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OU Practice Fall 2017 > Questions > Flashcards

Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is a muscarinic agonist used to treat open angle glaucoma?

A

Isopto Carpine

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2
Q

What is a muscarinic agonist used in post-op/partum and chronic bladder conditions?

A

Urecholine

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3
Q

When should you administer Aricept?

A

evening to decrease chances of side effects

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4
Q

What is a contraindication of Aricept?

A

do not use in pt who has COPD

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5
Q

What is a muscarinic antagonist that induces mydriasis and cycloplegia?

A

Isopto Atropine

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6
Q

When should you apply Transderm-Scop and how often should you change it?

A
  • apply 4 hours prior to desired time of effect

- replace every 72 hours

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7
Q

What medication is used for Parkinsons and which class is it under?

A
  • Cogentin

- muscarinic antagonist

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8
Q

What is a precaution for Cogentin?

A
  • decreases ability to sweat

- use caution in hot weather

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9
Q

Which medication has these directions: administer 30 min before meal to decrease chances of muscle spasm

A

Bentyl

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10
Q

Hyoscyamine sulfate can be used in the ER. What is it used for?

A

spastic colon

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11
Q

What are the sig for both of hyoscyamine sulfate?

A
  • Levsin 0.125mg tab: 1-2 tab q4h prn

- Levbid: 1-2 cap q12h

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12
Q

What is used to treat overactive bladder that is dosed at 5mg tid or 5mg XL daily?

A

Ditropan

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13
Q

What is the sig for Detrol and Detrol LA?

A
  • 2 mg tab bid

- 4 mg LA cap daily

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14
Q

Which class is Atrovent a part of?

A

anticholinergic

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15
Q

What are the two classes that the combination drug Combivent consist of?

A

anticholinergic + beta 2 agonist

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16
Q

Under which conditions should you use ipratropium + albuterol?

A

to treat bronchospasm where a bronchodilator is not enough

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17
Q

What is an important counseling point when dispensing Spiriva?

A

rinse mouth and spit to avoid dry mouth

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18
Q

What is the sig for Tudorza?

A

inhale one puff every 12 hours

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19
Q

Which drugs make up the beta-1 agonist?

A
  • dopamine

- Dobutrex

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20
Q

Which drug is used in hemodynamic imbalances?

A

dopamine

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21
Q

Which drug is used for cardiac decompensation?

A

Dobutrex

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22
Q

Which drug is used in Parkinson?

A

Sinemet

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23
Q

What are the sig for Sinemet and Sinemet CR?

A
  • Sinemet: individualized; start 25/100 tid

- CR: individualized; start 50/200 bid

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24
Q

Which alpha-1 agonist is used for ocular vasoconstriction and also topical nasal decongestant?

A
  • naphazoline

- oxymetazoline

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25
Q

What is an important counseling point for alpha-1 agonists?

A

limit use to 3 days due to rebound congestion

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26
Q

What is the max dose of Sudafed?

A

60mg Q4-6H

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27
Q

Which alpha agonist is also a beta agonist?

A

epinephrine

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28
Q

Which alpha-2 agonist inhibits central sympathetic outflow?

A

Catapress

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29
Q

T/F You can get orthostatiac hypotension with Catapress.

A

True

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30
Q

Which medication is used to treat glaucoma by decreasing aqueous humor production and stimulate outflow?

A

Alphagan P

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31
Q

T/F Before administering other eye drops after administering Alphagan P, you must wait 3 minutes.

A

F; wait 5 minutes

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32
Q

What can you used for exercise induced asthma?

A
  • beta-2 agonist
  • Serevent Diskus (DPI)
  • Xopenex
  • Proventil
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33
Q

What is one thing to keep in mind when dispensing Serevent Diskus?

A

must be dispensed with corticosteroid

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34
Q

T/F Foradil is a DPI that must be refrigerated upon patient pickup.

A

F; Foradil is an aerolizer that had capsules for inhalation

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35
Q

T/F; Xopenex is an S-isomer of alubterol.

A

F; it’s an R-isomer

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36
Q

Which medication is used as a tocolytic agent to relax uterine smooth muscle associated with preterm labor?

A

Brethine

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37
Q

Which beta agonist is used to treat overactive bladder?

A

Myrbetriq

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38
Q

Which medication potentiates activity of NE and 5HT by blocking their reuptake?

A

Elavil

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39
Q

T/F; Pamelor can be taken 150mg daily.

A

T

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40
Q

What is the correct way to dose Tofranil for children?

A

2.5mg/kg/day; anything over will cause cardiotoxicity

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41
Q

In adults, what is Tofranil used for?

A

depression

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42
Q

In children, what is Tofranil used for?

A

prevent bed wetting in children

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43
Q

Which medication is a nonselective monoamine oxidase inhibitor?

A

Nardil

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44
Q

What is an important counseling point for Nardil?

A

food restriction: tyramine

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45
Q

Besides Flomax, when should you administer alpha-1 antagonists and why?

A
  • at bedtime
  • minimize side effects
  • avoid first dose syncope
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46
Q

Which alpha-1 antagonist can you NOT use for BPH?

A

Minipress

47
Q

What is an important counseling point when dispensing Lopressor?

A

take with food to enhance absorption

48
Q

T/F Take Lopressor with food to minimize side effects.

A

F; take with food to increase absorption

49
Q

T/F If metoprolol tartrate is dosed at 12.5-25mg QD, it is used for CHF.

A

F; that’s for metoprolol succinate

50
Q

T/F Toprol 25mg is used for angina pectoris

A

F

  • 12.5-25mg QD : CHF
  • 25-100mg QD : HTN
  • 100mg QD : angina pectoris
51
Q

What is used for glaucoma that would be contraindicated in someone who has asthma?

A
  • Timoptic

- Cosopt

52
Q

What is the difference in the sig for Betoptic compared to Timoptic?

A
  • Betoptic: 1-2 gtts in affected eye(s) bid

- Timoptic: 1 gtt in affected eye(s) bid

53
Q

T/F Tenormin can be used for different reasons depending on the dose.

A

True

  • 50-100mg QD : HTN
  • 50-200mg QD : angina pectoris
54
Q

What is an important counseling when dispensing Coreg?

A

take with food to decrease chances of side effects

55
Q

What is the drug of last resort to treat hypertension?

A

riserpine

56
Q

What is the MOA of riserpine?

A

depletes stores of cathecholamine and 5HT

57
Q

What is used for digestive hyperimmune diseases?

A

Cortenema

58
Q

What is used for patients who to not produce cortisone?

A

Cortef

59
Q

Which drug is available as a systemic injectible and is used for an endocrine and inflammatory disorders?

A

Solu-Cortef

60
Q

Which steroid must be tapered?

A

Deltasone

61
Q

Which medication is also available as a topical foam?

A

Celestone

62
Q

What are the different strengths of Flovent MDI?

A
  • 44 mcg
  • 110 mcg
  • 220 mcg
63
Q

Advaid and Smybicort are both steroids + long acting beta 2 agonists. What can they be used for?

A
  • chronic treatment of asthma

- COPD

64
Q

What is the only steroid that has a nebulizer solution?

A

budesonide

65
Q

Which medication can have the following sig: 40/320 mcg inhale BID?

A

Qvar

66
Q

What is a monitoring parameter for Florinef?

A

watch for edema

67
Q

Which drug is given due to edema caused by cirrhosis?

A

Aldactone

68
Q

Which drug has the following directions?

  • 4mg qpm age 2-5
  • 10mg qpm age >= 15
A

Singulair

69
Q

What is an important counseling point when dispensing Accolate?

A

take on empty stomach

70
Q

What is an important counseling point when dispensing Zyflo?

A

take with food to help absorb drug

71
Q

What is a monoclonal antibody that can be used for persistent allergic asthma?

A

Xolair

72
Q

How often should Xolair be given?

A

every 2-4 weeks depending on IgE level

73
Q

What is a monoclonal antibody that can be used for severe eosinophilic asthma?

A

Nucala

74
Q

How often should Nucala be given?

A

100mg SQ Q4weeks

75
Q

Which drug can be used for open angle glaucoma and can cause brown pigmentation of the iris?

A
  • Xalatan
  • Lumigan
  • Travatan
76
Q

What conditions can bimatoprost be used for ?

A
  • 0.01%: open angle glaucoma

- 0.03%: Latisse

77
Q

What class is -oprost a part of?

A

prostaglandin analogues

78
Q

What are the precautions of NSAIDs?

A
  • heart disease
  • hypertension
  • renal impairment
  • gastrointestinal irritation
79
Q

What are important counseling points when dispensing NSAIDs?

A
  • take with food to minimize irritation

- avoid alcohol

80
Q

Which medication is used for the treatment of patent ductus arteriosis?

A

Indocin

81
Q

Which NSAID has a half life of 50 hours and can therefore be taken once a day?

A

Feldene

82
Q

What is an advantage with Mobic?

A

it affects Cox2 more than Cox1 = less GI problems

83
Q

Which NSAID has more effect on Cox2 than Cox1 and can be used for acute or chronic pain depending on if it’s IR or XL?

A

Lodine

84
Q

Which drug is a prodrug that is given 500-2000 mg/day split in 1-2 doses?

A

Relafen

85
Q

Which drug is used for arthritis and is contraindicated in patients with a sulfonamide allergy?

A

Celebrex

86
Q

What is used for the treatment of arthritis in patients at high risk of NSAID-induced ulcers?

A

Arthrotec

87
Q

What are common adverse effects of narcotics?

A
  • nausea
  • drowsiness
  • dizziness (narcosis)
  • constipation if used regularly
88
Q

What is the brand name of the narcotic that causes increased risk of bleeding-related concerns?

A

Vicoprofen®

89
Q

Which narcotic should you avoid with history of opioid addiction?

A

tramadol

90
Q

Which combination product is a mu opioid receptor agonist?

A

Ultracet

91
Q

Which CII is used for treatment of narcotic addiction?

A

methadone

92
Q

Which narcotic gets metabolized into a toxic metabolite?

A

meperidine

93
Q

Why should we avoid use of meperidine in elderly or renal impairment?

A

seizure risk

94
Q

Which narcotic opioid analgesic-antagonist is used for physical withdrawal symptoms?

A
  • Stadol

- generic: butorphanol

95
Q

Which combination narcotic product is an agonist-antagonist?

A
  • Talwin Nx®

- pentazocine / naloxone

96
Q

Which combination product is used for opioid dependence?

A
  • Suboxone®

- buprenorphine / naloxone

97
Q

What medication is used as an adjunct in seizure disorders and is highly renally excreted?

A

Neurontin

98
Q

Which medication is used for trigeminal neuralgia and induces enzymes?

A
  • Tegretol/XR®

- carbamazepine

99
Q

With Nicoderm CQ®, if someone smokes more than a half a pack a day, which dose would they be start on?

A

21 mcg

100
Q

How many times should you use Nicorette® gum for it to be successful?

A

9

101
Q

For this NRT, if patient has not quit within 12 weeks, it’s probably not working.

A

Chantix®

102
Q

For this NRT, if patient has not quit within 7 weeks, it’s probably not working.

A

Zyban®

103
Q

Which antiemetic is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist?

A

Zofran

104
Q

This antiemetic is used for both chemotherapy and post-operative induced N / V

A

Zofran

105
Q

Which antiemetic is also an antihistamine?

A

Phenergan

106
Q

This antiemetic can cause risk of fatal respiratory depression for children under 2 years of age

A

Phenergan

107
Q

Which antiemetic is a antipsychotic?

A

Compazine

108
Q

Which antiemetic has an adverse effect of abnormal muscle tone with prolonged use?

A
  • Compazine

- Reglan

109
Q

Which antiemetic inhibits dopamine activity?

A

Reglan

110
Q

Which antiemetic is a pre-motility agent? *note: take 30 min before eating

A

Reglan

111
Q

Which antiemetic is used for diabetic gastroparesis?

A

Reglan

112
Q

Which antiemetic is an anti-vertigo agent, antihistamine, and anticholinergic?

A
  • Antivert

- meclizine

113
Q

This anti-diarrheal agent has a max of 4 tablets per day.

A

Imodium AD®

114
Q

This anti-diarrheal agent can cause drowsiness and dry mouth.

A

Lomotil®

OU Practice Fall 2017 (26 decks)

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