Anatomy Review I Flashcards

1
Q

What is the innervation of the pericardium?

A

Phrenic nerve

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2
Q

Friction rub = ?

A

Pericarditis

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3
Q

What are the EKG findings of pericarditis?

A

Diffuse ST elevation

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4
Q

What are the clinical findings of pericarditis?

A

Sharp pain, worse with inspiration and supine

Better with leaning forward

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5
Q

What are the complications that can arise from pericarditis?

A

Effusion

Tamponade

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6
Q

What is the treatment for pericarditis?

A

Pericardiocentesis

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7
Q

Where do coronary arteries originate from?

A

Ostia in the sinus of valsalva, just distal to the aortic valve

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8
Q

When in the cardiac cycle do cardiac vessels fill?

A

Diastole

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9
Q

True or false: nodes on valves are always pathologic

A

False–can be normal

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10
Q

What are the two major branches of the LCA?

A

LAD

LCX

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11
Q

What are the branches of the RCA?

A

PDA (usually)
SA and AV nodal arteries
marginal

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12
Q

Chest pain + bradycardia = ?

A

RCA infarct d/t loss of SA/AV nodal arteries

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13
Q

Where is the heart sound for the mitral valve?

A

Left fifth intercostal space, near midclavicular line

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14
Q

Systolic or diastolic murmur: aortic stenosis

A

Systole

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15
Q

Systolic or diastolic murmur: mitral regurg

A

Systole

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16
Q

Systolic or diastolic murmur: aortic regurg

A

Diastolic

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17
Q

Systolic or diastolic murmur: pulmonic regurgitation

A

diastolic

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18
Q

Systolic or diastolic murmur: mitral/ tricuspid stenosis

A

Diastolic

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19
Q

Head bobbing goes with what heart murmur?

A

Aortic regurg

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20
Q

What makes pulmonary regurg worse?

A

Deep breathing

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21
Q

What are the three histological layers of the aorta?

A

Intima
Media
Externa

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22
Q

What does a bicuspid aortic valve predispose pts to?

A

dissection

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23
Q

Proximal and distal aortic dissection = which stanford grade?

A

A if ascending is involved at all

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24
Q

CT diseases usually cause aortic dilation where?

A

Ascending

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25
Q

What is the dilation amount for aortic aneurysms that indicate surgery?

A

More than 5.5 cm (5.0 for females)

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26
Q

Who get screened for aortic aneurysms?

A

60+

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27
Q

Problems with the rostral fold = ?

A

Sternal defects

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28
Q

Problems with lateral folds = ?

A

Gastroschisis

Omphalocele

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29
Q

Problems with caudal folds =?

A

Bladder exstrophy

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30
Q

Midgu problems between the 6th and 10th weeks = ?

A

Midgut herniates

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31
Q

Double bubble sign on x-ray = ?

A

Duodenal atresia

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32
Q

What is the usual presentation of Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Failure to pass meconium in the first 24 hours

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33
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of annular pancreas?

A

Problem digesting 2/2 stenosis and blockage of pancreatic secretions

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34
Q

Where, relative to the umbilicus, do gastroschisis occur?

A

Lateral to the umbilicus, and NOT covered by a sac

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35
Q

What is an omphalocele?

A

Herniation of abdominal contents into the umbilical cord, and COVERED by the peritoneum

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36
Q

Palpable olive mass in an infant = ?

A

Pyloric stenosis

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37
Q

What type of emesis is had with pyloric stenosis?

A

Non-bilious, projectile vomiting

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38
Q

What are the s/sx of esophageal atresia?

A

Drooling, choking, and air in stomach

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39
Q

The vagus wraps around the esophagus or aorta?

A

Esophagus

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40
Q

The thoracic duct goes through the diaphragm at what spinal level?

A

T12 (with aorta)

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41
Q

The phrenic nerve goes through the diaphragm with what?

A

IVC

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42
Q

What are the components of the portal triad?

A

Bile duct
portal vein
Hepatic artery

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43
Q

Where does viral hepatitis affect the liver lobules (which zone)?

A

Zone 1

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44
Q

What are the bile ducts formed by?

A

The dilated intercellular space between hepatocytes

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45
Q

Cystic duct + Common hepatic duct = ?

A

Common bile duct

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46
Q

The spleen lies in front of which ribs?

A

9, 10, 11

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47
Q

Hour glass stomach = ?

A

Sliding hiatal hernia

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48
Q

What is a paraesophageal hernia?

A

Fundus moves into the chest cavity

49
Q

What part of the brachial plexus is affected with TOS?

A

Lower trunk and subclavian vessels

50
Q

What is the problem with Er-Duchenne’s palsy?

A

**

51
Q

What is the innervation of the subscapularis?

A

Subscapular nerve

52
Q

What is the test for the subscapularis?

A

Lift off test

53
Q

What is the function of the teres minor

A

Externally rotates the arm

54
Q

What is the function of the subscapularis?

A

Internally rotates the arm

55
Q

What is the function of the infraspinatus?

A

Externally rotates the arm

56
Q

Surgical neck fracture of the humerus = what nerve injury?

A

Axillary nerve

57
Q

midshaft fracture of the humerus = what nerve injury?

A

radial nerve

58
Q

What is saturday night pasly

A

Radial nerve injury, causes wrist drop

59
Q

Distal fracture of the humerus = what nerve injury?

A

ulnar nerve–ulnar claw hand

60
Q

What is a colles fractures?

A

FOOSH! injury, causing radius fracture

61
Q

What is a smith’s fracture

A
62
Q

What is the most commonly fractured and dislocated wrist bones?

A
Fractured = scaphoid
Dislocated = lunate
63
Q

What is the spinal level, and innervation of: iliohypogastric nerve?

A

Innervates rectus abdominus

64
Q

What is the spinal level, and innervation of: ilioinguinal nerve

A

Goes through, but not in, the spermatic cord

65
Q

What is the spinal level, and innervation of: genitofemoral nerve?

A

L1-L2, cremaster

66
Q

The neural plate becomes what?

A

Neural tube

67
Q

What does the neural crest cells becomes?

A

PNS

68
Q

What does the neuroectoderm become?

A

CNS

69
Q

What is the function os astrocytes?

A

structural suipppoer, BBB

70
Q

What happens to the neurons with Wallerian degeneration?

A
71
Q

What is the function of the lateral hypothalamus?

A

Feeling hungry– - leptin

72
Q

What is the function of the ventromedial hypothalamus?

A

Feeling full + leptin

73
Q

What is the function of the anterior hypothalamus?

A

Cooling

74
Q

What is the function of the posterior hypothalamus?

A

Heating

75
Q

What is the function of the suprachiasmatic hypothalamus?

A

Circadian rhythm/sleep

76
Q

Heating works via the PNS or SNS? Cooling?

A
Heating = SNS
Cooling = PNS
77
Q

What is the function of the VPM nucleus of the thalamus?

A

Sensation from the mouth, including taste

78
Q

What is the function of the LGN nucleus of the thalamus?

A

Vision

79
Q

What is the function of the fornix?

A

Connects the hippocampus to the mamillary bodies

80
Q

What is the function of the subthalamic nucleus?

A

9

81
Q

Hemiballismus = what nucleus is damaged?

A

Subthalamic nucleus

82
Q

Medial lesions to the cerebellum = ?

A

Vermis or medial nucleus will result in truncal ataxia, wide based gait, and generally bilateral deficits

83
Q

Lateral lesions to the cerebellum = ?

A

Usually affected the voluntary movement of the extremities, generally ipsilated and the patient wills tumble towards the side of the lesion

84
Q

Slurred speech = what part of the cerebellum is affected?

A

Medial

85
Q

Berry aneurysms involve what arties?

A

Anterior communicating arteries

86
Q

Carotid artery passes through what cranial bone?

A

Temporal

87
Q

Carotid artery passes through which cranial bone?

A

Temporal

88
Q

SAH is related to what?

A

Berry aneurysms

89
Q

What is the blood supply medial to the internal capsule?

A

PCA

90
Q

What Is the the blood supply lateral to the internal capsule?

A

MCA

91
Q

What is the blood supply to the inferior part of the internal capsule?

A
92
Q

What are the CN nuclei that are medial in the brainstem?

A

3
4
6
12

(all multiples of 12)

93
Q

What are the CN nuclei that are medial in the brainstem?

A

3
4
6
12

(12 is divisible by all of them, except 2)

94
Q

Trigeminal nerve lesion = jaw deviates toward or away from the side of the lesion

A

TOWARD (pterygoid is dysfunctional)

95
Q

What is the nucleus that relays taste from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

Solitary nucleus

96
Q

Posterior 1/3 of the tongue taste sensation = which CN?

A

IX

97
Q

Does the uvula point toward or away from a CN X lesion?

A

Away

98
Q

What is the mouth reflex that is innervated by the gag?

A
IX = afferent
X = efferent
99
Q

What happens to the pronephros?

A

Develops in week 4, then disappears

100
Q

What is the mesonephros?

A

Interim kidy from 1 trimester

101
Q

What is the metanephros?

A

Appears in the 5th weeks, and is permanent, nephrogenesis from here on out

102
Q

The ureteric bud is derived from what?

A

Mesonephric duct and becomes ureter, renal pelvis, calyces, and collecting ducts

103
Q

What is the spatial relationship between the ureters and the ductus deferens

A

Water runs under the bridge

104
Q

What is the early fetal milestone for 0-1 wks?

A

blastocyst implants, hCG secretion begins

105
Q

What is the early fetal milestone for 2 wks?

A

Bilaminar disc forms

106
Q

What is the early fetal milestone for 3 wks?

A

Trilaminar disc forms

107
Q

What is the early fetal milestone for 3-8 wks?

A

important organogenesis

108
Q

What is the early fetal milestone for 4 wks?

A
109
Q

The umbilical cord is derived from what?

A

Allantois

110
Q

The umbilical cord has what three vessels?

A

***two veins, one artery

111
Q

What does the suspensory ligament of the ovary connect/ What does it contain?

A

Ovaries to the lateral wall

Ovarian vessels

112
Q

What does the cardinal ligament of the ovary connect/ What does it contain?

A

Cervi to the altera wall of the pelvis

Uterine vessels

113
Q

What does the round ligament of the ovary connect/ What does it contain?

A

Uterine fundus to the labia major

114
Q

What does the broad ligament of the ovary connect/ What does it contain?

A

Uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries, and connects to the pelvic side wall

Ovaris, fallopian tubes, and round ligament

115
Q

What does the ovarian ligament of the ovary connect/ What does it contain?

A

Medial aspect of the ovary to lateral aspect of the uterus

116
Q

SEVEN UP

A
Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Vas deferns
Ejacualtory duct
Nothing

Urethra
Penis

117
Q

What is the fascial layers of the penis from deep to superficial?

A

Bucks then, dartos from deep to superficial

118
Q

Where does the pudendal nerve exit?

A

Out the great, in the lesser

119
Q

What is the nerve supply to the anterior and posterior part of the vagina

A

Anterior = ilioinguinal

Posterior = pudendal