Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

All the Small Things > Random Review stuff > Flashcards

Random Review stuff Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mnemonic for remembering the intermediates of the Kreb’s cycle?

A 
Citrate
Is
Kreb's
Starting
Substrate
For
Making
Oxaloacetate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the general trend of diseases that are acquired as CD4 counts decrease with HIV?

A

Under 500 = Oral/ anal infx

Under 200 = dementia

Under 100 = everything else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the drugs that act on microtubules?

A 
Mebendazole
Griseofulvin
Colchicine
Vincristine/viblastine
Paclitaxol

(“Microtubules Get Constructed Very Poorly”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the molecule that transports vesicles toward the positive end of the neuronal process?
Where is the Positive end in relation to the cell body of the neuron?

A

Kinesin

Away from the cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the molecule that transports vesicles toward the negative end of the neuronal process? Where is the negative end in relation to the cell body of the neuron?

A

Dynein

Toward cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the two veins that bleed with esophageal varices?

A

Left gastric

Azygos vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the ABCCCD ‘s of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A 
Alcohol
Beriberi
Coxsackie virus
Cocaine abuse
Chagas disease
Doxorubicin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the CAMPFIRE drugs used to treat pseudomonas?

A 
Carbapenems
Aminoglycosides
Monobactams
Polymyxins
Fluoroquinolones
thIRd and fourth gen
Extended
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the classic histological appearance of oligodendrogliomas?

A

Fried egg appearance with perinuclear halos and chicken wire capillary pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common cause of SAH?

A

Rupture of an aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common cause of subdural hemorrhage?

A

Rupture of the bridging veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the components of the ICE TIE mnemonic for the layers of fascia in the testicle?

A

Internal spermatic fascia
(transversalis fascia)

Cremasteric muscle
(Internal oblique)

External spermatic fascia
(External oblique)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 4 tumors that have psammoma bodies?

A

Papillary thyroid
Serous cystadenomas
Mesotheliomas
Meningiomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the three common causes of neonatal bacterial meningitis?

A

GBS
E. Coli
Listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the treatment for methicillin SENSITIVE staph aureus?

A

Dicloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the treatment for otitis externa 2/2 pseudomonas?

A

Piperacillin-tazobactam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are aminoglycosides used to treat?

A

Gram negative aerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the treatment for Trypanosoma cruzi?

A

Benznidazole or nifurtimox

Cruising in my Benz with a Fur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the vector for leishmania? S/sx?

A

Sandfly–HSM, spiking fevers, pancytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the MOA and use of Mirtazapine?

A

Depression

Alpha-2 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the components of the OAF mnemonic for the thenar muscles?

A
  • Opponens pollicis
  • Abductor pollicis brevis
  • Flexor pollicis brevis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the drugs that can cause agranulocytosis? (“Can Cause Pretty Major Collapse of Granulocytes”)

A 
Clozapine
Carbamazepine
PTU
Methimazole
Colchicine
Ganciclovir
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the drugs that can cause aplastic anemia? (“Can’t Make New Blood Cells Properly”)

A 
Carbamazepine
Methimazole
NSAIDs
Benzene
Chloramphenicol
PTU
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the drugs that can cause hemolytic anemia in patients with G6PD deficiency? (“hemolysis IS D PAIN”)

A 
INH
Sulfonamides
Dapsone
Primaquine
ASA
IBU
Nitrofurantoin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the three drugs that cause megaloblastic anemia? (“having a blast with PMS”)

A

Phenytoin
Methimazole
Sulfa drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the two drugs that cause a direct coombs positive hemolytic anemia?

A

PCN

Methyldopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the MOA of vinblastine? Use?

A

Binds to tubulin during the M phase, blocking polymerization of microtubules

Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the MOA and use of misoprostol?

A

Synthetic analog of prostaglandin-1 to promote uterine contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the MOA and use for azathioprine?

A

Purine analog that is activated by HGPRT, and is metabolized into 6-MP to decrease purine synthesis

Prevent organ rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the MOA and use of cladribine?

A

Purine analog that inhibits DNA polymerase that is used in the treatment of hairy cell leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the MOA and use of cytarabine? Classic side effect?

A

Pyrimidine analog that inhibits DNA polymerase

Leukemias and lymphomas

Cytarabine causes panCYTopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the MOA and use of 5-FU? Side effect?

A

Pyrimidine analog bioactivated to 5-FdUMP which covalently complexes folic acid

Colon cancer

Myelosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the drug that can increase the toxicity of 5-FU?

A

Leucocorin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the MOA, use, and side effect of methotrexate?

A

Folic acid analog that competitively inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

ALL, lymphomas, ectopic pregnancy

Hepatotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the main side effect of busulfan?

A

Pancytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the MOA of tetracyclines?

A

Bind to the 30S subunit, and prevent the binding of an aminoacyl Transfer RNA to the A site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the treatment for chlamydia infections?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the treatment for Gonorrhea infections?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the components of BEACOPP therapy for Hodgkin disease?

A 
Bleomycin
Etoposide
Adriamycin (doxorubicin)
Cyclophosphamide
Oncovin (vincristine)
Procarbazine
Prednisone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What part of the stomach is affected with H.Pylori?

A

ANtrum and body of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What part of the stomach is affected with autoimmune gastritis?

A

Body/fundus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the equation for relative risk?

A

Risk of developing disease in exposed group / risk in unexposed group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the equation for attributable risk?

A

The difference in risk between exposed and unexposed groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the equation for relative risk reduction?

A

1-RR (the proportion of risk reduction attributable to the intervention as compared to a control)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the equation for attributable risk?

A

The difference in risk between exposed and unexposed groups, divided by the risk in the unexposed group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the equation for the NNT?

A

1 / ARR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the equation for number needed to harm?

A

1/ AR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the picornaviruses (PERCH)?

A 
Polio
Echo
Rhino
Coxsackie
HAV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the paramyxoviridae viruses? (PaRaMyxoviridae) (4)

A
  • Parainfluenza
  • RSV
  • Measles / mumps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is Bartter syndrome?

A

Reabsorption defect in thick ascending limb–like loops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is Gitelman syndrome?

A

Reabsorptive defect in NaCl in DCT–lie thiazides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is Liddle syndrome?

A

Gain of function leading to increased Na reabsorption in collecting tubules (ENaC)s

Like hyperaldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is Fanconi syndrome?

A

Generalized reabsorptive defect in PCT, leading to an excretion of nearly all amino acids, glucose, HCO3 and PO4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the four key enzymes that regulate gluconeogenesis? (Pathway Produces Fresh Glucose)

A
  • Pyruvate carboxylase
  • Phosphoenolpyruvate
  • Fructose 1,6, bisphosphatase
  • Glucose-6-phosphatase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the rxn catalyzed by: pyruvate carboxylase

A

Pyruvate to OXA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the rxn catalyzed by: phosphoenolpyruvate

A

OXA to Phosphoenolpyruate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the rxn catalyzed by: fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase

A

Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate to fructose 6 phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the rxn catalyzed by: glucose 6 phosphatase

A

Glucose-6-phosphate to glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the classic adverse effect of TMP?

A

Megaloblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the MOA of sulfamethoxazole?

A

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the MOA of TMX?

A

Inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase

62
Q

What is the difference between Lipooligosaccharide in neisseria and lipopolysaccharide other gram negatives?

A

LOS lacks the O antigen

63
Q

What are the causes of ARDS? (SPARTA)

A 
Sepsis
Pancreatitis
Aspiration
uRemia
Trauma
Amniotic fluid embolus
64
Q

What is the function of I cells of the duodenum?

A

Secrete CCK in response to fatty acids in the stomach

65
Q

What is the function of S cells of the duodenum?

A

Produce Secretin in response to acid in the duodenum

66
Q

What is the function of K cells of the duodenum?

A

Secrete GIP

67
Q

What is the MOA and use of daclizumab?

A
  • Antibody against IL-2 to prevent clonal expansion of lymphocytes
  • Kidney transplants
68
Q

What are the pituitary hormones that have a similar structure to beta-hCG?

A

TSH
LH
FSH

69
Q

What side effect can be avoided by administering 5FU IV as opposed to orally?

A

Mucosal ulceration

70
Q

Why isn’t bacitracin used systemically?

A

Nephrotoxic

71
Q

What is the MOA of daptomycin?

A

Binds to the membranes of gram positive bacteria, causing rapid depolarization

72
Q

What is the MOA of bacitracin?

A

Prevents the transfer of muropeptides into the growing bacterial cell wall

73
Q

What is the MOA of metronidazole?

A

Forms free radicals that damage bacterial DNA

74
Q

What is the treatment for echinococcus granulosus?

A

Albendazole

75
Q

Why should you never drain a liver abscess of echinococcus granulosus?

A

Risk of anaphylaxis

76
Q

What is the permeability barrier to the PNS?

A

Perineurium

77
Q

Total failure of the urachus to obliterate = what defect?

A

Urine dribbling from the umbilicus

78
Q

How many umbilical arteries and veins are there?

A

2 arteries, 1 vein

79
Q

What is the function of the umbilical arteries?

A

Return deoxygenated blood from the fetal internal iliac arteries to the placenta

80
Q

What is the function of the umbilical veins?

A

Supplies oxygenated blood from the placenet to the fetus, by draining into the IVC or liver via the ductus venosus

81
Q

What does the allantois become during the third week of development?

A

Forms the urachus, to connect the fetal bladder and yolk sac

82
Q

What is a patent urachus?

A

Urachus fails to obliterate

83
Q

What is a urachal cyst?

A

Partial failure of the urachus to obliterate fluid-filled cavity lined with urothelium, between umbilicus and bladder

84
Q

What is a vesicourachal diverticulum?

A

Outpouching of bladder

85
Q

What is Beck’s triad of cardiac tamponade?

A
  • Pulsus paradoxus / hypotension
  • JVD
  • Muffled heart sounds
86
Q

What are the drugs that are used in Thayer-martin agar?

A

Vancomycin
Colistin
Nystatin

87
Q

What is the classic effect of doxycycline exposure in utero?

A

Discoloration of teeth

88
Q

What are the LAME bacteria that are not susceptible to 1st generation cephalosporins?

A
  • Listeria
  • atypicals
  • MRSA
  • Enterococcus
89
Q

What are the PEcK bacteria that 1st generation cephalosporins are useful against?

A
  • Proteus
  • E.coli
  • Klebsiella
90
Q

What are the three 2nd generation cephalosporins (“fake fox fur”)?

A
  • cefaclor
  • cefoxitin
  • cefuroxime
91
Q

What are the bacteria that 2nd generation cephalosporins are effective against (“HENS PEcK”)

A
  • Haemophilus
  • enterobacter
  • Neisseria
  • Serratia
  • Proteus
  • E.coli
  • Klebsiella
92
Q

Vancomycin is only effective against what type of bacteria?

A

gram positive

93
Q

What is the classic triad for Wiskott-aldrich syndrome? What is the defect in this?

A

Thrombocytopenia
Infx
Eczema

WASP gene mutation inhibits reorganization of actin, leaving defective T cells, and low platelets

94
Q

What is the treatment and back up for pneumocystis infection?

A

TMP-SMX

Pentamidine (unknown MOA)

95
Q

What is the function of protein A on staph aureus?

A

Binds Fc portion of ab, and coats itself to inhibit phagocytosis

96
Q

What are the bugs that have IgA protease?

A

Strep pneumoniae
HiB
Neisseria

97
Q

What is the MOA of resistance to aminoglycosides?

A

Acetylation

98
Q

What is the MOA of resistance to macrolides?

A

Reduced permeability

99
Q

What is the MOA of resistance to tetracyclines? (2)

A
  • Modification of ribosomal bindings site

- Efflux pumps

100
Q

What is the MOA of resistance to beta-lactams?

A

Beta lactamases

101
Q

What is the adult derivative of the vitelline duct?

A

Meckel diverticulum

102
Q

What does the allantois form in the adult?

A

patent duct leads to a urachal cyst, in which urine drains directly from the bladder

103
Q

What is the effect of GH on insulin?

A

Antagonizes it–does not change level

104
Q

What is the main side effect of cisplatin?

A

Seuronerual deafness and nephrotoxicity

105
Q

What are the drugs that have photosensitivity as a side effect? (3, two abx and one antiarrhythmic)

A

Sulfonamides
Amiodarone
Tetracyclines

106
Q

What is the MOA of ganciclovir?

A

Activated by thymidine kinase, and inhibits viral DNA polymerase

107
Q

Do Neisseria or chlamydia have pilli?

A

Neisseria

108
Q

What does the genital tubercle become in men and women?

A

Men = Glans + corpus cavernosum

Women = Glans clitoris + Vestibular bulb

109
Q

What does the urogenital sinus become in men and women?

A

Men = Bulbourethral glands + prostate

Women = Greater vestibular glands + urethral and paraurethral glands

110
Q

What does the Urogenital fold become in men and women?

A

Men = ventral shaft of the penis

Women = Labia minora

111
Q

What does the labioscrotal swelling tubercle become in men and women?

A 
Men = Scrotum
Women = Labia majora
112
Q

What is the cause of hypospadias?

A

Failure of the urethral folds to close

113
Q

What is the cause of epispadias?

A

Faulty position of genital tubercle

114
Q

Which nucleotide has a methyl group attached?

A

Thymine

115
Q

What are the three amino acids needed for purine synthesis?

A

Glutamate
Aspartate
Glycine

(AGE)

116
Q

What is the MOA and use of Zafirlukast?

A

Blocks leukotriene receptors

-Asthma

117
Q

What is the MOA of zileuton? Use?

A

Inhibits 5-lipoxygenase and leukotriene pathway

-Asthma

118
Q

What are the chromosomes that BRCA1 and BRCA2 are found on, respectively?

A 
1 = 17
2 = 13
119
Q

What is the chromosome that NF1 is found on? NF2?

A 
1 = 17
2= 22

(neurofibromatosis has 17 letters)

120
Q

DCC and DPC genes are located on what chromosome?

A

18

121
Q

VHL is found on what chromosome?

A

3

122
Q

WT1 is found on what chromosome?

A

11

123
Q

What is the abx of choice for pseudomonas?

A

Gentamicin

124
Q

What is the MOA, use, and classic side effect of rifampin?

A
  • Inhibits RNA pol
  • TB
  • Red/orange urine and p450 induction
125
Q

Where does spermatogenesis take place?

A

Seminiferous tubules

126
Q

What is the route that sperm take to ejaculation (SEVEN UP)?

A 
Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Vas deferens
Ejaculatory duct
nothing

Urethra
Penis

127
Q

What is the drug used to treat trypanosoma cruzi?

A

Nifurtimox

128
Q

What is the major adverse effect of quinine?

A

QT prolongation

129
Q

What is the MOA of griseofulvin?

A

Binds to alpha/beta dimers, and disrupts spindle apparatus

130
Q

What is the effect of macrolides on the p450 system?

A

Inhibits

131
Q

Direct acting sympathomimetics enter the central nervous system more or less readily than indirect?

A

Less

132
Q

What is the treatment for hep C?

A

Pegylated IFN-alpha

-Ribavirin

133
Q

What is the MOA of G-CSF?

A

Binds to a transmembrane receptor to increase growth of PMNs

134
Q

What is the drug of choice for Neisseria? Mechanism of resistance?

A

Ceftriaxone

Production of a modified PBP

135
Q

What is the mechanism of resistance to ceftriaxone?

A

Reduced permeability of the bacterial cell to abx

136
Q

What is the antacid that inhibits the absorption of cipro?

A

CaCO3

137
Q

What is the classic histological features of Ehrlichiosis?

A

Berry-like inclusions in WBCs

138
Q

What is myotonic dystrophy? Inheritance pattern / repeat?

A

AD, CTG repeat, characterized by muscle wasting, cataracts, heart conduction defects, and myotonia

139
Q

What is the MOA of aflatoxin causing hepatocellular CA?

A

Intercalates between DNA

140
Q

What is the HLA haplotype that is associated with RA?

A

HLA-DR4

141
Q

Where are the three neurons in the sympathetic reflex of the eye, which can be damaged to cause Horner’s syndrome?

A 
1 = spinal cord
2 = Symp chain
3 = Near internal carotid
142
Q

What is the MOA of ethambutol? What is the classic side effect?

A
  • Inhibits arabinosyl transferases

- Visual defects

143
Q

What is the MOA of Leuprolide? Use?

A
  • GnRH analog

- Prostate CA, BPH

144
Q

What is the MOA of flutamide? Use?

A
  • Non-steroidal antiandrogen

- Prostate CA

145
Q

What cancers are vincristine and vinblastine used to treat?

A

Lymphomas

146
Q

What is the MOA and use of modafinil?

A
  • Amphetamine derivative

- Narcolepsy

147
Q

Which is more likely to lead to serotonin syndrome shortly after discontinuing an SSRI: MAOIs or TCA

A

MAOI

148
Q

What is the MOA and use of tranylcypromine?

A
  • MAOI

- Depression

149
Q

What is the MOA and use of Sorafenib and sunitinib?

A

Anti-VEGF for cancers

150
Q

What is the treatment for CLL?

A

Fludarabine

Ritixumab

All the Small Things (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions