Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

YEAR 4 > Prep 3 > Flashcards

Prep 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is GH normally supressed to after OGTT?

A

<2

in acromegaly no suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

exclamation mark hair

A

allopecia areata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

single crease on nose

A

chronic rubbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

white spots on soft palate and ear pain

A

ramsey hunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

PE in pregnancy

A

LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CURB 65

A 
confusion
urea >7
RR >30
BP <90 or <60
65 years
0-2 amox 5days
3-5 IV co-amox + PO doxy 7days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

endocarditis IVOST

A

always requires IV no oral switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

addisons

A

primary adrenal insufficiency

AI destruction most common cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

normal endometrial thickness

A

<4mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

risk factors for endometrial cancer

A 
nulliparous
diabetic
early menarche, last menopause
unoposed oestrogen
tamoxifen (although antagonistic to breast tissue can be agonistic at other sites)
PCOS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is tamoxifen and hat is it used for

A

selective oestrogen receptor modulator

oestrogen receptor positive breast ca (typically continues for 5 years post surgery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

colposcopy shows ulcerated lesion with discharge

A

LLETZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the main types of shock

A 
Septic
Haemorrhagic
Neurogenic
Cardiogenic
Anaphylactic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

diagnosing sepsis

A

sews > 4 or infection likely

SIRS >2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

SIRS

A 
RR > 20 
change in mental state
temperature <36 >38
known/suspected neutropenia
HR >90
WCC <4 >12
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

assessing organ dysfunction in sepsis

A

systolic BP <90 or <40 below norm or MAP <65
urine output <30 for 24 hrs
lactate <4
newly altered mental state
new need for O2
serum creatinine >150
unexplained coagulopathy/thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

SEPSIS 6 management

A

take blood cultures, lactate and urine output

give O2, fluids and abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

pathophysiology of drowning

A

conscious breath hold until hypercapnia triggers breathing reflex
fluid aspiration or into stomach if laryngospasm
cerebral anoxia (hypoxemia and acidosis)
irrevesible cerebral damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens with inhalation of fresh water

A

hypervolemia, hyponatatremia, hpyerkalemia (fresh water is hypotonic and hyponatremic so causes osmotic diffusion of water into blood and sodium into alveoli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

motorcycle accident, airway clear and breathing ok but weak radial pulse what kind of shock

A

haemorrhagic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

fluid administration followed by rapid deterioration

A

stop fluids

IV furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

dose of adrenaline in anaphylaxis

A

0.5ml 1g:1000ml IM (1mg:1ml)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

dose of adrenaline in cardiac arrest

A

1ml 1:1000 IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what does a 100% solution mean

A

1gram of drug for 1ml of vol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how many mg in a g

A

1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how many mcg in a mg

A

1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does a 1% solution mean

A

1g in 100ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

bradycardia with adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischamia, hf)

A

atropine 500mcg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

hepatoxic drugs

A

paracetamol and NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

SABA + ICS step up

A

SABA + beclamethasone and falmeterol combo inhaler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Centor criteri

A

cough absent
exudate
nodes
temperature >38

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

why does trimethorpim not work in upper UTI

A

doesnt penetrate renal parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

why do antibiotics not help ulcer on foot

A

needs drainage, abcess walled off from the drug and bacteria live on

34
Q

too painful to examination rectum

A

examin under anaestheesia

35
Q

blood on toilet paper and pain

A

anal fissure

36
Q

ankylosing spondylitis and then blood diarrhoea for 2 weeks

A

UC

37
Q

cruise down river nile and then watery diarrhea 6 weeks later

A

urine or stool microscopy for eggs

38
Q

what phase is the primary oocyte arrested in until puberty

A

prophase 1 (continues meiosis each month)

39
Q

function of theca layer

A

produces oestrogen precursors

40
Q

function of granular layer

A

forms oestrogen from precursors

41
Q

lichen sclerosis versus lichen simplex

A

sclerosis: white patch and thin parchment skin of the skin (post menopausal women, atrophy and inflammatory reaction)
simplex: white patch and thick leatherly skin (hyperplasia due to chronic scratching)

42
Q

carcinoma vs sarcoma

A

carcinoma is malignancy of epithelium

sarcoma is malignancy of tisssues with mesenchymal origin (bone and soft tissue)

43
Q

transexamic acid

A

antifibronylitic

44
Q

mefanamic acid

A

antiprostaglandin

45
Q

menorrhagia

A

IUS/COCP

tranexamic acid

46
Q

Irregular periods

A

COCP

47
Q

Painful periods

A

Mefanamic acid

48
Q

lynch syndrome

A

increased risk of colon, endometrial and ovarian

49
Q

PE in pregnancy

A

LMWH

50
Q

hyperthyroid in pregnancy

A

propylthiouracil (not carbimazole)

51
Q

PCOS diagnosis

A

clinical or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism
oligo/amenorrhoeic
cysts on USS

52
Q

investigation for endometriosis

A

laproscopy

53
Q

management of endometriosis

A

NSAIDs/paracetamol
COCP or progesterones (depo)
GnRH analogues (inhibit oestrogen production)

54
Q

key feature of endometriosis

A

dysmenorrhea (pain)

55
Q

women at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia

A

aspirin 75mg from week 12 till birth (HTN in previous pregnancy, DM, CKD, SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome)

56
Q

what drug can be given for the active management of 3rd stage of labour after delivery of anterior shoulder to reduce risk of postpartum haemorhage

A

syntocinon (synthetic oxytocin)

stimulates contraction of the uterus

57
Q

mechanism of ergometrine and its uses

A

constricts vascular smooth muscle of uterus

can be used in active 3rd stage of labour

58
Q

Who carry’s out low risk antenatal care

A

community mid wife

59
Q

Who provides breast feeding support

A

midwife

60
Q

who conducts vaginal breech delivery

A

obstetrician

61
Q

who repairs 3rd degree tears

A

obstetrician

62
Q

who resuscitates a pre-term infant

A

paediatrician

63
Q

main causes of post coital bleeding

A 
idiopathic
cervical ectropion (33%)
cervical or endometrial polyps
cervicitis secondary to infections
cervical cancer
trauma
64
Q

normal delivery

A

midwife

65
Q

abnormal smear

A

unsatisfactory - repeat in 3 months if >3 then refer
borderline/LG - repeat in 1 year
HG dyskaroysis moderate - refer 4 weeks
HG dyskarosis severe - refer
suspsion of cancer immediate refer 2 weeks

66
Q

PPH definitions

A

moderate 500-1500
severe >1500
primary (within 24hrs)
secondary (after 24 hrs)

67
Q

management of PPH

A 
massage
5units iv syntocinon 
500mcg iv ergometrine
IM carboprost (synthetic prostaglandin)
all attempt to contract uterus
68
Q

bitemporal haemianopia and infertility

A

pituitary adenoma (most likely prolactinoma)

69
Q

breast feeding and oral contraceptive (contraception is needed from day 21 unless exclusively breast feeding till 6 months)

A

POP (COCP CI as can reduce breast mil production)

70
Q

organism in BV

A

gardnerella vaginalis

71
Q

tibolone

A

continuous HRT only suitable after 1 year post menopausal

72
Q

investigation for chlamydia

A

NAAT and PCR (endocervical swab/first pass urine)

73
Q

Nulliparous woman, diabetic: known endometrial biopsy thickening:

A

endometrial cancer

74
Q

Woman with previous breast cancer taking tamoxifen for 5 years

A

endometrial hyperplasia

75
Q

severe dyskariosis

A

colposcopy in 4 weeks

76
Q

mild dyskarosis

A

repeat smear in 6 months

77
Q

who does amniocentesis

A

obstetrician

78
Q

who repairs 2nd degree tears

A

midwife (can repair 1 & 2 degree episiotomies (obstetrician for 3rd and 4th)

79
Q

postnatal baby check

A

gp at 6 weeks

80
Q

44 year old para 0+0 woman is currently at 16 weeks gestation. She wishes to know for certain whether or not her child has trisomy 21

A

amniocentesis chromosomal analysis

81
Q

36 year old para 2+0 woman is currently at 28 weeks gestation. Her BMI is 45. The symphyseal fundal height is 34cm and there is clinical evidence of polyhydramnios. What investigation?

A

OGTT

YEAR 4 (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions