indirect pathway of the BG.
pg 453
126
Draw the direct pathway of the BG.
pg 453
127
The thalamus sends BG projects to the ipsilateral or contralateral side?
Contralateral
128
What is the pathophysiology behind the effects of EtOH on the developing fetus?
Inhibition of cell migration
129
The odds ratio is used in what type of studies?
Case-control
130
What is the equation for the odds ratio?
ad / bc
131
Is AV nodal reentry a congenital disorder
no
132
What are the immunoglobin changes that are seen with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
Low IgM
Normal IgG
Elevated IgA
133
What immunoglobin level is low with Ataxia-Telangiectasia?
IgA
134
Which cardioselective beta blocker has the shortest half-life?
Esmolol
135
Where in the GI tract is Fe absorbed?
Duodenum
136
Where in the GI tract are fat soluble vitamins absorbed?
Ileum
137
What chromosome is the CFTR gene located on? How is this inherited? What does this lead to, in terms of genetic/protein effects?
- chromosome 7
- Abnormal folding of CFTR d/t a deletion
- AR
138
What is the defect if Cri du chat syndrome?
Deletion of the small arm of chromosome 5
139
What is the effect of the CCG repeat in fragile X syndrome?
Methylation defects
140
What is the number 1 cause of death in the 15-24 yo age range?
Traumatic injury
141
What is the treatment for HIT?
D/c heparin, start a direct thrombin inhibitor
142
Are ion channels in the myocardium voltage gated, or ion gated?
Voltage gated
143
In what GI disease is a vagotomy indicated?
Refractory PUD
144
What is the MOA, use, and classic side effect of metoclopramide?
- D2 receptor antagonist
- Promotility agent
- Parkinsonian effects
145
What is the first line treatment for gastroparesis 2/2 uncontrolled DM II?
Metoclopramide and other promotility agents
146
What bacteria is the most common cause of sepsis in sickle cells patients?
Strep pneumoniae
147
What is the most common composition of renal stones?
Ca oxalate
148
What is the prophylactic DOC for pneumocystis pneumonia if there is a sulfa allergy?
Pentamidine
149
What is the prophylaxis for MAC in AIDS patients? At what CD4 count does this begin?
- Azithromycin
| - Less than 50
150
When does prophylaxis for pneumocystis begin (what CD4 count)?
Less than 200 CD4
151
When does prophylaxis for toxoplasmosis begin (what CD4 count)?
Less than 100 CD4
