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A320 > Progress Tests > Flashcards

Progress Tests Flashcards

1
Q

On the OHP, what is signified by a blue light?

A

Normal, but temporary, use of a system.

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2
Q

Regarding the lights on the OHP, what does a WHITE light signify?

A

Abnormal Switch Position

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3
Q

Where in the cockpit are the Secondary Circuit Breakers installed?

A

Right rear corner

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4
Q

What is a RED OEB?

A

Non-compliance with recommended procedures that may have a significant impact on safe operation. Operators shall provide all flight crews with these OEBs or their content without delay

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5
Q

What is the maximum runway slope?

A

2%

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6
Q

What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff?

A

10kts

*one rego VWT has 15kts.

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7
Q

What is the maximum ground speed? (Tire)

A

195kt

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8
Q

What is the maximum service ceiling for the A320?

A

39 800ft

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9
Q

From which panel are the Water and Waste systems controlled?

A

FAP (Forward Attendant Panel)

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10
Q

The red light on an entry/service door will flash if:

A

The cabin is still pressurised and both engines are shut down with slides disarmed

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11
Q

When are escape slides at the overwing exits armed?

A

Permanently armed

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12
Q

What is the maximum Wind Speed for opening a cockpit window?

A

200kt

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13
Q

What is the maximum Wind Speed for opening a cabin door?

A

65kt

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14
Q

What is the altitude limitation if there is NO crack on cockpit side (inner ply) in event of Windshield crack?

A

No limitation.

If cracked FL230

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15
Q

Which cockpit lighting is available when only the batteries are powering the aircraft?

A

Right-hand dome light (FO side)

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16
Q

During the approach phase with all the exterior lights selected ON, which lights will not illuminate until the L/G is extended?

A

-taxi and takeoff lights
-runway turnoff lights

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17
Q

With the white strobe light switch at AUTO, when will the lights operate?

A

When the main gear strut is not compressed

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18
Q

For aircraft equipped with electrical escape paths or electrical exit markers, internal batteries supply electrical power for?

A

At least 12 min

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19
Q

Following the use of an oxygen mask, how is the boom mic re-established?

A

By closing the left door of the storage box and then pressing the TEST slide.

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20
Q

Following the use of an oxygen mask, how is the boom mix re-established?

A

By closing the left door of the storage box and then pressing the TEST slide.

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21
Q

Where is the CREW pb switch situated that controls the oxygen supply solenoid valve?

A

On the overhead panel.

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22
Q

At what cabin pressure altitude do the oxygen mask drop automatically?

A

14000ft

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23
Q

What is the crew and what is the passenger oxygen provide by?

A

Crew- an oxygen cylinder.

Passenger- a chemical oxygen generator system.

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24
Q

Above what cabin altitude will the crew oxygen masks automatically supply overpressure regardless of the Emergency Pressure selector position?

A

Cabin Altitude exceeds 30000 ft

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25
Q

In column 4 of MEL, what is indicated by (O) and (M)?

A

(O)- The crew must perform an operational procedure.

(M)- A maintenance procedure must be performed.

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26
Q

After a single DMC failure, how would a crew member recover the display units?

A

Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3.

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27
Q

On the ECAM Control panel, what is the purpose of the RCL button?

A

Display suppressed warnings and cautions on the ECAM.

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28
Q

If only one ECAM DU is operative, how is an advisory brought to the attention of the crew?

A

ADV is displayed on the EWD: the associated ECP button flashes.

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29
Q

When is the STS SD called up automatically (other than during an ECAM drill)?

A

‐ The STATUS page is not empty, and the flight crew clears the last alert on the E/WD

-The STATUS page is not empty, and the flight crew selects the CONF1 for approach.

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30
Q

What is signified by IDLE (green) being displayed between the N1 (CFM) or EPR (IAE) gauges?

A

Both engines are at IDLE speed and the aircraft is in flight.

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31
Q

What is the significance of “T/O INHIBIT” being displayed in the MEMO’s

A

Most warning and caution messages will be suppressed during takeoff and climb to 1500ft.

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32
Q

What happens when an ADVISORY is triggered?

A

The associated SD is automatically displayed.

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33
Q

During the Take OFF roll, which page is displayed on the S.D?

A

ENG

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34
Q

What indication follows a level 3 warning?

A

Continuous Repetitive Chime or specific sound or voice. Plus, Master Warning flashing red plus red warning message.

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35
Q

An excessive ILS deviation is indicated by?

A

LOC and G/S scale indications flash continually. Only half a symbol appears at the end of the scale.

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36
Q

What happens at N2>43% (IAE) during an automatic start?

A

The igniter(s) goes OFF and the Start Valve closes.

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37
Q

During a MAN ENG START, when does the start valve automatically close?

A

43% N2

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38
Q

During an autostart when does the highlighted gray box around the N2 indication disappear?

A

When the START sequence has ended.

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39
Q

During ENG START, when will the FADEC be powered?

A

MODE SEL to START

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40
Q

During a Manual Start, what does pressing the MAN START switch on overhead panel do?

A

It opens the start valve only.

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41
Q

On the Engine Panel, what is indicated by an illuminated FAULT light?

A

An AUTO START has been aborted.

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42
Q

Are crank actions shown on ECAM for Manual ENG Start Fault?

A

No- there is no crew awareness message to indicate the reason for the extended motoring.

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43
Q

How can the pilot carryout a manual Engine Crank procedure?

A

Turn the MODE SEL to CRANK, and use the associated MAN START switch on overhead panel to OPEN the START valve.

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44
Q

When is maximum reverse permitted?

A

Not below 70kt. Idle reverse is permitted down to aircraft stop.

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45
Q

Thrust reversers are actuated by:

A

Hydraulic actuators: green for engine 1, yellow for engine 2

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46
Q

(IAE) What is the maximum continuous oil temperature?

A

155deg

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47
Q

(IAE) Maximum EGT during engine start is:

A

635 deg

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48
Q

The APU has been switched OFF, but the AVAIL light remains illuminated. Why could this happen?

A

If the aircraft was using APU bleed air, the APU keeps running for a cooling period of 60 to 120 s

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49
Q

In ELEC-EMER CONFIG, APU start is limited to?

A

25,000 feet or below.

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50
Q

When the APU is running, the APU fuel pump:

A

Runs when inner wing tank pump pressure is not sufficient

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51
Q

What is the minimum fuel quantity for takeoff:

A

1500 Kg

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52
Q

Why do the center tank pumps stop automatically when the slats are extended for takeoff:

A

To ensure that the engines are fed from the wing tanks for takeoff and landing.

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53
Q

Fuel transfer from the outer wing tank to the inner wing tank occurs when the inner tank quantity decreases to:

A

750 Kg

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54
Q

If both transfer valves on one side fail:

A

The outer tank quantity is boxed amber on the ECAM fuel page

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55
Q

Regarding fuel recirculation, When Wing Tank is underfull?

A

CTR Tank pumps restart.

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56
Q

When is the PTU inhibited?

A

-for 40 seconds after the end of cargo door operation.
-during first engine start.
-only one ENG master sw ON with parking brake ON.

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57
Q

When will a white squib light illuminate on the fire panel?

A

When the FIRE pb is released out. (Helps the crew identify the AGENT pb to be activated).

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58
Q

What is the difference between an APU fire in flight and on the ground?

A

Ground- APU automatically shuts down, and the extinguisher bottle discharges automatically.

Flight- flight crew controls the discharge of the fire extinguisher bottle from the FIRE panel in the cockpit.

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59
Q

How do you achieve a full test of the APU fire detection and extinguishing system on the ground?

A

Requires AC power.

If the fire test is performed on ground with only batteries to supply the electrical network, both of the following apply:

‐ The SQUIB light and DISCH light come on, without ECAM warnings
‐ The red APU FIRE pb-sw light partially comes on, as one of the sets of bulbs is not electrically available.

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60
Q

What does an Agent DISCH (amber) indicate?

A

Corresponding fire extinguisher bottle has lost pressure.

61
Q

Where are the engine fire detectors located?

A

On the pylon, fan and core

62
Q

The ENG1 (2) FIRE Light remains illuminated until:

A

The fire is extinguished.

63
Q

On the HYDRAULICS system, what happens automatically after 1st engine start?

A

The BLUE electrical pump runs

64
Q

What is the normal operating pressure of the RAT?

A

2500psi

65
Q

Which of the following systems have hydraulic fluid shut-off valves?

A

Green and yellow.

  • in its line upstream of its engine-driven pump. Close by pushing the ENG 1(2) FIRE pushbutton.
66
Q

Where does the hydraulic reservoir pressurisation air come from?

A

ENG 1 dedicated bleed or any other available pneumatic source.

(HP bleed air from engine 1 pressurizes the hydraulic reservoirs automatically.
If the bleed air pressure is too low, the system takes bleed air pressure from the crossbleed duct.)

67
Q

Prior to engine start it is possible to pressurise the green hydraulic system by:

A

Use of the yellow electric pump and the PTU

68
Q

The PTU comes into action automatically when the differential pressure between the GREEN and the YELLOW systems is greater than ……………PSI:

A

500psi

69
Q

Following TR1 failure, which TR supplies which bus?

A

ESS TR supplies the DC ESS BUS.

70
Q

What would cause the RAT to auto-extend?

A

Loss of AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 when at more than 100 kts IAS.

71
Q

What happens when the Gen 1 line P/B is selected to off?

A

AC Bus 1 is powered by Gen 2 because Gen 1 line contactor is open

72
Q

If AC bus 1 fails, the AC ESS bus is supplied by the:

A

AC BUS 2
*auto switching (if equipped) or by setting the AC ESS FEED pb-sw to ALTN

73
Q

Which spoilers deploy if takeoff rejected above 72kts?

A

All 10 plus aileron droop.

74
Q

Which protections are available in NORMAL LAW?

A

All 5:
-pitch attitude protection
-load factor protection
-high speed protection
-high angle of attack protection
-bank angle protection

75
Q

In alternate law, what is the lowest speed achievable?

A

Less than VSW (will stall)

76
Q

Can high and low speed stability be overridden by the sidestick?

A

Yes

77
Q

The aircraft is at 5000ft, 250kts, straight and level, autopilot off, hands and feet off.
If TOGA is applied, at what speed will the aircraft eventually stabilise?

A

VMO

78
Q

What causes reversion to mechanical backup? How is the aircraft now flown?

A

Used to manage a temporary and total electrical loss, the temporary loss of five fly-by-wire computers, the loss of both elevators, or the total loss of ailerons and spoilers.

Flown using the THS and RUDDER.

79
Q

Following selection of FLAP 1 during the acceleration following a go around, what is the resulting config?

A

CONFIG 1+F

80
Q

In flight, with Config 1 selected, what is represented by amber = on the speed strip?

A

The maximum speed for selecting FLAP 2.

81
Q

The aircraft has achieved, and is maintaining, a constant high alpha, which has caused speedbrake auto-retraction: how can the speedbrakes be extended again?

A

By reducing the alpha, retracting the speedbrakes lever, waiting 10 seconds, then extending the lever.

82
Q

What is the maximum bank angle when High Speed Protection is active? (Hands on and hands off)

A

40 deg (full sidestick deflection) and 0 deg (side stick neutral)

83
Q

What is signified by MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY on the FMA?

A

The aircraft is in Mechanical Back-Up.

84
Q

A-LOCK (green) is pulsing above the Flap/Slat indicator on the EWD: what does this signify?

A

Slats will not retract from 1 to 0 due to high alpha: to retract them, reduce the
alpha.

85
Q

In NORMAL LAW, what occurs prior to the flare?

A

At 50 feet the stabiliser freezes: at 30 feet, a nose down order is introduced.

86
Q

Regarding WTB, do flaps and slats have seperate systems?

A

Yes

87
Q

Roll control is achieved using which flight control surfaces?

A

2 ailerons and 8 spoilers

88
Q

Where does the side stick priority red arrow illuminate?

A

In front of the pilot losing authority

89
Q

How are the flight control surfaces activated and controlled?

A

Hydraulically actuated and electrically controlled

90
Q

Which protection is available in Alternate Law?

A

Load Factor Protection

91
Q

What happens to flaps and slats when SFCC 1 fails?

A

Flaps and slats operate at half speed

92
Q

In alternate law, the change to direct law occurs when:

A

Landing gear down

93
Q

How is auto braking activated?

A

LO or MED: The command for ground spoilers extension is detected

MAX: The command for ground spoilers extension is detected, and the wheel speed is above 40 kt,

94
Q

After GRAVITY EXTENSION, do the gear doors close?
Can emergency extension system be reset in flight?

A

No- gear doors remain open.

The flight crew can reset the emergency extension system in flight after using it for training (if green hydraulic pressure is available).

95
Q

When is auto braking activated?

A

MAX: aborted takeoff, max pressure to brakes, as soon as system generates the ground spoiler deployment order

MED: progressive pressure to the brakes 2 s after the ground spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at 3 m/s² (LO same but 2 m/s²)

96
Q

What causes the DECEL light to illuminate?

A

Achievement of 80% of the selected deceleration rate.

97
Q

What is the sequence of events when Gravity Extension of the gear is performed?

A

Cutoff valve closes, then the doors unlock, then the gear unlocks.

98
Q

The Landing Gear Indicator Panel (on the Center Instrument Panel) is connected to which LGCIU?

A

LGCIU1 only- the lights on the LDG GEAR indicator panel come on as long as the LGCIU1 is electrically supplied.

99
Q

Which hydraulic power system operates the alternate braking system?

A

Yellow system and Yellow hydraulic accumulator

100
Q

During landing, you realise the aircraft is not slowing down…what are the correct initial actions?

A

Reverse MAX
brake pedals release
A/SKID and N/W STRG OFF.

101
Q

What are the combined correct initial actions of the Crew in event of a Rejected Take Off at 100kts?

A

Call “STOP”: REVERSE – MAX: monitor braking

102
Q

An EMERGENCY CALL, from the cabin to the flight deck will trigger on the flight deck?

A

Three buzzer sounds, and illuminate the CALL and ON/ATT lights.

103
Q

Which air supplies can be used simultaneously?

A

Engines 1 & 2

104
Q

What normally provides bleed leak detection for the APU bleed system?

A

BMC1

105
Q

Which equipment controls the bleed output temperature to 200ºC?

A

A FAN AIR VALVE and a PRECOOLER.

106
Q

With the Cross-Bleed Selector in AUTO, what happens to X Bleed Valve and Eng Bleed Valve when APU bleed valve is open?

A

X bleed valve opens and the ENG bleed valves close.

107
Q

Is WAI allowed if Only One Bleed system is operating and both PACKs are ON?

A

NO, at least one pack must be off

108
Q

In case of dual FMGC failure, selection of radio navigation frequencies is possible with:

A

RMP 1 and 2 only

109
Q

Which information is used in order to produce the EGPWS display?

A

An EGPWS database and FM1 position.

110
Q

What does the Terrain Clearance Floor use in order to generate a “TOO LOW TERRAIN” message?

A

A database dedicated to a particular runway.

111
Q

If ILS 2 receiver fails, where can ILS 1 displays be seen?

A

PFD 1 and ND 2

112
Q

What could be the significance of an ALIGN light flashing on ADIRS panel?

A

-The IR alignment fault
‐ No present position entry after 10 min
-difference between position at shutdown and entered position exceeds 1 ° of latitude or longitude.

113
Q

What does a triple click mean during an ILS approach?

A

Landing capability down grading warning

114
Q

If the TERRAIN ON ND pushbutton is switched OFF what happens if a Terrain awareness warning or caution is generated?

A

The system switches on automatically: the terrain display sweeps from the centre outwards.

115
Q

What are the correct initial actions following a “WINDSHEAR” warning after V1 during take-off?

A

TOGA thrust: Reaching VR - Rotate : SRS – follow.

116
Q

Following a GPWS “TOO LOW GEAR” warning, what are the correct initial actions?

A

Perform a go-around

117
Q

What is the correct immediate pitch attitude and thrust guidance in the event of unreliable IAS indications above THRUST RED ALT at FL 80?

A

10º / CLB

118
Q

What are the correct initial actions on receipt of a TCAS “CLIMB” message?

A

A/P OFF: Both FD’s OFF: V/S to green area on PFD.

119
Q

What are immediate actions for STALL RECOVERY?

A

NOSE DOWN : WINGS LEVEL

120
Q

In even of STALL WARNING AT LIFT-OFF, what will be the correct initial actions?

A

TOGA : PITCH ATTITUDE - 15: WINGS LEVEL

121
Q

On which MCDU page, can aircraft position accuracy be checked?

A

PROG

122
Q

Where does ISIS receives its information?

A

ADIRU 1 or 3.

123
Q

If ADIRU 2 fails, the correct action is:

A

Set ATT HDG and Air Data Selectors to F/O 3

124
Q

Selection of the NAV key(on RMP) engage the radio navigation back up mode. If RMP 1 NAV key is pressed can navaids be tuned from RMP2?

A

No- Setting one RMP to NAV backup mode removes navaids tuning from both FMGCs.

125
Q

What is meant by CHECK ATT (amber) on the PFD’s?

A

Both PFD’s show different attitudes: check ISIS in order to identify failed system.

126
Q

In “ELEC-EMER CONFIG”, which navaids can be tuned?

A

All number 1 (vor1 etc)

127
Q

How long does a normal and fast IRS Alignment take?

A

Normal- 10 minutes
Fast- 30 seconds

128
Q

When does the amber ON BAT light on the ADIRS panel illuminate?

A

Batteries supply at least one ADIRU. Also comes on for a few seconds at the beginning of a complete IRS alignment. Does not come on in the case of a fast alignment.

129
Q

If both lanes of ACSC 1 have failed, is PACK 2 affected?

A

Yes- as hot air valve is lost all trim valves are inoperative.

130
Q

When the Ram Air switch is selected to ON, when will the Ram Air Valve open?

A

It will open only when pressure differential is less than 1.0 psi.

131
Q

In the event of sudden depressurisation at FL 300 due to structural failure, what will be the correct initial actions?

A

Emer Descent – Initiate, if A/THR is off THR LEVERS - IDLE

132
Q

What happens to pack flow if the APU is supplying both PACK’s?

A

Both PACK’s go to HI flow irrespective of the selected rate.

133
Q

Which computers modulate the Trim Air Valves?

A

ACSC 1 and 2.

134
Q

Are RAM AIR inlet flaps closed or open on takeoff or landing?

A

Closed during T/O and open on landing below 70 kts

135
Q

What is the Normal Max Cabin altitude?

A

8000 ft

136
Q

What is the Max negative differential pressure for the cabin?

A

-1 PSI

137
Q

What happens to the pack flow control valves during engine start (Eng Mode selector to ING/START)?

A

They automatically close.

138
Q

When will the LDG ELEV Fault trigger?

A

When the LDG ELEV selector is set to AUTO and the landing field elevation of the FMGS is not available.

139
Q

Cabin pressurisation begins:

A

With application of take-off power

140
Q

What happens when the BLOWER is selected to OVERRIDE?

A

Blower Fan stops + Close config + air conditioning air added

141
Q

What happens when the Extract is selected to OVERRIDE?

A

Extract Fan keeps running + Close config + air conditioning air added

142
Q

What happens when the Extract and Blower is selected to OVERRIDE?

A

Extract Fan keeps running + Blower Fan Stops + Intermediate config + air
conditioning air added

143
Q

Whilst in flight, at HIGH SKIN AIR temperature. In which configuration will the AVIONICS VENT be in

A

INTERMEDIATE

144
Q

What happens if WING ANTI-ICE is selected ON when taxying for take-off?

A

The Wing anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds only and on lift off, the valves will re-open.

145
Q

If a WING or ENG anti-ice valve loses electrical power, which of the following statements is true?

A

WING valves CLOSE: ENG valves OPEN

146
Q

Following landing, in heavy rain, what is (are) the first action(s) to protect the avionics vent. system from water entry?

A

EXTRACT valve to OVRD.

147
Q

Is the rain repellent system is with engines shutdown?

A

No- inhibited with a/c on the ground and both engines shutdown

148
Q

What constitutes “icing conditions”?

A

OAT (on ground or after takeoff) or the TAT (in flight) is at or below 10 °C and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of 1 sm (1 600 m) or less, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals).

A320 (29 decks)

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