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All the Small Things > Random Review Stuff 2 > Flashcards

Random Review Stuff 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the MOA, use, and classic side effects (2) of polymyxin B?

A
  • Binds to gram negative cell walls, and destroy the membrane by acting like a detergent
  • Gram negative infections
  • Numbness of extremities, nephrotoxic
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2
Q

What male structures does the Wolffian duct develop into? (BEEDS)

A
  • Bladder
  • Epididymis
  • Ejaculatory duct
  • Ductus deferens
  • Seminal vesicles
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3
Q

Which diuretics have a side effect of hyperuricemia?

A

Thiazides

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4
Q

Which diuretics has a side effect of ototoxicity?

A

Furosemide

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5
Q

Does campylobacter have a flagella?

A

One

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6
Q

The odds ratio is used for which type of studies?

A

Retrospective

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7
Q

At what prevalence rate (high/low) is the odds ratio = relative risk?

A

High prevalence

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8
Q

What are the two major antibodies that target IL-2?

A

Basiliximab

Daclizumab

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9
Q

What are the four CD markers that are found in CLL?

A

CD5
CD19
CD20
CD23

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10
Q

Smudge cell on a PBS = what cancer?

A

CLL

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11
Q

Damage to the subthalamic nucleus results in what?

A

Hemiballismus

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12
Q

A lesion where will produce INO?

A

MLF

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13
Q

What is the gene mutation that is associated with Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

RET

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14
Q

What is the hormone that causes the male genitalia to form in utero?

A

DHT

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15
Q

What are the four major muscles that are innervated by the median nerve?

A
  • Abductor pollicis brevis
  • Extensor pollicis brevis
  • Lumbrical 1 + 2
  • Opponens pollicis
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16
Q

What is Refsum disease? What organelle is affected? S/sx?

A
  • Disorder of long chain FA metabolism and in the formation of H2O2 in peroxisomes
  • Ataxia, nerve conduction issues, cataracts
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17
Q

What is the skin side effect of bleomycin?

A

Hyperpigmentation

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18
Q

What is the DOC for strep viridans endocarditis?

A

PCN

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19
Q

UA that is positive for blood by dipstick, but negative for RBCs via UA is strongly suggestive of what?

A

Rhabdomyolysis

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20
Q

What is the cofactor that is needed for Dopamine decarboxylase?

A

Vit C

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21
Q

What is the cofactor needed for pyruvate decarboxylase?

A

Biotin

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22
Q

AIr crescent sign on a CXR indicates what infectious agent?

A

Aspergillus

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23
Q

What is odd about the optimal growth temperature for campylobacter?

A

High-42 degrees C

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24
Q

What is the bacteria that is gamma hemolytic, grows well in bile and in NaCl solutions?

A

Enterococcus

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25
Q

What type of diarrhea does clostridium perfringens cause (watery, or bloody)?

A

Watery

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26
Q

What is the MOA of adenosine in terminating SVTs?

A

Hyperpolarizing AV node tissue by increasing the conductance of K, and reducing Ca current

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27
Q

What is the DOC for treating Trypanosoma cruzi?

A

Nifurtimox

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28
Q

What is the DOC for treating Babesia?

A

Quinine

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29
Q

What is the vector for babesia?

A

Ixodes tick

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30
Q

What is the DOC for treating Leishmania donovani?

A

Sodium stibogluconate

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31
Q

What is the DOC for treating Toxoplasma?

A

Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

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32
Q

What is the DOC for treating entamoeba histolytica?

A
  • Metronidazole

- Iodoquinol if asymptomatic

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33
Q

What are the s/sx of pineal masses?

A
  • Increased ICP

- Gaze issues

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34
Q

What is parinaud syndrome, and what causes it?

A

Pressure on the pretectal region of the midbrain causing vertical gaze and pupil abnormalities

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35
Q

What is the MOA of colchicine? Use?

A

Inhibits tubule production for gout

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36
Q

What are the components of the five P’s mnemonic of drugs that cause acute interstitial nephritis?

A
  • Pee (diuretics)
  • Pain-free (NSAIDs)
  • PCN and cephalosporins
  • PPIs
  • rifamPin
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37
Q

What is the MOA and use of Gabapentin?

A
  • GABA analog that blocks Ca channels

- Simplex / complex szs

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38
Q

What is the MOA and use of phenytoin?

A
  • Na channel blocker

- Seizure prophylaxis

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39
Q

What are the only two drugs that are indicated for absence seizures?

A
  • Ethosuximide

- Valproic acid

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40
Q

What is the GABA channel that barbiturates and benzos work on?

A

GABA A

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41
Q

What are the four short acting benzos (ATOM)?

A

Alprazolam
Triazolam
Oxazepam
Midazolam

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42
Q

What does the compartment does the femoral nerve innervate in the thigh?

A

Anterior compartment

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43
Q

What compartment does the sciatic nerve innervate in the thigh?

A

Hamstrings

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44
Q

What cells give rise to a Wilms tumor?

A

Neoplastic embryonic renal cells of the metanephros

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45
Q

What are the two main tumor markers that are elevated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma?

A

CA 19-9

CEA

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46
Q

At what tanger stage are young women growing in height at the fastest rate?

A

stage III

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47
Q

What is the reducing equivalent in steroid production?

A

NADPH

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48
Q

Is cholera oxidase negative or positive?

A

Positive

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49
Q

What is the MOA of ETEC toxin?

A

Stimulates guanylate cyclase to activate cGMP, resulting in Cl secretion

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50
Q

What is the MOA of pertussis toxin?

A

Irreversibly disabling Gi, causing increased in cAMP

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51
Q

What is the MOA of corynebacterium toxin?

A

ADP ribosylation

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52
Q

What are the two major comma shaped bacteria?

A
  • Campylobacter

- Vibrio cholerae

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53
Q

What is the defect in Fanconi anemia? Signs? Treatment?

A
  • Non-homologous end joining
  • Tons of all cell lines
  • BMT
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54
Q

What is the MOA of clindamycin?

A

Blocks 50s ribosomal subunit

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55
Q

What occurs in the Chloride shift of the blood?

A

Cl in the RBCs is exchanged for HCO3- in the blood, to prevent acid/base abnormalities (H+ is bound to RBC amino acids)

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56
Q

What happens to the MCHC with spherocytosis?

A

Increases

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57
Q

What is the MOA of sodium nitroprusside?

A

Increases the release of cGMP, via direct release of NO

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58
Q

What is the MOA and use of fenoldopam?

A
  • Dopamine D1 receptor agonist

- HTN crises

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59
Q

Which HIV medication can cause megaloblastic anemia?

A

Zidovudine

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60
Q

Where in the cell are proline and lysine hydroxylated (scurvy question)?

A

ER

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61
Q

Besides SSRIs, what are the antidepressants of choice in a patient with heart block?

62
Q

What is the MOA and use of doxepin?

A

TCA

Depression

63
Q

What are the four major MAOIs (MAO Takes Price In Shanghai”)

A

Tranylcypromine
Phenelzine
Isocarboxazid
Selegiline

64
Q

What is the MOA of erythromycin inducing gut motility?

A

Stimulates motilin receptors in the gut

65
Q

What are the electrolyte disturbances that can occur with VIPomas?

A

Hypokalemia

Hypochloridia

66
Q

Does hypokalemia or hyperkalemia cause digoxin toxicity? Why?

A

Hypokalemia, because K and digoxin bind to the same site

67
Q

Patients with Fanconi anemia have an increased susceptibility to what antineoplastic agent?

A

Cyclophosphamide

68
Q

What are the physical exam findings of patients with Fanconi’s anemia?

A
  • Short stature

- thumb / radial defects

69
Q

What is the general MOA of glucocorticoids? (2)

A
  • NFkappaB inhibition

- Inhibition of phospholipase A2

70
Q

What is the MOA of edrophonium?

A

Short acting, reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

71
Q

What are the classic side effects of bisphosphonates?

A
  • Esophagitis

- Osteonecrosis of the jaw

72
Q

MCTD is a combination of which autoimmune rheumatic diseases?

A
  • SLE
  • Systemic sclerosis
  • Polymyositis
73
Q

What are the two radiolucent kidney stones?

A
  • Uric acid

- Cystine stones

74
Q

What is the effect of PGI2 on the coagulation cascade?

A

Inhibits platelet aggregation

75
Q

What is the anti-pseudomonal abx of choice if there is an allergy to PCN?

76
Q

What diuretics, generally, are sulfa derivatives?

A

All except the K sparing ones

77
Q

What is the abx of choice for UTIs? Secondary?

A
  • TMP-SMX

- Nitrofurantoin

78
Q

What are the anti-HTN drugs that are used to treat pregnant women?

A

-Hydralazine
-alpha-Methyldopa
-Labetalol
-Nifedipine
(“hypertensive moms love nifedipine”)

79
Q

What is the difference in the toxins produced by vibrio cholerae and bordetella pertussis?

A

Bordetella inhibits Gi proteins to increase cAMP

-Cholera increases Gs to increase cAMP

80
Q

What are the two bacteria that inhibits EF-2?

A

Diphtheria

Pseudomonas

81
Q

What are the top two causes of the common cold, in order?

A
  1. Rhinovirus

2. Coronavirus

82
Q

What is the most common cause of viral URIs and viral conjunctivitis in children?

A

Adenovirus

83
Q

What thyroid dysfunction does Li cause?

A

hypothyroidism

84
Q

What is the MOA of carbamazepine? Classic side effect?

A
  • Na channel blocker

- Agranulocytosis

85
Q

What is the MOA of topiramate?

A
  • Blocks Na channels

- Potentiates GABA

86
Q

What is the first line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbamazepine

87
Q

What is the first line treatment for seizures in neonates?

A

Phenobarbital

88
Q

What is the MOA and use of Tiagabine?

A

Blocks GABA reuptake

-Simple and complex seizures

89
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of I cell disease?

90
Q

Is the Varicella vaccine live attenuated or killed?

A

Live attenuated

91
Q

What is the genetic defect and inheritance pattern for FAP?

A
  • APC mutation

- AD

92
Q

What is the MOA and use of Ranibizumab?

A
  • Anti-VEGF ab

- Glaucoma and colon CA

93
Q

What is the MOA and use of pegaptanib?

A
  • Anti-VEGF ab

- Glaucoma and colon CA

94
Q

What cholesterol drug increases HDL levels?

95
Q

What is the MOA and use of Olestra?

A
  • Bulky molecule resistant to digestion by lipases

- Weight loss (controversial)

96
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of 5alpha reductase deficiency?

97
Q

What is the gene on the Y chromosome that allows for male differentiation? What does this cause?

A
  • SRY gene

- Testes determining factor secretion

98
Q

What is the role of testes determining factor?

A

Stimulates the differentiation of sertoli and leydig cells

99
Q

What is the role of sertoli cells in male development?

A

Secrete Mullerian inhibitor factor to degenerate the paramesonephric ducts

100
Q

What is the role of Leydig cells in male development?

A

Secrete testosterone to convert to DHT, which stimulates the development of the male external genitalia

101
Q

What is the role of DHT in the development of males?

A

Converts the genital tubercle and urogenital sinus to the male external genitalia

102
Q

Why is doxycycline the DOC for rickettsial diseases?

A

Accumulates intracellularly

103
Q

What are the adverse effects of tetracyclines?

A
  • Discoloration of teeth
  • Inhibition of bone growth in children
  • Photosensitivitiy
104
Q

Why should tetracycline not be given to prego women?

A

Discoloration of teeth and bone development inhibition

105
Q

What drugs should never be taken with tetracyclines, due to decreased uptake?

A

Milk, antacids or iron containing preps, as tetracyclines are chelators

106
Q

What drug used to treat IBD is known to cause orange colored sweat?

A

Sulfasalazine

107
Q

Narcolepsy is associated with a decrease in which neurotransmitter? Where is this produced?

A

Orexin–lateral hypothalamus

108
Q

What is the function of the neurotransmitter Orexin?

A

Promote wakefulness and prevent inappropriate entry into REM

109
Q

What are the general drugs classes used to treat narcolepsy?

A
  • SSRIs

- Stimulants

110
Q

Which type of RNA is most resistant to RNAses? Why?

A

rRNA, since it complexes with proteins to assume its final structure

111
Q

What is the MOA of edema toxin from Bacillus anthracis?

A

Increases cAMP to cause edema

112
Q

What area of the brain is implicated in schizophrenia? What is the dysfunction here?

A
  • Mesolimbic pathway

- Increased dopamine

113
Q

What area of the brain is involved in the reward pathway?

A

Mesolimbic pathway

114
Q

What area of the brain connects the midbrain to the limbic system?

A

Mesolimbic pathway

115
Q

What is the major site of NE production in the brain?

A

Locus ceruleus–a nucleus in the pons

116
Q

What is the dopaminergic pathway that is affected in PD?

A

Nigrostriatal pathway

117
Q

Where in the brain is serotonin produced?

A

Raphe nuclei (in the reticular formation)

118
Q

What area of the brain is responsible for EOM that occur during REM?

A

Paramedian pontine reticular formation

119
Q

What is the MOA and use of Finasteride?

A

Inhibits the production of DHT by 5alpha-reductase

120
Q

What is the MOA and use of Leuprolide?

A

-GnRH analog that binds to LH receptor in the pituitary, leading to desensitization

121
Q

What happens to the eyes in DKA? Why?

A
  • Mydriasis

- Increases sympathetic tone

122
Q

What are the four diseases in which target cells are seen?

A
  • Hb C
  • Asplenia
  • Liver disease
  • Thalassemia
123
Q

What are the two major analogs to GnRH?

A
  • Leuprolide

- Goserelin

124
Q

What is the main antiandrogen that is used to block androgen receptors?

125
Q

Draw the indirect pathway of the BG.

126
Q

Draw the direct pathway of the BG.

127
Q

The thalamus sends BG projects to the ipsilateral or contralateral side?

A

Contralateral

128
Q

What is the pathophysiology behind the effects of EtOH on the developing fetus?

A

Inhibition of cell migration

129
Q

The odds ratio is used in what type of studies?

A

Case-control

130
Q

What is the equation for the odds ratio?

131
Q

Is AV nodal reentry a congenital disorder

132
Q

What are the immunoglobin changes that are seen with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?

A

Low IgM
Normal IgG
Elevated IgA

133
Q

What immunoglobin level is low with Ataxia-Telangiectasia?

134
Q

Which cardioselective beta blocker has the shortest half-life?

135
Q

Where in the GI tract is Fe absorbed?

136
Q

Where in the GI tract are fat soluble vitamins absorbed?

137
Q

What chromosome is the CFTR gene located on? How is this inherited? What does this lead to, in terms of genetic/protein effects?

A
  • chromosome 7
  • Abnormal folding of CFTR d/t a deletion
  • AR
138
Q

What is the defect if Cri du chat syndrome?

A

Deletion of the small arm of chromosome 5

139
Q

What is the effect of the CCG repeat in fragile X syndrome?

A

Methylation defects

140
Q

What is the number 1 cause of death in the 15-24 yo age range?

A

Traumatic injury

141
Q

What is the treatment for HIT?

A

D/c heparin, start a direct thrombin inhibitor

142
Q

Are ion channels in the myocardium voltage gated, or ion gated?

A

Voltage gated

143
Q

In what GI disease is a vagotomy indicated?

A

Refractory PUD

144
Q

What is the MOA, use, and classic side effect of metoclopramide?

A
  • D2 receptor antagonist
  • Promotility agent
  • Parkinsonian effects
145
Q

What is the first line treatment for gastroparesis 2/2 uncontrolled DM II?

A

Metoclopramide and other promotility agents

146
Q

What bacteria is the most common cause of sepsis in sickle cells patients?

A

Strep pneumoniae

147
Q

What is the most common composition of renal stones?

A

Ca oxalate

148
Q

What is the prophylactic DOC for pneumocystis pneumonia if there is a sulfa allergy?

A

Pentamidine

149
Q

What is the prophylaxis for MAC in AIDS patients? At what CD4 count does this begin?

A
  • Azithromycin

- Less than 50

150
Q

When does prophylaxis for pneumocystis begin (what CD4 count)?

A

Less than 200 CD4

151
Q

When does prophylaxis for toxoplasmosis begin (what CD4 count)?

A

Less than 100 CD4

All the Small Things (29 decks)

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