Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

YEAR 4 > Prep 5 > Flashcards

Prep 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What disease is polymyalgia theumatica linked with

A

GCA/temporal arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Obese 32 year old woman tripped on the kerb with eversion of her right foot, displaced fracture of medial malleolus and fracture of the fibula above the level of the tibio-fibular joint

A

ORIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

back pain and red eye

A

anterior uveitis associated with ank spond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

mid dilated pupil and red eye

A

acute closed angle glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

violaceous and painful eye

A

scleritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Contact lens wearer has pain and decreased VA

A

corneal ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

painful red eye and mid dilated pupil

A

ACAG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

investigation of orbital cellulitis

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

painful eye movement

A

optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HLA B27

A

Ank spond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

rapd

A

light swung from unnafected eye to affected eye and pupil appears to dilate (due to lessened constriction)
lesions anterior to the optic chiasm (optic nerve- optic neuritis or retina- retinal detachment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

painless loss of vision flashes and floaters

A

retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

arcuate scotoma

A

glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

side effects of gentamicin

A

ototoxicity (SN HL)

nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

differentiating scleritis from episcleritis

A

phenylephrine test (episcleritis blanches)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

difference between central retinal vein occlusion and central retinal artery occlusion

A

both cause sudden painless loss of vision
vein occlusion more common (classically in glaucoma, hypertension, diabetes) fundoscopy shows severe retinal haemorrhages (blot and flame) and tortuous vessels
arterial occlusion seen with atherosclerosis or arteritis (GCA) RAPD can be present. Cherry red spot on pale macula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

cherry red spot on macula

A

central retinal artery occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

chloramphenicol side effect

A

grey baby syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

dendritic ulcer

A

acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

fluoroscein

A

highlights absarions/scratches on cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

causes of central scotoma

A

ARMD

optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

blood in anterior chamber of the eye

A

hyphaema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

swimmers ear

A

otitis externa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

kidneys key functions

A

fluid balance and homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is oligouria

A

<0.5ml/kg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

why is metabolic acidosis associated with hyperkalameia

A

K competes with H for exchange with Na ions in distal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

white spots on soft palate and ear pain

A

ramsey hunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Man treated with antibiotics for presumed pneumonia, smoker, returns 6 weeks later still hoarse

A

refer to ent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Surfers ear

A

Exostosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

HL after getting of plane

A

barotrauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

nose sign from chronic rubbing

A

single crease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

allergic rhinitis treatment

A

intranasal azelastine
oral loratidine, certrizine
intranasal beclamethasone
short term nasal deongestants: ipratropium, oxymetazoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

delayed puberty and no sense of smell

A

kallmans syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

where does reactivation of VZV occur in ramsey hunt

A

geniculate ganglion of CN7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

organism causing otitis externa in divers

A

asperigilus

36
Q

drug to be cautious in tonsilitis and lymphadenopathy

A

amoxicillin (risk of it being EBV and 99% get maculopapular drug eruption)

37
Q

Complication of GAS

A

rheumatic fever

38
Q

Why can hearing be affected with facial nerve palsy

A

CNVII innervates the stapedius muscle that helps dampen down loud noises

39
Q

elderly thin clear discharge

A

vasomotor rhinitis

40
Q

perennial rhinitis

A

allergic rhinits throughout the year (not seasonal)

41
Q

notching at 4000hz frequency

A

noise induced SNHL

42
Q

nerve supply contracting the detrusor/bladder

A

parasympathetic

43
Q

what do leydig cells produce

A

testosterone

44
Q

what BPH treatment can cause gynaecomastia

A

finasteride (5-alpha reductase inhibitor)

45
Q

bag of worms in scrotum

A

varicocele
(varicose veins/enlargment of the pampiniform plexus in men affected testi may be smaller can be a sign of renal cancer and bilateral can affect fertiility)

46
Q

Sore testes in a 12-year-old boy, What is the diagnosis until proven otherwise

A

testicular torsion

47
Q

where do sperm gain motility

A

epididymus

48
Q

ACEI are protective to the kidney in what?

A

diabetes

49
Q

inheritance of PCKD

A

AD

50
Q

What is used if catheterisation isnt possible in urinary retention

A

suprapubic catheter

51
Q

definition of AKI

A

rise in serum creatinine >26mcmole in 48 hours
or increase by >50%
or reduced urine output to <0.5ml/kg/hr for more than 6 hours

52
Q

antiglomerular BM ABs

A

goodpastures (presents as nephritic - haematuria, or haemoptysis as affects lungs)

53
Q

IVDU found collapsed at home

A

rhabdomyolysis

54
Q

proteinuria with a hx of recurrent UTI

A

reflux nephropathy

55
Q

first line investigation in pregnant woman with suspected UTI

A

MSSU for culture and sensitivity

56
Q

where do loop diuretics act

A

thick limb of loop of henle on Na+/K+/2cl co-transporter

57
Q

where do thiazide diuretics work

A

DCT

na/cl co-transporter

58
Q

renal investigation in pyelonephritis

A

urinalysis

59
Q

what are the main types of secondary rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis

A

goodpastures (GBM ABs)
Wegners/GPA (cANCA)
Churchstraus (pANCA)

60
Q

Proteinuria and hypertension

A

ACEi (reduce angiotensin 2 which causes efferent arteriole vasoconstriction thus reduce pressure in glowmerulus and reduces it squeezing out of protein)

61
Q

CKD satge 3

A

eGFR 30-60

62
Q

investiagtion in hydrocele

A

USS

63
Q

first line treatment for BPH

A

alpha 1 antagonists (tamulosin)

64
Q

Nerve supply to thigh

A

anterior - femoral
medial - obturator
posterior - sciatic

65
Q

nerve supply to lower leg compartments

A

anterior - deep perineal
lateral - superficial perineal
posterior - tibial

66
Q

mechanism of action of clomiphine

A

anti-oestrogen (inhibits oestrogen receptors in the hypothalumus inhibiting the negative feedback causing GnRH release, helps induce ovulation.

67
Q

LH:FSH ratio >2:1 is indicitive of

A

PCOS

68
Q

commonest organisms causing uti in women

A

coliforms

69
Q

hormone secreted by the corpus luteum

A

progesterone

70
Q

PE in pregnancy

A

LMWH

71
Q

Invasive prenatal testin

A

<15 weeks CVS

>15 weeks amniocentesis

72
Q

Who performs amniocentesis

A

obsetrician

73
Q

who performs any labour other than vaginal delivery

A

obstetricians

74
Q

LH stimulates what in men

A

testosterone production

75
Q

Who does uterine artery embolisation

A

radiologist

76
Q

Vaginal bleeding, no pain. Non-tender uterus but lie and presentation may be abnormal

A

placenta previa (avoid vaginal examine in primary care)

77
Q

common locations for endometriosis

A

uterosacral ligament

pouch of douglas

78
Q

CI of COCP

A

migraine with aura
smoker >35
BMI >35

79
Q

bowel screen

A

50-74 faecal sample

80
Q

2cm breast lump no mets treatment

A

WLE

81
Q

lump in the scrotum that cant get above

A

inguinal hernias

82
Q

what cancers classically have triosiers sign (palpable virchows node in left supraclavicular space)?

A

testicular, ovarian, gastric, kidney

83
Q

what drug given in varices

A

terlipressin (synthetic adh maintains bp)

84
Q

staph aureus incubation

A

short 1-6 hours (toxin producing)

85
Q

Commonest cause of diarhoea in children under 3

A

rotavirus

86
Q

maloderous diarhorea

A

giardia lamblia

87
Q

GI disorders ass with downs syndrome

A

duodenal atresia

hirchsprungs disease

YEAR 4 (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions