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All the Small Things > Micro VII > Flashcards

Micro VII Flashcards

1
Q

ALl enterobacteriaceae have what?

A

O antigen

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2
Q

What is the e.coli strain that causes neonatal meningitis?

A

K1 capsule

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3
Q

What is the toxin that ETEC uses? MOA?

A

LT toxin

-Stimulate adenylate cyclase to increase Na Cl and water loss

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4
Q

What is MOA of clonidine?

A

Alpha 2 agonism

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5
Q

What other GI pathogens produces and secretes a toxin with a mechanism of action similar to LT toxin?

A

Cholera

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6
Q

K1 e.coli causes what disease?

A

Neonatal meningitis

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7
Q

What is the cause of HUS?

A
  • EHEC 0157:H7

- verotoxin inhibits protein synthesis

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8
Q

What causes the schistocytes in HUS?

A

“Roughing up” of the glomerular capillaries

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9
Q

What is the MOA of verotoxin found in HUS?

A

Widespread platelet aggregation

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10
Q

Which e.coli cause dysentery?

A

EHEC

EIEC

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11
Q

Which e. coli causes pus diarrhea?

A

EIEC

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12
Q

Which e.coli strain causes fever?

A

EPEC

EIEC

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13
Q

How does EHEC cause HUS? MOA?

A

Shiga toxin***

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14
Q

Why is ITP not associated with schistocytes?

A

No thromboses form–just abs toward platelets

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15
Q

What is the DOC of e.coli? (UTI,

A

UTI: Cipro or TMP/SMX

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16
Q

What closely related species to Yersinia
enterocolitica is transmitted to humans from
rodents by the bite of flea and causes a fatal
disease associated with serious suppurative
swelling of lymph nodes? Also, what is the
name of the disease that it causes?

A

Answer to closely related species to Yersinia enterocolitica is Yersinia
pestis and it causes Bubonic plague.

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17
Q

What is the third enteric bug that invades
epithelial cells of the GI and causes fever and
bloody diarrhea?
1. Shigella
2. Salmonella
3.

A

Campylobacter

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18
Q

What are the key members of the enterobacteriaceae? (S2E2C)

A
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae
  • Escherichia coli
  • Enterobacter
  • Yersinia enterocolitica
  • Serratia
  • Shigella
  • Salmonella
  • Proteus mirabilis
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19
Q

What is the most common cause of pus in the stool?

A

Campylobacter

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20
Q

List 5 must-know pathogens that produce
fever, bloody diarrhea and inflammatory PMNs
(pus) in the stool (SEC x 2)

A
  • Shigella
  • Salmonella
  • EHEC
  • Entamoeba histolytica
  • Campylobacter jejuni
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21
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of salmonella typhi? Is it motile? Catalase?

A

Gram negative rod
Motile
Catalase +

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22
Q

What does salmonella typhi cause?

A

Typhoid fever

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23
Q

Salmonella typhi incubation is 10 to 14 days.
Salmonella enteritidis (food poisoning) incubation
is 1 to 2 days. What is the incubation of Staph
aureus food poisoning?

A

Incubation of Staph aureus and bacillus cereus is 3-8 hours

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24
Q

What are major catalase-positive bugs, and what

virulence mechanism they have in common?

A 
Proteus
Pseudomonas
Listeria
Aspergillus
Campylobacter
Ecoli
Shigella
Salmonella
Staph
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25
Q

What is the incubation of Bacillus cereus food

poisoning?

A

3-8 hours

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26
Q

What protozoan causes dysentery and what is the
pathognomonic feature seen if biopsy is taken from
the colon?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

Flask-shaped ulcers

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27
Q

What is the morphology of salmonella enteritidis? What does it produce? Is it motile? Catalase?

A

Gram negative rod
H2S
Motile
Catalase positive

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28
Q

What is the disease the salmonella enteritidis causes?

A

Enterocolitis (pus and bloody diarrhea)

29
Q

What are the predisposing factors for salmonella enteritidis?

A

Low levels of stomach acid

30
Q

The most common source of salmonella enteritidis

in the U.S. is thought to be due to consumption of:

A

Improperly cooked baking dough

31
Q

Your patient is suspected of Typhoid fever. From
what tissue do you obtain a bacterial culture; stool
or blood?

A

Both stool and blood!

32
Q

What salmonella has only a human reservoir?

A

Typhi has only a human reservoir

33
Q

What is the DOC of Salmonella?

A

Ampicillin, ciprofloxacin, 3rd generation

cephalosporins and TMP/SMX

34
Q

Poultry products are the #1 cause of Salmonellosis

in the USA. What other animal is a major carrier for Salmonellosis?

A

Pet turtles

35
Q

Salmonella organisms are encapsulated. Process
of their elimination includes opsonization wherein
the complements, like glue, attach these bugs to
the macrophages or PMNs, and then they are
phagocytized within the reticuloendothelial system.
In what two groups of individuals may this normal
process be disturbed?

A

Asplenic and sickle cell disease patient

36
Q

One group of individuals is particularly prone to

salmonella osteomyelitis; what group is this?

A

Sickle cell

37
Q

What percent of people who contract typhoid fever become asymptomatic carriers and shedders?

A

3% of patients with S. typhi infection may become asymptomatic carriers.
Note that in contrast to salmonella food poisoning that may be mild or
asymptomatic, S. typhi is always serious and symptomatic. As such,
these carriers/shedders are important public health hazards.

38
Q

Where do you obtain culture specimens for S.

enteritidis; feces or blood?

A

Feces

39
Q

What is the name of rash on the abdomen in S.

typhi?

A

Rose spots

40
Q

What are the common causes of death from

typhoid fever? (3)

A

Perforation of intestinal mucosa, peritonitis and sepsis, and rupture of the spleen.

41
Q

What classic serology identifies agglutinating

antibodies against H and O antigens of S. typhi?

A

Widal test

42
Q

Which of the two salmonella alway warrants treatment?

A

Typhi

43
Q

What is the firs line treatment for carriers of typhi?

A

Amox

44
Q

What is the hallmark of S. typhi infx?

A

Persistent high fever

45
Q

What happens within the first 10-14 days of infx with S typhi?

A

Fever

46
Q

Does typhi normally cause diarrhea?

A

no

47
Q

What are the most common s/sx of typhi?

A

Fever

48
Q

What are the three major differences between salmonella and shigella?

A

No H2S
Not motile
Colorless on SS agar (black for salmonella)

49
Q

What is the virulence factor of shigella?

A

Shiga toxin

50
Q

How do you differentiate e.coli from shigella and salmonella?

A

Lactose fermentation is + for e coli but not others

51
Q

Which is more infectious: shigella or salmonella?

A

Shigella

52
Q

What is the pathogenesis of shigella?

A

Invades GI mucosa, and secretes shiga toxin

53
Q

What is the gram stain and morph of shigella?

A

Gram negative rod

54
Q

Flask shaped ulcers in the Gi tract = ?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

55
Q

What is the treatment for shedders of salmonella?

A

Ampicillin

56
Q

What is the DOC of shigella?

A

TMP/SMX

57
Q

What is the DOC for salmonella?

A

3rd gen cephalosporin

58
Q

What are the two lactose fermenters?

A

E. coli

Klebsiella

59
Q

What are the four major lactose non-fermenters?

A

Proteus
Pseudomonas
SHigella
Salmonella

60
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of vibrio cholerae? Oxidase status?

A

Gram negative comma shaped rod

Oxidase +

61
Q

What is the treatment for cholera?

A

Hydrate + electrolyte replacement

62
Q

What is another must-know Vibrio that loves salty
environments for growth, causes acute enteritis, is
associated with uncooked seafood, and is the
number one cause of food poisoning in Japan?

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

63
Q

Which of the following finding would most likely
confirm that your patient has typhoid fever?

A. Watery Diarrhea
B. Flask-shaped colon ulcers
C. Steatorrhea
D. Bacteremia
E. Chronic gastritis
A

D. Bacteremia

64
Q

What is the most important test to distinguish

pseudomonas from enterobacteriaceae?

A

The oxidase test differentiates Pseudomonas (oxidase-positive) from
major inhabitants of the gut, namely, Enterobacteriaceae that are oxidase
negative.

65
Q

Comma-shaped and most

serious dehydration = ?

A

Vibrio cholera

66
Q

Traveler’s diarrhea; heat labile

toxin; lactose-positive = ?

A

ETEC

67
Q

Acid-fast protozoan transmitted

from livestock = ?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

68
Q

Lactose-positive bug that causes

outbreaks in hospital nurseries = ?

A

EPEC

69
Q

Cruise ship diarrhea?

A

Rotavirus

All the Small Things (29 decks)

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