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All the Small Things > Micro III > Flashcards

Micro III Flashcards

1
Q

What is the causative agent of scalded skin syndrome?

A

Staph aureus

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2
Q

Where is the rash with SSSS that is characteristic?

A

Palms and soles

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3
Q

Who is usually affected with SSSS?

A

Babies

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4
Q

What is the complication of SSSS?

A

Impetigo

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5
Q

What is the toxin that causes SSSS?

A

Exfoliatin

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6
Q

What is the toxin that causes scarlet fever

A

Erythrogenic / pyrogenic toxin

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7
Q

What areas of the skin are NOT affected with scarlet fever?

A

Palms and soles

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8
Q

Crusting of the distal palmar aspect of the fingers = what two diseases?

A

Kawasaki

SSSS

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9
Q

What is the scarlatiniform rash?

A

Rash seen with SSSS

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10
Q

Strawberry tongue = what two diseases?

A

Scarlet fever or Kawasaki’s disease

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11
Q

What is the difference between cellulitis and erysipelas?

A

Erysipelas is more superficial, and sharply demarcated

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12
Q

What is the most common site for cellulitis?

A

Lower legs

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13
Q

What is the more dreaded complication of cellulitis?

A

Sepsis

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14
Q

What is the most common way of getting cellulitis?

A

skin cuts, scratches, and insect bites

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15
Q

What virulence factor of S pyogenes causes cellulitis?

A

Hyaluronidase–causes death of cells d/t damage of the cell membrane

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16
Q

Those is a h/o RF need what?

A

abx prophylaxis

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17
Q

What is the cause of impetigo contaGioSa?

A

S. pyoGeneS

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18
Q

What is the cause of bulloUS impetigo?

A

Staph AureUS

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19
Q

Why is it important to distinguish between strep and staph caused impetigo?

A

Post strep GMN

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20
Q

What is the buttonhole deformity? What causes it?

A

Finger that is held in flexion at the proximal interphalangeal joint and slight hyperextension at the distal interphalangeal joint

Results from the disruption of the central slip of the extensor. The lateral slips gradually separate and the proximal phalanx slips through the gap.

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21
Q

What are the topical abx that are used for treatment of impetigo by both s pyogenes and S. aureus?

A

Cephalexin
Clindamycin
Mupirocin

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22
Q

What is the MOA of mupirocin?

A

Binds to isoleucyl tRNA synthetase in S pyogenes and S aureus and inhibits protein synthesis

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23
Q

What is the MOA of clindamycin?

A

Inhibits the 50s subunit of the ribosome

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24
Q

What is the MOA of cephalosporins?

A

Beta lactam

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25
Q

What is MacCallum’s plaques? What is the characteristic findings in the blood with this?

A

Irregular thickening caused by subendocardial lesions, usually in the left atrium, in rheumatic heart disease

causes thrombosis

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26
Q

What are the top three bacterial causes of sepsis as a result of skin infection?

A
  1. Strep Pyogenes
  2. Staph aureus
  3. Pseudomonas
27
Q

Sepsis in a burn pt = what bacteria?

A

Pseudomonas

28
Q

What is the main difference between the exo and endotoxins from the standpoint of the delivery mechanism?

A
29
Q

Jarisch herxheimer rxn = ?

A

Treatment of syphilis causes exotoxin release***

30
Q

What are the morphological characteristics of GBS?

A
  • Gram positive cocci
  • Beta hemolytic
  • Resistant to bacitracin
  • CAMP +, Catalase -
31
Q

What is the reservoir of GBS?

A

Normal vaginal flora

32
Q

How is GBS transmitted? (3)

A

vertical:

  • placenta
  • Vaginal canal
  • Milk
33
Q

What is the virulence factor associated with GBS?

A

anti-phagocytic capsule

34
Q

What is the only bacteria that is CAMP +?

A

GBS

35
Q

What is the major disease caused by GBS?

A

Neonatal pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis

36
Q

What are the major complications of transmission of GBS via the placenta?

A

hydrops fetalis

37
Q

What is the treatment for GBS + mothers?

A

PCN

38
Q

When are pregnant women screened for GBS?

A

35-37 weeks gestation

39
Q

What are the 5 major bacterial pathogens that cause birth canal infections?

A
  1. GBS
  2. Gonococcus
  3. E. Coli with K1 capsule
  4. Chlamydia
  5. Listeria
40
Q

What are the 3 major viral pathogens that cause birth canal infections?

A
  1. HSV 2
  2. CMV
  3. HBV
41
Q

What is the treatment for a GBS + mother that is in labor, but there is no time for PCN?

A

Cesarian section

42
Q

Culture of blood in a patient reveals beta-hemolytic
gram-positive cocci that are catalase-negative and resistant to bacitracin but CAMP test-positive. What is the most likely age of the patient?

A. 2 weeks to 4 weeks
B. 1 month to 6 months
C. 6 months to 6 years
D. 6 years to 16 years
E. 20 to 40 years
A

A. 2 weeks to 4 weeks

43
Q

Your patient is a 6-year-old boy with papular and
pustular skin lesions on his face. A serous, ―honey colored‖
fluid exudes from the lesions. You suspect
impetigo. A Gram-stain of the pus reveals many
neutrophilic and gram-positive cocci in chains. If
you cultured the pus on blood agar, which one of
the following would you MOST likely see?

A. Small beta-hemolytic colonies containing
bacteria that are bacitracin-sensitive.
B. Small alpha-hemolytic colonies containing
bacteria that are resistant to optochin.
C. Large non-hemolytic colonies containing
bacteria that are oxidase-positive.
D. Small non-hemolytic colonies containing
bacteria that grow in 6.5% NaCl.
E. Small beta-hemolytic colonies that are
bacitracin resistant.

A

A. Small beta-hemolytic colonies containing

bacteria that are bacitracin-sensitive.

44
Q

What is the shape of strep pneumoniae? Gram stain?

A

Lancet shaped

Gram positive diplococcus, that is alpha hemolytic, optochin sensitive

45
Q

What is the Quellung rxn result for strep pneumoniae? What is it?

A

positive

Abs to pneumoniae capsule added to serum, causes swelling of the bacterial cell wall

46
Q

What is the usual cause of community acquired pneumonia?

A

Strep pneumoniae

47
Q

What are the top three infectious causes of OM?

A
  1. Strep pneumo
  2. Moraxella catarrhalis
  3. H flu (non-typable)
48
Q

What are the encapsulated organisms?

A

Strep pneumoniae
HiB
Neisseria
E.coli

Salmonella
Klebsiella
i
Strep B

49
Q

What is the inheritance pattern and issue with hereditary spherocytosis?

A
  • AD

- Ankyrin defect in RBC structure

50
Q

Asplenic pts are more susceptible to what type of bacteria?

A

Encapsulated organisms

51
Q

What is the most important management strategy for asplenic pts?

A

Vaccinate

52
Q

What are the top 4 bacterial causes of community acquired sepsis as a result of pneumonia?

A

Strep pneumoniae
HiB
Legionella
Chlamydia pneumoniae

53
Q

What is “typical” pneumonia?

A

Lobar pneumonia

54
Q

What 3 bugs have a + Quellung test?

A
  1. Neisseria
  2. HiB
  3. Strep pneumo
55
Q

What is the most likely etiology of mitral valve
infection in a 21-year-old woman with history of
rheumatic fever who has recently removed one her molar teeth?

A

Strep mutans

56
Q

What is the strep species that is associated with bowel cancer?

A

Bovis in the blood

Cancer in the colon

57
Q

What are the four major strep viridans groups?

A

S mitis
S mutans
S sanguis
S Salivarius

58
Q

What is the hemolysis pattern of strep viridans? How can you differentiate these from strep pneumo?

A

Alpha

optochin

59
Q

The two most important causes of endocarditis

in the USA are what?

A

Strep viridans

Staph aureus

60
Q

Staph aureus causes an acute endocarditis

often secondary to what?

A

Infections elsewhere

61
Q

Viridans causes what type of endocarditis?

A

a sub-acute endocarditis
mainly in patients with predisposing congenital
heart diseases

62
Q

What indicates that endocarditis is caused by staph epidermidis?

A

Prothesis

63
Q

What is the most common cause
of incisional wound infection and postpartum
mastitis?

A

Staph Aureus

All the Small Things (29 decks)

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