Question bank random mix (part 2)

Question 1

What electrolyte imbalance do thiazide diuretics cause?

Answer 1

hypercalcaemia

Question 2

what change can macrolides (eg clarithromycin) cause on ECG?

Answer 2

Prolonged QT

Question 3

what are the rules for tetanus cover following a potentially tetanus prone wound

Answer 3

• if patient has had all childhood vaccines with the last dose less than 10 year ago then no need for any cover
• otherwise give tetanus booster and add immunoglobulin if high risk wound (very contaminated, dying tissue, surgery needed)

Question 4

what is a marjolin ulcer

Answer 4

a squamous cell carcinoma occuring at sites of chronic inflammation or previous injury

Question 5

what are the features of acute angle closure glaucoma

Answer 5

severe pain, decreased visual acuity, semi-dilated pupil, hazy cornea

Question 6

management of aspirin overdose within 1 hour

Answer 6

activated charcoal

Question 7

which tumour marker is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?

Answer 7

serum alpha fetoprotein

Question 8

what clinical sign can often be found in patients with obstructive sleep apnoea?

Answer 8

hypertension

Question 9

after how long do seizures typically occur in alcohol withdrawl?

Answer 9

24-48hrs (peak at 36hrs)

Question 10

when does delirium tremens usually occur in alcohol withdrawl?

Answer 10

48- 72hrs later

Question 11

what is first line management of alcohol withdrawl

Answer 11

long acting benzodiazepine ie chlordiazepoxide or diazepam

Question 12

what are the causes of hyponatraemia in a patient who is euvolemic?

Answer 12

SIADH, hypothyroidism

Question 13

what are the causes of hyponatraemia in a patient who is hypovolemic?

Answer 13

diuretics, addisons, renal failure

Question 14

what is the management of infectious mononucleosis?

Answer 14

supportive + avoid contact sports for 4 weeks

Question 15

what is the managment of a severe UC flare?

Answer 15

Admit for IV steroids

Question 16

what is the management of a tympanic membrane perforation?

Answer 16

• self resolving after 6-8 weeks + keep dry

- oral antibiotics if perforation following acute otitis media

Question 17

how do you manage acute dystonia secondary to antiphyschotics?

Answer 17

procyclidine

Question 18

what is the first line management of bilateral nasal polyps?

Answer 18

intranasal steroid spray or drops and routine referral to ENT

Question 19

what cause of gastroenteritis can precipitate lactose intolerance?

Answer 19

giardiasis

Question 20

what is the most common type of inherited colorectal cancer?

Answer 20

hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma

Question 21

what is a quick and easy bedside test to preform to confirm a nasal fluid leak is CSF

Answer 21

check for glucose

Question 22

what are the first and second line investigations for acute mesenteric ischemia?

Answer 22

1st - lactate (will be raised)

2nd - CT angio

Question 23

what electrolyte abnormality is associated with PPIs

Answer 23

hypomagnesia

Question 24

what is a useful test of exocrine function in chronic pancreatitis?

Answer 24

faecal elastase

Question 25

what cardiac arrest rhythm will tension pneumothorax cause

Answer 25

PEA

Question 26

what are the features of horner’s sydrome?

Answer 26

• ptosis
• miosis
• anhidrosis (no sweating to one side of face)

Question 27

what is the management of familial hypercholestrolaemia?

Answer 27

high dose statin, management from lipid clinic, test all primary relatives (children from age 10) `

Question 28

which vaccines are live attenuated

Answer 28

• BCG
• MMR
• intranasal influenxa
• oral rotavirus
• oral polio
• yellow fever
• oral typhoid

Question 29

what is the cause of kaposi’s sarcoma?

Answer 29

HHV-8 (herpes type 8)

Question 30

how does kaposi’s sarcoma present

Answer 30

purple bullae type rash on skin and mucosa

haemoptysis and pleural effusion

Question 31

what disease is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma?

Answer 31

HIV

Question 32

what is the management of Kaposi’s sarcoma?

Answer 32

radiotherapy and resection

Question 33

how does central cord syndrome present?

Answer 33

upper limb weakness (corticospinal) and loss of upper limb pain and temperature (spinothalamic)

cape like pattern

Question 34

what are the common causes of central cord syndrome?

Answer 34

trauma (hyperextension cervical injury), tumours of spinal cord, syringohydromyelgia

Question 35

how does anterior cord syndrome present?

Answer 35

upper and lower limb weakness (corticospinal) and loss of upper and lower limb pain and temperature (spinothalamic) below level of issue

Question 36

what are the common causes of anterior cord syndrome?

Answer 36

anterior spinal artery ischemia

Question 37

how does brown-sequard syndrome present?

Answer 37

ipsilateral loss of motor + fine touch and vibration (dorsal column sensory loss) and contralateral loss of pain and temperature (spinothalamic)

Question 38

what is the common cause of brown-sequard syndrome?

Answer 38

stab injuries