PRACTICE QUIZ UNIT 12 Flashcards

1
Q

Is carpals part of axial skeleton

A

No

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2
Q

What type of bone is a femur

A

Long bone

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3
Q

What type of bone is occipital bone

A

Flat bone

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4
Q

What type of bone comprises ankles and wrists

A

Short bone

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5
Q

What bone of axial skeleton does not articulate with any other bone

A

Hyoid

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6
Q

Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken, what was most likely the cause of death

A

Strangulation

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7
Q

True ribs

A

Ribs with costal cartilage that attaches directly to sternum

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8
Q

Function for transverse and spinal processes of vertebrae

A

Attachment site for muscles

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9
Q

Which vertebrae is the largest and strongest vertebrae in adult human

A

L4

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10
Q

Anterior bone that articulates with manubrium of sternum at sternoclavicular joint

A

Clavical

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11
Q

What bone articulates with scapula

A

Humerus

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12
Q

How many phalanges are in each hand

A

14

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13
Q

Function of pelvic girdle

A

Attachment site for lower limbs

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14
Q

In the standard anatomical position, which bone of the pelvis is found most superior

A

Ilium

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15
Q

Shaft of the femur angles

A

Laterally

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16
Q

Diaphysis function

A

Storage of energy in form of triglycerides

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17
Q

Region of long bone that articulates with other bones

A

Epiphysis

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18
Q

Shaft of long bone

A

Diaphysis

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19
Q

Epiphyseal plate

A

Layer of hyaline cartilage that allows diaphysis to grow in length

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20
Q

Region of long bone found between diaphysis and epiphysis

A

Metaphysis

21
Q

Periosteum

A

Fibrous covering on surface of bone that is involved in thickening of bone

22
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Bone building cells

23
Q

Osteoclast

A

Bone dissolving cells

24
Q

Lacunae

A

Structures containing osteocytes

25
Q

Canaliculi

A

Extensions of lacunae filled with extracellular fluid

26
Q

Greenstick

A

Type of fracture that is only considered a partial fracture only seen in children

27
Q

Perichondrium

A

Connective tissue covering that develop and surround cartilage model found in endochondral ossification in fetus

28
Q

Process of intramembranous ossification (7)

A
  1. Mesenchymal cells in the embryonic skeleton gather together and begin to differentiate into specialized cells; some cells form capillaries, others become osteogenic c)ells.
  2. Early osteoblasts appear in a cluster called an ossification center.
  3. The osteoblasts secrete osteoid, uncalcified matrix, which calcifies within a few days, trapping the osteoblasts, which
    are now called osteocytes.
  4. Osteogenic cells in the surrounding connective tissue differentiate into new osteoblasts.
  5. Osteoid secreted around capillaries results in trabecular matrix, while osteoblasts on the surface of the spongy bone
    become the periosteum.
  6. The periosteum then creates a protective layer of compact bone superficial to the trabecular bone.
  7. The trabecular bone crowds nearby blood vessels, which eventually condense into red marrow.
29
Q

Process of endochondral ossification (12)

A
  1. BV convert perichondrium into periosteum
  2. Mesenchymal cells become osteoblasts that make osteoid that forms bone collar
  3. Chondrocytes in diaphysis enlarge and surrounding matrix calcifies and begins to deteriorate, creating cavities
  4. Cavities invaded by periosteal bud (nutrient artery and vein, nerve fibres, red marrow elements, osteogenic cells, osteoclasts
  5. Osteoclasts erode calcified cartilage and osteogenic cells become osteoblasts that secrete osteoid around calcified fragments of cartilage
  6. Forms bone covered cartilage trabecule (earliest version of spongy bone)
  7. Primary ossification centre
  8. Osteoclasts break down newly formed spongy bone to make medullary cavity
  9. Osteoblasts proceed towards end of diaphysis
  10. In epiphyses, the cartilage in centre calcifies and deteriorates, creating cavities
    11, Periosteal bud enterm forming secondary ossification centres
  11. Bone trabeculae appear and secondary ossification except spongy bone in interior is retained and no medullary cavity forms in epiphyses
  12. When secondary ossification is complete, hyaline cartilage remains on epiphyseal surfaces (articular cartilage) and at junction of diaphysis and epiphysis (epiphyseal plates)
30
Q

Unpaired bones that comprise cranium

A

Occipital and frontal

31
Q

Osteocytes

A

Cells of mature bone tissue

32
Q

Osteon

A

Basic functional unit of a bone

33
Q

Flat bone structure

A

Has a layer of spongy bone between two plates of compact bone

34
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae are there in human skeleton

A

12

35
Q

Floating ribs

A

Ribs not attached to sternum

36
Q

Vertebral foramen

A

Region where spinal nerve cord passes through

37
Q

Why is atlas unique

A

Because it has no body

38
Q

Which 3 fused bones that make up hip bone is largest

A

Ilium

39
Q

Which bone of lower leg is more lateral than other

A

Fibula

40
Q

Epiphysis

A

End of a long bone

41
Q

Endosteum

A

Lines medullary cavity

42
Q

Perichondrium

A

Membrane that covers cartilage model of future bone

43
Q

Compound/open fracture

A

Involves broken bone piercing the skin

44
Q

Greenstick

A

When a bone breaks on one side but is bent on other

45
Q

Describe the structure of the epiphyseal plate and how growth in length in long bones is accomplished

A

To the right is the structure of the epiphyseal plate.
* The reserve zone is the region closest to the epiphyseal end of the
plate and contains small chondrocytes within the matrix.
* These chondrocytes do not participate in bone growth but secure
the epiphyseal plate to the osseous tissue of the epiphysis.
* The proliferative zone is the next layer toward the diaphysis and
contains stacks of slightly larger chondrocytes.
* It makes new chondrocytes to replace those that die at the
diaphyseal end of the plate.
* In the zone of maturation and hypertrophy the chondrocytes are
older and larger.
* The more mature cells are situated closer to the diaphyseal end of
the plate.
* The longitudinal growth of bone is a result of cell division (in the
proliferative zone) and the maturation of cells (in the zone of
maturation and hypertrophy).
* In the zone of calcified matrix, most of the chondrocytes are
dead because the matrix around them has calcified.
* Capillaries and osteoblasts from the diaphysis penetrate this zone, and the osteoblasts secrete bone tissue on the remaining calcified
cartilage.
* The zone of calcified matrix connects the epiphyseal plate to the
diaphysis.

46
Q

Describe how a long bone grows in girth

A
  • Bones increase in diameter as they grow in length and even after growth in length ceases.
  • This type of growth is called appositional growth.
  • Osteoclasts resorb old bone that lines the medullary cavity, while osteoblasts, via intramembranous ossification,
    produce new bone tissue located just beneath the periosteum.
  • The above process manages to not only increase the diameter of the diaphysis but also the diameter of the
    medullary cavity.
47
Q

Describe (using words only) the structure of a ‘typical/ vertebra.

A
  • A typical vertebra will consist of a body, a vertebral arch, and seven processes.
  • The body is the anterior portion and is the part that supports body weight; as such, vertebral bodies increase in size
    and thickness going down the vertebral column.
  • The vertebral arch forms the posterior portion of each vertebra.
  • The large opening between the vertebral arch and body is the vertebral foramen, which contains the spinal cord.
  • The vertebral foramina of all of the vertebrae align to form the vertebral canal, the bony protection and passageway
    for the spinal cord down the back.
  • Aligned together in the vertebral column, notches in the margins of the pedicles of adjacent vertebrae together
    form an intervertebral foramen, the opening through which a spinal nerve exits from the vertebral column.
  • 7 processes arise from the vertebral arch.
  • Each paired transverse process projects laterally from the body of the vertebra.
  • The single spinous process projects posteriorly at the midline of the back.
  • The transverse and spinous processes serve as sites of muscle attachment.
  • A superior articular process extends upward while an inferior articular process extends downward on each side of a
    vertebrae. These allow for slightly moveable joints between the adjacent vertebrae.
48
Q

Atlas

A
  • C1is also called the atlas, because it supports the skull.
  • No body or spinous process.
  • It it is ring-shaped, consisting of an anterior arch and a posterior arch.
  • The transverse processes of the atlas are longer and extend more laterally than other cervical vertebrae.
  • The superior articular processes face upward and are deeply curved for articulation with the occipital condyles on
    the base of the skull.
  • The inferior articular processes are flat and face downward to join with the superior articular processes of the C2
    vertebra.
49
Q

Axis

A
  • C2 is called the axis because it serves as the axis for rotation when turning the head toward the right or left.
  • The axis resembles a typical cervical vertebrae in most respects.
  • However, it is easily distinguished by the dens, a bony projection that extends upward from the vertebral body.
  • The dens joins with the inner aspect of the anterior arch of the atlas, where it is held in place by transverse
    ligament.