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Random Review stuff Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mnemonic for remembering the intermediates of the Kreb’s cycle?

A 
Citrate
Is
Kreb's
Starting
Substrate
For
Making
Oxaloacetate
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2
Q

What is the general trend of diseases that are acquired as CD4 counts decrease with HIV?

A

Under 500 = Oral/ anal infx

Under 200 = dementia

Under 100 = everything else

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3
Q

What are the drugs that act on microtubules?

A 
Mebendazole
Griseofulvin
Colchicine
Vincristine/viblastine
Paclitaxol

(“Microtubules Get Constructed Very Poorly”)

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4
Q

What is the molecule that transports vesicles toward the positive end of the neuronal process?
Where is the Positive end in relation to the cell body of the neuron?

A

Kinesin

Away from the cell body

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5
Q

What is the molecule that transports vesicles toward the negative end of the neuronal process? Where is the negative end in relation to the cell body of the neuron?

A

Dynein

Toward cell body

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6
Q

What are the two veins that bleed with esophageal varices?

A

Left gastric

Azygos vein

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7
Q

What are the ABCCCD ‘s of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A 
Alcohol
Beriberi
Coxsackie virus
Cocaine abuse
Chagas disease
Doxorubicin
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8
Q

What are the CAMPFIRE drugs used to treat pseudomonas?

A 
Carbapenems
Aminoglycosides
Monobactams
Polymyxins
Fluoroquinolones
thIRd and fourth gen
Extended
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9
Q

What is the classic histological appearance of oligodendrogliomas?

A

Fried egg appearance with perinuclear halos and chicken wire capillary pattern

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10
Q

What is the most common cause of SAH?

A

Rupture of an aneurysm

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11
Q

What is the most common cause of subdural hemorrhage?

A

Rupture of the bridging veins

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12
Q

What are the components of the ICE TIE mnemonic for the layers of fascia in the testicle?

A

Internal spermatic fascia
(transversalis fascia)

Cremasteric muscle
(Internal oblique)

External spermatic fascia
(External oblique)

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13
Q

What are the 4 tumors that have psammoma bodies?

A

Papillary thyroid
Serous cystadenomas
Mesotheliomas
Meningiomas

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14
Q

What are the three common causes of neonatal bacterial meningitis?

A

GBS
E. Coli
Listeria

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15
Q

What is the treatment for methicillin SENSITIVE staph aureus?

A

Dicloxacillin

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16
Q

What is the treatment for otitis externa 2/2 pseudomonas?

A

Piperacillin-tazobactam

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17
Q

What are aminoglycosides used to treat?

A

Gram negative aerobes

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18
Q

What is the treatment for Trypanosoma cruzi?

A

Benznidazole or nifurtimox

Cruising in my Benz with a Fur

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19
Q

What is the vector for leishmania? S/sx?

A

Sandfly–HSM, spiking fevers, pancytopenia

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20
Q

What is the MOA and use of Mirtazapine?

A

Depression

Alpha-2 antagonist

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21
Q

What are the components of the OAF mnemonic for the thenar muscles?

A
  • Opponens pollicis
  • Abductor pollicis brevis
  • Flexor pollicis brevis
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22
Q

What are the drugs that can cause agranulocytosis? (“Can Cause Pretty Major Collapse of Granulocytes”)

A 
Clozapine
Carbamazepine
PTU
Methimazole
Colchicine
Ganciclovir
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23
Q

What are the drugs that can cause aplastic anemia? (“Can’t Make New Blood Cells Properly”)

A 
Carbamazepine
Methimazole
NSAIDs
Benzene
Chloramphenicol
PTU
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24
Q

What are the drugs that can cause hemolytic anemia in patients with G6PD deficiency? (“hemolysis IS D PAIN”)

A 
INH
Sulfonamides
Dapsone
Primaquine
ASA
IBU
Nitrofurantoin
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25
What are the three drugs that cause megaloblastic anemia? ("having a blast with PMS")
Phenytoin Methimazole Sulfa drugs
26
What are the two drugs that cause a direct coombs positive hemolytic anemia?
PCN | Methyldopa
27
What is the MOA of vinblastine? Use?
Binds to tubulin during the M phase, blocking polymerization of microtubules Cancer
28
What is the MOA and use of misoprostol?
Synthetic analog of prostaglandin-1 to promote uterine contractions
29
What is the MOA and use for azathioprine?
Purine analog that is activated by HGPRT, and is metabolized into 6-MP to decrease purine synthesis Prevent organ rejection
30
What is the MOA and use of cladribine?
Purine analog that inhibits DNA polymerase that is used in the treatment of hairy cell leukemia
31
What is the MOA and use of cytarabine? Classic side effect?
Pyrimidine analog that inhibits DNA polymerase Leukemias and lymphomas Cytarabine causes panCYTopenia
32
What is the MOA and use of 5-FU? Side effect?
Pyrimidine analog bioactivated to 5-FdUMP which covalently complexes folic acid Colon cancer Myelosuppression
33
What is the drug that can increase the toxicity of 5-FU?
Leucocorin
34
What is the MOA, use, and side effect of methotrexate?
Folic acid analog that competitively inhibits dihydrofolate reductase ALL, lymphomas, ectopic pregnancy Hepatotoxic
35
What is the main side effect of busulfan?
Pancytopenia
36
What is the MOA of tetracyclines?
Bind to the 30S subunit, and prevent the binding of an aminoacyl Transfer RNA to the A site
37
What is the treatment for chlamydia infections?
***
38
What is the treatment for Gonorrhea infections?
***
39
What are the components of BEACOPP therapy for Hodgkin disease?
``` Bleomycin Etoposide Adriamycin (doxorubicin) Cyclophosphamide Oncovin (vincristine) Procarbazine Prednisone ```
40
What part of the stomach is affected with H.Pylori?
ANtrum and body of the stomach
41
What part of the stomach is affected with autoimmune gastritis?
Body/fundus
42
What is the equation for relative risk?
Risk of developing disease in exposed group / risk in unexposed group
43
What is the equation for attributable risk?
The difference in risk between exposed and unexposed groups
44
What is the equation for relative risk reduction?
1-RR (the proportion of risk reduction attributable to the intervention as compared to a control)
45
What is the equation for attributable risk?
The difference in risk between exposed and unexposed groups, divided by the risk in the unexposed group
46
What is the equation for the NNT?
1 / ARR
47
What is the equation for number needed to harm?
1/ AR
48
What are the picornaviruses (PERCH)?
``` Polio Echo Rhino Coxsackie HAV ```
49
What are the paramyxoviridae viruses? (PaRaMyxoviridae) (4)
- Parainfluenza - RSV - Measles / mumps
50
What is Bartter syndrome?
Reabsorption defect in thick ascending limb--like loops
51
What is Gitelman syndrome?
Reabsorptive defect in NaCl in DCT--lie thiazides
52
What is Liddle syndrome?
Gain of function leading to increased Na reabsorption in collecting tubules (ENaC)s Like hyperaldosterone
53
What is Fanconi syndrome?
Generalized reabsorptive defect in PCT, leading to an excretion of nearly all amino acids, glucose, HCO3 and PO4
54
What are the four key enzymes that regulate gluconeogenesis? (Pathway Produces Fresh Glucose)
- Pyruvate carboxylase - Phosphoenolpyruvate - Fructose 1,6, bisphosphatase - Glucose-6-phosphatase
55
What is the rxn catalyzed by: pyruvate carboxylase
Pyruvate to OXA
56
What is the rxn catalyzed by: phosphoenolpyruvate
OXA to Phosphoenolpyruate
57
What is the rxn catalyzed by: fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase
Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate to fructose 6 phosphate
58
What is the rxn catalyzed by: glucose 6 phosphatase
Glucose-6-phosphate to glucose
59
What is the classic adverse effect of TMP?
Megaloblastic anemia
60
What is the MOA of sulfamethoxazole?
Inhibits dihydropteroate synthase
61
What is the MOA of TMX?
Inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase
62
What is the difference between Lipooligosaccharide in neisseria and lipopolysaccharide other gram negatives?
LOS lacks the O antigen
63
What are the causes of ARDS? (SPARTA)
``` Sepsis Pancreatitis Aspiration uRemia Trauma Amniotic fluid embolus ```
64
What is the function of I cells of the duodenum?
Secrete CCK in response to fatty acids in the stomach
65
What is the function of S cells of the duodenum?
Produce Secretin in response to acid in the duodenum
66
What is the function of K cells of the duodenum?
Secrete GIP
67
What is the MOA and use of daclizumab?
- Antibody against IL-2 to prevent clonal expansion of lymphocytes - Kidney transplants
68
What are the pituitary hormones that have a similar structure to beta-hCG?
TSH LH FSH
69
What side effect can be avoided by administering 5FU IV as opposed to orally?
Mucosal ulceration
70
Why isn't bacitracin used systemically?
Nephrotoxic
71
What is the MOA of daptomycin?
Binds to the membranes of gram positive bacteria, causing rapid depolarization
72
What is the MOA of bacitracin?
Prevents the transfer of muropeptides into the growing bacterial cell wall
73
What is the MOA of metronidazole?
Forms free radicals that damage bacterial DNA
74
What is the treatment for echinococcus granulosus?
Albendazole
75
Why should you never drain a liver abscess of echinococcus granulosus?
Risk of anaphylaxis
76
What is the permeability barrier to the PNS?
Perineurium
77
Total failure of the urachus to obliterate = what defect?
Urine dribbling from the umbilicus
78
How many umbilical arteries and veins are there?
2 arteries, 1 vein
79
What is the function of the umbilical arteries?
Return deoxygenated blood from the fetal internal iliac arteries to the placenta
80
What is the function of the umbilical veins?
Supplies oxygenated blood from the placenet to the fetus, by draining into the IVC or liver via the ductus venosus
81
What does the allantois become during the third week of development?
Forms the urachus, to connect the fetal bladder and yolk sac
82
What is a patent urachus?
Urachus fails to obliterate
83
What is a urachal cyst?
Partial failure of the urachus to obliterate fluid-filled cavity lined with urothelium, between umbilicus and bladder
84
What is a vesicourachal diverticulum?
Outpouching of bladder
85
What is Beck's triad of cardiac tamponade?
- Pulsus paradoxus / hypotension - JVD - Muffled heart sounds
86
What are the drugs that are used in Thayer-martin agar?
Vancomycin Colistin Nystatin
87
What is the classic effect of doxycycline exposure in utero?
Discoloration of teeth
88
What are the LAME bacteria that are not susceptible to 1st generation cephalosporins?
- Listeria - atypicals - MRSA - Enterococcus
89
What are the PEcK bacteria that 1st generation cephalosporins are useful against?
- Proteus - E.coli - Klebsiella
90
What are the three 2nd generation cephalosporins ("fake fox fur")?
- cefaclor - cefoxitin - cefuroxime
91
What are the bacteria that 2nd generation cephalosporins are effective against ("HENS PEcK")
- Haemophilus - enterobacter - Neisseria - Serratia - Proteus - E.coli - Klebsiella
92
Vancomycin is only effective against what type of bacteria?
gram positive
93
What is the classic triad for Wiskott-aldrich syndrome? What is the defect in this?
Thrombocytopenia Infx Eczema WASP gene mutation inhibits reorganization of actin, leaving defective T cells, and low platelets
94
What is the treatment and back up for pneumocystis infection?
TMP-SMX Pentamidine (unknown MOA)
95
What is the function of protein A on staph aureus?
Binds Fc portion of ab, and coats itself to inhibit phagocytosis
96
What are the bugs that have IgA protease?
Strep pneumoniae HiB Neisseria
97
What is the MOA of resistance to aminoglycosides?
Acetylation
98
What is the MOA of resistance to macrolides?
Reduced permeability
99
What is the MOA of resistance to tetracyclines? (2)
- Modification of ribosomal bindings site | - Efflux pumps
100
What is the MOA of resistance to beta-lactams?
Beta lactamases
101
What is the adult derivative of the vitelline duct?
Meckel diverticulum
102
What does the allantois form in the adult?
patent duct leads to a urachal cyst, in which urine drains directly from the bladder
103
What is the effect of GH on insulin?
Antagonizes it--does not change level
104
What is the main side effect of cisplatin?
Seuronerual deafness and nephrotoxicity
105
What are the drugs that have photosensitivity as a side effect? (3, two abx and one antiarrhythmic)
Sulfonamides Amiodarone Tetracyclines
106
What is the MOA of ganciclovir?
Activated by thymidine kinase, and inhibits viral DNA polymerase
107
Do Neisseria or chlamydia have pilli?
Neisseria
108
What does the genital tubercle become in men and women?
Men = Glans + corpus cavernosum Women = Glans clitoris + Vestibular bulb
109
What does the urogenital sinus become in men and women?
Men = Bulbourethral glands + prostate Women = Greater vestibular glands + urethral and paraurethral glands
110
What does the Urogenital fold become in men and women?
Men = ventral shaft of the penis Women = Labia minora
111
What does the labioscrotal swelling tubercle become in men and women?
``` Men = Scrotum Women = Labia majora ```
112
What is the cause of hypospadias?
Failure of the urethral folds to close
113
What is the cause of epispadias?
Faulty position of genital tubercle
114
Which nucleotide has a methyl group attached?
Thymine
115
What are the three amino acids needed for purine synthesis?
Glutamate Aspartate Glycine (AGE)
116
What is the MOA and use of Zafirlukast?
Blocks leukotriene receptors | -Asthma
117
What is the MOA of zileuton? Use?
Inhibits 5-lipoxygenase and leukotriene pathway | -Asthma
118
What are the chromosomes that BRCA1 and BRCA2 are found on, respectively?
``` 1 = 17 2 = 13 ```
119
What is the chromosome that NF1 is found on? NF2?
``` 1 = 17 2= 22 ``` (neurofibromatosis has 17 letters)
120
DCC and DPC genes are located on what chromosome?
18
121
VHL is found on what chromosome?
3
122
WT1 is found on what chromosome?
11
123
What is the abx of choice for pseudomonas?
Gentamicin
124
What is the MOA, use, and classic side effect of rifampin?
- Inhibits RNA pol - TB - Red/orange urine and p450 induction
125
Where does spermatogenesis take place?
Seminiferous tubules
126
What is the route that sperm take to ejaculation (SEVEN UP)?
``` Seminiferous tubules Epididymis Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct nothing ``` Urethra Penis
127
What is the drug used to treat trypanosoma cruzi?
Nifurtimox
128
What is the major adverse effect of quinine?
QT prolongation
129
What is the MOA of griseofulvin?
Binds to alpha/beta dimers, and disrupts spindle apparatus
130
What is the effect of macrolides on the p450 system?
Inhibits
131
Direct acting sympathomimetics enter the central nervous system more or less readily than indirect?
Less
132
What is the treatment for hep C?
Pegylated IFN-alpha | -Ribavirin
133
What is the MOA of G-CSF?
Binds to a transmembrane receptor to increase growth of PMNs
134
What is the drug of choice for Neisseria? Mechanism of resistance?
Ceftriaxone | Production of a modified PBP
135
What is the mechanism of resistance to ceftriaxone?
Reduced permeability of the bacterial cell to abx
136
What is the antacid that inhibits the absorption of cipro?
CaCO3
137
What is the classic histological features of Ehrlichiosis?
Berry-like inclusions in WBCs
138
What is myotonic dystrophy? Inheritance pattern / repeat?
AD, CTG repeat, characterized by muscle wasting, cataracts, heart conduction defects, and myotonia
139
What is the MOA of aflatoxin causing hepatocellular CA?
Intercalates between DNA
140
What is the HLA haplotype that is associated with RA?
HLA-DR4
141
Where are the three neurons in the sympathetic reflex of the eye, which can be damaged to cause Horner's syndrome?
``` 1 = spinal cord 2 = Symp chain 3 = Near internal carotid ```
142
What is the MOA of ethambutol? What is the classic side effect?
- Inhibits arabinosyl transferases | - Visual defects
143
What is the MOA of Leuprolide? Use?
- GnRH analog | - Prostate CA, BPH
144
What is the MOA of flutamide? Use?
- Non-steroidal antiandrogen | - Prostate CA
145
What cancers are vincristine and vinblastine used to treat?
Lymphomas
146
What is the MOA and use of modafinil?
- Amphetamine derivative | - Narcolepsy
147
Which is more likely to lead to serotonin syndrome shortly after discontinuing an SSRI: MAOIs or TCA
MAOI
148
What is the MOA and use of tranylcypromine?
- MAOI | - Depression
149
What is the MOA and use of Sorafenib and sunitinib?
Anti-VEGF for cancers
150
What is the treatment for CLL?
Fludarabine | Ritixumab

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