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(PA school) Human Physiology > Practice questions lecture 5 > Flashcards

Practice questions lecture 5 Flashcards

From ppt lecture 5+ Cassidy's practice questions

1
Q

Name 2 roles of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

1) Surrounds myofibrils like a sleeve
2) Stores Ca+ that releases with AP’s down T-tubules

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2
Q

Which part of the sarcomere is “slid over” during muscle contraction?

A

A band

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3
Q

List the 3 classifications of motor activity

A

Reflex
Rhythmic
Voluntary

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4
Q

The back and leg muscles are usually associated with which muscle fiber?

A

Slow-oxidative

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5
Q

True or false? Long distance runners don’t have as much muscle mass because their mitochondria and capillaries increased, making their O2 utilization more efficient, but not larger in size.

A

True

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6
Q

Rather than using troponin, _____________ must occur for actin-myosin bonding in smooth muscle

A

phosphorylation

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7
Q

List 3 cellular elements that are suspended in plasma

A

Erythrocytes
Leukocytes
Thrombocytes

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8
Q

What makes up the smallest fraction of blood?

A

Platelets and leukocytes (<1%)

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9
Q

Plasma makes up ____% of whole blood

A

55%

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10
Q

RBCs make up _____% of blood in females and _____% in males

A

42%; 45%

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11
Q

What need(s) to be removed for plasma to become serum?

A

Clotting factors

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12
Q

Of the substances dissolved in plasma, which makes up the majority of plasma weight?

A

Organic substances

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13
Q

List 5 electrolytes found in plasma. Organic or inorganic?

A

Na+, Cl-, HCO3-, K+, Ca+; inorganic

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14
Q

List 4 nutrients found in plasma. Are these organic or inorganic?

A

Glucose, amino acids, lipids, vitamins; organic

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15
Q

List 3 organic wastes found in plasma

A

Creatinine, bilirubin, urea

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16
Q

Where are plasma proteins synthesized?

A

Liver

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17
Q

Which plasma protein is the most abundant?

A

Albumins

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18
Q

Which plasma lipid is a precursor for steroid hormone synthesis?

A

Cholesterol

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19
Q

What enzyme(s) remain(s) within a mature RBC?

A

Carbonic anhydrase & glycolytic enzyme

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20
Q

What is the primary transport form of CO2?

A

Carbonic anhydrase’s conversion of CO2 to bicarbonate (“bicarb”) (HCO3)

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21
Q

What are needed to power transport mechanisms within RBCs?

A

Glycolytic enzymes

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22
Q

True or false: Leukocytes and platelets are also produced in red bone marrow.

A

True

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23
Q

1) What come from the ectoderm line?
2) What come from the mesoderm line?
3) What come from the endoderm line?

A

1) Skin and neurons 2) Heart muscle and RBCs 3) Lungs and pancreas

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24
Q

When do the kidneys secrete EPO?

A

Upon detecting low O2

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25
Q

What two things make up anemia?

A

Low hematocrit level and decreased O2 capacity

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26
Q

Which classification of anemia is the inability to absorb vitamin B12?

A

Pernicious anemia

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27
Q

Which classification of anemia is due to bone marrow failing to produce RBCs (possibly due to toxic chemicals, radiation, cancer)?

A

Aplastic

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28
Q

What are two examples of hemolytic diseases?

A

Malaria and sickle cell disease

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29
Q

What type of anemia is common?

A

Nutritional

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30
Q

What disease involves the invasion of RBCs by parasites that then multiply, causing them to rupture, and invade more RBCs? (hint: involves cyclical fever)

A

Malaria

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31
Q

What disease involves deformed cells clumping together and blocking vessels in the spleen?

A

Sickle cell disease

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32
Q

True or false: all RBCs are deformed with sickle cell

A

False; some can be normal

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33
Q

What type of polycythemia involves an excessive, uncontrolled rate of erythropoiesis in red marrow? Give a potential cause.

A

Primary polycythemia; bone marrow cancer

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34
Q

What type of polycythemia can cause a hematocrit up to 80%? Does this have an additional benefit?

A

Primary polycythemia; hematocrit up to 80%

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35
Q

The liver produces thrombopoietin, which increases ___________________ that shed off ____.

A

megakaryocytes; platelets

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36
Q

Von Willebrand Factor detecting exposed collagen is step _____________ of the coagulation cascade

A

2

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37
Q

Where is fibrinogen produced?

A

Liver

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38
Q

Platelets function for how long before being removed by macrophages?

A

10 days

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39
Q

What two things do platelets have?

A

Organelles and cytosolic enzymes

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40
Q

What within the clotting cascade acts as a positive-feedback loop by facilitating its own formation?

A

Thrombin

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41
Q

List the 3 steps of hemostasis

A

1) Vascular spasm; myogenic contraction
2) Formation of platelet plug
3) Blood coagulation (clotting)

42
Q

What 2 chemicals released by activated platelets help with platelet plug formation?

A

ADP and Thromboxane A2

43
Q

Name an eicosanoid paracrine similar to prostaglandins

A

Thromboxane A2

44
Q

What 2 things does ADP stimulate the release of (by nearby normal endothelium) to inhibit platelet aggregation?

A

Prostacyclin and nitric oxide

45
Q

What converts prothrombin into thrombin?

A

Factor X

46
Q

What does thrombin do?

A

Convert fibrinogen into fibrin

47
Q

What does fibrin adhere to?

A

The damaged vessel

48
Q

What does thrombin activate?

A

Factor XIII

49
Q

How many plasma clotting factors participate in converting fibrinogen to fibrin?

A

12

50
Q

What is also known as the “fibrin-stabilizing factor” that stabilizes the fiber into a clot?

A

Factor XIII

51
Q

What is inactive in plasma?

A

Thrombin (it’s prothrombin until activated)

52
Q

What pathway of the clotting cascade involves clotting within damaged vessels and is a 7 step process that begins when factor XII comes into contact with exposed collagen?

A

Intrinsic pathway

53
Q

What path involves tissue factors coming into contact with tissue thromboplastin (outside of blood)?

A

External pathway

54
Q

In the extrinsic pathway, damaged tissue releases tissue thromboplastin which activates factor ______ and bypasses preceding steps

A

factor X

55
Q

1) Name a fibrinolytic enzyme
2) What activates it?
3) What removes dissolved clot products?

A

1) Plasmin
2) tPA (tissue plasminogen activator)
3) Phagocytic WBCs

56
Q

What dissolves clots?

A

Plasmin

57
Q

Primary lymphoid tissues are linked to what kind of immunity? What two things make up this category?

A

Adaptive; thymus and bone marrow

58
Q

List 3 secondary lymphoid tissues

A

Lymph nodes, mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues (MALTs), spleen

59
Q

List two structures that are linked to the adaptive immune system

A

Thymus and bone marrow

60
Q

Which of the following WBC are indicative of a bacterial infection in high numbers?

A

Neutrophils

61
Q

What leukocyte stores histamine and heparin, and is structurally similar to mast cells?

A

Basophils

62
Q

A _____________ analog for WBCs directs their differentiation and proliferation

A

erythropoietin

63
Q

What is the first line of defense against pathogens that is not technically part of the immune system?

A

Skin/body cavity linings

64
Q

Which of the following innate defenses nonspecifically lyse viral and cancerous cells?

A

Natural killer cells

65
Q

List 3 roles of phagocytes and plasma proteins in innate immunity

A

1) Prepare for tissue healing
2) Isolate, destroy, or inactivate pathogens
3) Remove debris

66
Q

What WBCs only have one nucleus?

A

Lymphocytes and monocytes

67
Q

True or false: Degranulation is when a neutrophil engulfs a bacteria and its granules kill it

A

False; it’s when a neutrophil uses exocytosis to release granules

68
Q

True or false: Eosinophils don’t engulf parasites, they just secrete stuff to kill them

A

True

69
Q

Name a phagocyte other than neutrophils

A

Monocytes

70
Q

What type of WBC is released while immature and settles into tissues?

A

Monocytes

71
Q

What attacks infected cells, T lymphocytes or B lymphocytes?

A

T lymphocytes

72
Q

What attacks invaders outside the cells, T lymphocytes or B lymphocytes?

A

B lymphocytes

73
Q

Name 3 places where leukocytes can be produced

A

Bone marrow, lymph nodes, and tonsils

74
Q

Leukemia is cancer of what two things?

A

WBCs and bone marrow

75
Q

Pathogenic bacteria release _________ or __________ that disrupt or damage cells

A

enzymes or toxins

76
Q

Viruses cause the body’s defenses to attack what?

A

Hijacked cells

77
Q

What part of innate immunity involves sequentially activated plasma proteins that attack pathogen plasma membranes?

A

Complement system

78
Q

What part of innate immunity involves proteins that nonspecifically fight viruses?

A

Interferon

79
Q

Name a nonspecific response to tissue injury

A

Inflammation

80
Q

Inflammation recruits _________ and __________ to damaged tissue

A

phagocytes and plasma proteins

81
Q

What does inflammation do to vasodilation/ constriction and vascular permeability?

A

Increases vasodilation and permeability

82
Q

Which stage of inflammation causes edema?

A

Local IF volume increases due to leaked plasma proteins

83
Q

9 abbreviated stages of inflammation

A

1) Local macrophages
2) Histamine + vasodilation
3) ^ capillary permeability > plasma proteins come
4) Increase IF volume > edema
5) Fibrin clot fighting arena for phagocytes and microbes
6) Neutrophils ^, then monocytes ^
7) WBCs keep killing microbes
8) Phagocytes release antibodies and cytokines (inflammatory mediators)
9) Tissue healing

84
Q

Which WBC is released within an hour of innate immunity inflammation?

A

Neutrophils

85
Q

What is a specialized group of 3 related cytokines released from virus infected cells called?

A

Interferon

86
Q

What markedly enhances natural killer cells and binds with receptors on healthy neighboring cells?

A

Interferon

87
Q

Which part of innate immunity creates large channels in invader membranes that makes their cell walls extremely leaky and unstable? What forms these?

A

Membrane Attack Complexes; formed by complement system

88
Q

True or false? B and T lymphocytes within acquired immunity are circulating, waiting to attack their specific type of foreign material.

A

False

89
Q

What are the two ways to activate the complement system?

A

Exposure to:
1) Foreign carbohydrate markers [on microbes] (innate immune response)
-Alternate complement pathway
2) Antibodies produced against a specific invader (adaptive immune response)
-Classical complement pathway

90
Q

What involves a group of more than 30 plasma proteins and activates inflammatory mediators?

A

Complement system

91
Q

Gamma globulins or immunoglobulins are also called what? Give examples

A

Antibody subclasses (ex: IgG, IgA, etc)

92
Q

Improperly functioning cells (ex: cancer or virus infected) are recognized and attacked by ____ cells, while free existing invaders (ex: bacteria and some viruses) are recognized by ____ cells.

A

T cells; B cells

93
Q

Which type of cells are able to create memory of specific antigen attacks?

A

B cells

94
Q

When __________________ bind with an antigen, the cells differentiate into active plasma cells and some become dormant memory cells

A

B cell receptors

95
Q

What antibody is found in secretions of digestive, breast milk, respiratory, urogenital systems?

A

IgA

96
Q

What antibody is produced in early stages of plasma cell response?

A

IgM

97
Q

What antibody is secreted copiously when body is re-exposed to antigen?

A

IgG

98
Q

What antibody is an allergy mediator that helps against parasites?

A

IgE

99
Q

The AIDS virus selectively invades which cells? (hint: makes up 60-80% of T cells)

A

Helper T cells

100
Q

Vaccination is an example of _________ immunity

A

Active

101
Q

Differentiate between primary and secondary response

A

Primary: 90% die of apoptosis after initial infection, 10% become memory T cells
Secondary: activation of memory T cells

(PA school) Human Physiology (35 decks)

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