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(PA school) Human Physiology > Final studying > Flashcards

Final studying Flashcards

From doc started by Cassidy

1
Q

The process in which change is promoted is called what?

A

Positive feedback loop

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2
Q

Give 4 examples of positive feedback loops

A

1) Childbirth w oxytocin
2) Formation of thrombin [in clots]
3) Vertical osmotic gradient of loop of Henle (until bottom of loop)
4) Cancer proliferation

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3
Q

What type of feedback promotes stability? (i.e. change in a direction limits change in that direction)

A

Negative

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4
Q

What mechanism promotes anticipated change?

A

Feedforward control

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5
Q

Where are the carbohydrate “selfie” markers?

A

Within plasma membrane

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6
Q

List 2 types of CAMs

A

Cadherins (zipper) and Integrins (cytoskeleton)

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7
Q

Cell to cell adhesions rely on what 3 things?

A

CAMs, Extracellular matrix, and cell junctions

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8
Q

1) What is the most abundant protein fiber in the body/ ECM?
2) Describe this fiber

A

1) Collagen
2) Flexible, nonelastic that provide tensile strength

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9
Q

Where is elastin abundant?

A

Stretchy tissues (bladder, etc)

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10
Q

What substance promotes adhesion & keeps cells in place? What can a reduced amt of this substance cause?

A

Fibronectin; cancer can go crazy

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11
Q

1) What are the impermeable junctions found in the digestive tract and capillaries of the brain called?
2) “Quick communicating junctions linked by tunnels of connexon” describes what type of connection?

A

1) Tight junctions
2) Gap junctions

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12
Q

Describe the differences in location between ICF and ECF. List 2 parts of the ECF.

A

1) ICF = within body cells
2) ECF = outside of cells, but inside the body
-Plasma (fluid part of blood) and IF (surrounds cells)

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13
Q

1) What 3 things are greater within the cytosol (ICF) than outside (ECF)?
2) True or false: all other solutes are greater outside of the cell.

A

1) K+, Mg2+, and Protein
2) True

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14
Q

In exocytosis:
1) Macromolecules are synthesized in the _______________________.
2) Then packaged in the ______________________.

A

1) Endoplasmic Reticulum
2) Golgi Apparatus

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15
Q

List and describe the 3 types of endocytosis.

Which involves Dynamin, which involves Clathrin, and which is done by WBCs?

A

1) Pinocytosis = “little drink” where Dynamin pinches the neck
2) Phagocytosis = multimolecular particles, WBCs
3) Receptor mediated Endocytosis = highly selective, Clathrin

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16
Q

1) Define Fick’s law
2) Increases and decreases in what factors speed up rate of diffusion?

A

1) Movement of substances from a High to Low concentration
2) Increases in: Magnitude, Surface Area, and Lipid solubility.
-Decreases in: Molecular Weight and Distance

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17
Q

1) What allow for rapid movement of water in the kidney and GI tract?
2) What type of channel channels something to bind to allow the solute to pass through?
3) What type of channels use transmembrane proteins that open and close in response to changes in a cell’s electrical membrane potential?

A

1) Aquaporins
2) Gated channels
3) Voltage Gated Channels

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18
Q

1) What type of channels involve a conformational change in the protein and binding to a specific agonist?
2) What type of channel only has one side open at a time and involves a change in protein conformation?

A

1) Ligand-gated
2) Carrier-mediated

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19
Q

1) Na-K pump uses ______________ active transport.
2) There are ____ binding sites for Na+, ____ sites for K+

A

1) primary
2) 3; 2

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20
Q

What are the two mechanisms of secondary active transport? Describe each

A

1) Symport = another molecule “hitching a ride” in same direction
2) Antiport = opposite direction

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21
Q

1) What is the principal anion of the ECF?
2) What equation is about equilibrium potential?
3) Which is abt membrane potential?

A

1) Chloride
2) Nerst Equation
3) Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz equation

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22
Q

1) What two things make up an electrochemical gradient?
2) Define hypotonic solution and what it does to cell volume

A

1) Electrical charge and concentration gradient
2) Low solute concentration; increases cell volume

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23
Q

1) Define apoptosis
2) What is the doomsday trigger within all cells?
3) What does too much of this lead to?
4) What does not enough lead to?

A

1) Deliberate cell suicide
2) Cytochrome C
3) Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s
4) Cancer

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24
Q

1) Define axon hillock
2) Where are Schwann cellls, PNS or CNS?
3) Where are oligodendrocytes, PNS or CNS?

A

1) Initial segment, trigger zone
2) PNS
3) CNS

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25
Q

List and describe the 3 cytoskeletal components

A

1) Neurofilaments = structural rigidity of the axon
2) Microfilaments = composed of actin + myosin
3) Microtubules = largest in diameter, Kinesin + Dynein

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26
Q

1) Information going from soma [body] to processes is ________-grade transport.
1) Name and define the opposite type of transport.

A

1) Anterograde
1) Retrograde; processes to soma

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27
Q

True or false:
1) CNS cells (oligodendrocytes) do NOT repair/regenerate
2) Another AP can never be generated during absolute refractory period

A

1) True
2) True

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28
Q

1) What is the all or none rule?
2) What type of conduction do unmyelinated fibers do?
3) What type do myelinated fibers do?

A

1) AP can not become stronger via strong stimulus, Stronger stimulus = more APs
2) Contiguous
3) Saltatory

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29
Q

1) Electrical communication occur via what kind of junctions
2) Chemical synapses rely on the release of _____________.
3) What emotion’s pathways does dopamine act on?

A

1) Gap junctions
2) neurotransmitters
3) Pleasure

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30
Q

1) What NT acts on CNS pathways for mood, behavior stress, consciousness, muscles?
2) Which NT is involved in exocrine glands, memory, mood, emotion, behavior, perception, sleep? What else does it control?
3) Acetylcholine is released from nerves that supply what 2 places?

A

1) Serotonin
2) Norepinephrine; smooth and cardiac m.,
3) Muscle and exocrine glands

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31
Q

1) What are the most common neuromodulators?
2) What help depolarize membrane closer to threshold potential?
3) What help increase permeability of K+ or Cl- and help hyperpolarize?

A

1) Neuropeptides
2) Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs)
3) Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)

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32
Q

1) _________________ is a group of compounds containing estradiol, estrone, and estriol.
2) Which is the principle ovarian member of this group?

A

1) Estrogen
2) Estradiol

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33
Q

1) _____ weeks after conception it is called a fetus (or _____ weeks after LMP).
2) Define gametogenesis
3) What are the 3 types of variations in the sexes?

A

1) 9 weeks; (or 11 weeks after LMP)
2) Process of cells dividing by meiosis to form gametes
3) Genetic, Gonadal, and Phenotypic

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34
Q

1) Define genetic sex
2) When does gonadal sex manifest? What protein is the testis determining factor?
3) What week does undifferentiated gonadal tissues start developing into ovaries
4) Define phenotypic sex. List what determines and mediates it.

A

1) Genetic = XY (males) and XX (females)
2) Week 7; SRY protein
3) Week 9
4) Anatomical sex differences determined by gonads, mediated by hormones

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35
Q

1) Define genital tubercle in females and males
2) Define urethral folds in females and males
3) Define genital swellings in females and males

A

1) F: clitoris. M: penis.
2) F: labia minora. M: erectile tissue around urethra.
3) F: labia majora. M: scrotum/prepuce.

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36
Q

1) What develop into male repro tracts?
2) What develop into female repro tracts?
3) Secondary sex characteristics are influenced by ______________ and _____________.

A

1) Wolffian ducts
2) Mullerian ducts
3) testosterone and estrogen

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37
Q

Describe what the scrotum does when it’s cold and hot

A

Cold = scrotal muscles raise scrotal sac into body to warm the testes
Hot = scrotal muscles relax and move tested away from body’s heat

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38
Q

Testosterone, estrogen, and progesterone are all derived from a ___________________ precursor molecule; produced by ____________ cells

A

cholesterol: Leydig

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39
Q

1) What pain fibers involve bradykinin?
2) Which pain fibers are used by mechanical and thermal receptors?

A

1) C fibers
2) A delta fibers

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40
Q

What part of the brain controls emotional expression (like blushing)?

A

Prefrontal association cortex

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41
Q

1) What does botox do?

A

1) Blocks Ach

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42
Q

Define pain

A

Protective mechanism triggered by nociceptors

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43
Q

What are the 3 types of pain receptors? What does each detect?

A

1) Mechanical nociceptors: cutting, crushing, pinching
2) Thermal nociceptors:
temperature, especially heat
3) Polymodal nociceptors:
Various stimuli, including chemicals from injured tissues

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44
Q

1) What sensitizes all nociceptors?
2) What causes these to be released? What does this do?
3) What inhibits these?

A

1) Prostaglandins
2) Tissue damage releases prostaglandins which enhances pain by lowering activation threshold of those receptors (among other causes)
3) NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandins

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45
Q

What are the two ways nociceptors transmit info to the CNS? Briefly describe each

A

1) A-delta fibers: fast pain pathway
2) C fibers: slow pain pathway

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46
Q

1) What is bradykinin?
2) What does it do?

A

1) A normally inactive substance activated in the ECF by tissue damage
2) Causes pain, contributes to inflammatory response

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47
Q

What are the two best known neurotransmitters for pain?

A

1) Substance P
2) Glutamate

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48
Q

What two things does glutamate bind to? Why?

A

1) Binds with AMPA receptors: to ultimately transmit pain signals
2) Binds with NMDA receptors: to sensitize injured area

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49
Q

1) Define analgesic system; what 3 things does it descend from?
2) What does it do?

A

1) The descending pathway from periaqueductal gray matter, medulla, and reticular formation
2) Release enkalphin

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50
Q

What is enkalphin and what does it do?

A

An endogenous opioid that binds with opiate receptors, inhibiting substance P

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51
Q

What are the two divisions of the ANS? Describe each and where their fibers emerge

A

1) Sympathetic
-Responding to stress; fight or flight
-Fibers emerge from thoracic and lumbar regions of the spine
2) Parasympathetic
-Relaxed activities; rest and digest
-Fibers emerge from cranial and sacral regions

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52
Q

What does the ANS consist of?

A

A two-neuron efferent pathway

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53
Q

1) Where is the first ANS neuron cell body? What does its axon do?
2) What does the second ANS neuron do?

A

1) In CNS; preganglionic fiber synapses with cell body of the second neuron
2) Innervates the effector organ

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54
Q

What do the nerves that release norepinephrine (NE) affect?

A

Nerves supply smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, exocrine glands, CNS pathways for memory, mood, emotion, behavior, perception,sleep​

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55
Q

What are the two exceptions to the general rules about what fibers release ACh and which release NE?

A

1) Sympathetic postganglionic fibers of sweat glands release ACh
2) Some autonomic fibers do not release either NE or Ach

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56
Q

1) When most blood vessels are sympathetically stimulated, what happens?
2) What about when they’re parasympathetically stimulated?

A

1) S: Constricts(to increase BP)
2) P: Dilates vessels supplying the penis and clitoris only

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57
Q

What 3 things does sympathetic stimulation do to the digestive system?

A

1) Decreases motility
2) Contracts sphincters (to prevent forward movement of contents)
3) Inhibits digestive secretions

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58
Q

1) When the urinary bladder is sympathetically stimulated, what happens?
2) What about when it’s parasympathetically stimulated?

A

1) S: Relaxes
2) P: Contracts (emptying)

59
Q

1) When the sweat glands are sympathetically stimulated, what happens?
2) What about when they’re parasympathetically stimulated?

A

1) S: Stimulates secretion by sweat glands
2) P: Nothing

60
Q

1) When the salivary glands are sympathetically stimulated, what happens?
2) What about when they’re parasympathetically stimulated?

A

1) S: Stimulates a small volume of thick saliva rich in mucus
2) P: Stimulates a large volume of watery saliva rich in enzymes

61
Q

1) What innervates sweat glands?
2) What else is unusual here?

A

1) Only innervated by sympathetic nerves
2) These nerves secrete ACh rather than NE

62
Q

What are the two main types of receptors in the tissues? List their two types as well

A

1) Cholinergic receptors:
Nicotinic and muscarinic
2) Adrenergic receptors: Alpha 1 &2 and beta 1 &2

63
Q

Define agonist and antagonist in the context of drugs

A

1) Agonist: binds to NT’s receptor and causes same response the NT would
2) Antagonist: binds with receptor but doesn’t produce response, “blocking” it

64
Q

How are the axons of motor neurons different from the two-neuron chain of autonomic fibers?

A

Unlike two-neuron chain, the axons of motor neurons continue to their endings on skeletal muscle

65
Q

Give examples of subconscious maintenance of the somatic nervous system

A

Posture, walking, balance

66
Q

1) Does the nerve and the muscle cells come into direct contact?
2) Describe what happens at motor neuron-to-muscle synapses (called neuromuscular junctions)

A

1) No
2) The space between is too large for electrical transmission, so ACh is the neuromuscular junction neurotransmitter

67
Q

1) Where is the primary motor cortex?
2) What does it do?
3) What simplifies its representation?

A

1) Frontal lobe in the precentral gyrus
2) Initiate voluntary movements
3) Somatotopic organization (homunculus)

68
Q

1) How does the corticospinal tract descend?
2) What is it responsible for?

A

1) Contralateral side
2) Rapid, skilled, discrete movements of the hands

69
Q

1) Define ataxia
2) Define hypotonia

A

1) Impaired movement
2) Muscle flaccidity

70
Q

Describe sliding filament mechanism

A

Actin slides over myosin, pulls Z lines closer

71
Q

Describe NMJs

A

Calcium is key at NMJ; released by SR (sarcoplasmic reticulum), moves troponin and tropomyosin
T tubules go into A and I bands, conduct APs from surface

72
Q

What does the SERCA pump do? Why?

A

Returns calcium to lateral sacs to facilitate relaxation [of skeletal muscle]

73
Q

What process must happen for actin and myosin to bind in smooth muscle?

A

Phosphorylation of light (protein) chains

74
Q
A
75
Q

1) What does acid base balance refer to?
2) Define acids
3) Stronger acid = _______________ tendency to dissociate. How is this expressed?

A

1) Precise regulation of unbound hydrogen ions (H+)
2) Substances that dissociate from H+ when in solution
3) greater; dissociation constant

76
Q

True or false: Many other non-acids (like carbs) contain hydrogen but do not dissociate

A

True

77
Q

1) What is a normal blood pH?
2) What is arterial blood pH? What about venous?

A

1) pH normally around 7.4 (slightly basic)
2) Arterial 7.45, venous 7.35 (carbonic acid/CO2)

78
Q

1) Define acidosis and when it becomes lethal
2) Define alkalosis and when it becomes lethal

A

1) Blood pH below 7.35; pH 6.8 lethal in seconds
2) Blood pH above 7.45; pH 8.0 lethal in seconds

79
Q

1) What does increased H+ do to the CNS?
2) What does decreased H+ do to the CNS?
3) H+ deviations can affect the shape of what? What does this disturb?

A

1) Depresses CNS
2) Increases CNS excitability (twitches, spasms, convulsions, death)
3) Proteins; metabolic activity of enzymes

80
Q

1) How is K+ balance kept?
2) What can affect it and what does this lead to?

A

1) Renal tubular cells secrete (extrude) K+ or H+ to reabsorb Na+
2) H+ abnormalities can affect K+ concentrations leading to cardiac abnormalities

81
Q

1) What is the main input of H+?
2) What is the primary source of this main input of H+?

A

1) Main input is metabolic activity, very minimally affected by ingestion
2) Carbonic acid formation is main source

82
Q

What are the 3 lines of defense against changes in H+?

A

1) Chemical buffers
2) Respiratory pH control
3) Renal pH control

83
Q

The body has four chemical buffer systems, what are they?

A

1) H2CO3/HCO3
2) Protein buffer system
3) Hgb buffer system
4) Phosphate buffer system

84
Q

1) What happens to most H+ generated from CO2 at tissue level? Why?
2) Because of the Hgb buffer, venous blood is only slightly more __________ than arterial blood

A

1) Becomes bound to Hgb, otherwise blood at the tissues would be too acidic
2) acidic

85
Q

1) Why is phosphate a good urinary buffer?
2) When does it buffer urine?

A

1) Humans consume more phosphate than needed
2) During formation

86
Q

Resp. control of pH:
1) Altering pulmonary ventilation alters excretion of what?
2) CO2 is not an _______, it combines with H2O to form ___________ which then dissociates into H+ and ________.

A

1) H+ generating CO2
2) acid; carbonic acid; bicarb

87
Q

Resp. control of pH:
1) If metabolically generated CO2 is low, what happens to respiration?
2) Metabolic _________ increases pulmonary ventilation
3) Metabolic _________ decreases pulmonary ventilation

A

1) Ventilation reduces
2) acidosis
3) alkalosis

88
Q

Renal pH control:
Kidneys regulate pH by adjusting what 3 things?

A

1) H+ excretion
2) Bicarb (HCO3) excretion
3) Ammonia (NH3) excretion

89
Q

1) What is metabolic alkalosis?
2) What can cause it?

A

1) Abnormally increased HCO3-
2) Vomiting, alkaline drugs

90
Q

1) How do people breathe to compensate for respiratory acidosis?
2) What molecule is abundant?
3) When is bicarb elevated?

A

1) Rapidly and shallowly
2) CO2
3) When our bodies start retaining bicarb

91
Q

How do heat and cold damage tissues?

A

1) Heat: Denatures proteins
2) Cold: Ice crystals form

92
Q

1) What two body temperatures are 98.6F?
2) What temperature is typically 1F warmer?

A

1) Oral and axillary
2) Rectal

93
Q

What 4 mechanisms allow for temperature balance?

A

1) Radiation
2) Conduction
3) Convection
4) Evaporation

94
Q

1) Define radiation
2) How much of heat loss does it make up?

A

1) Emission of thermal energy from body surface in the form of heat waves (electromagnetic waves). Incl. emission from the sun or a fire.
2) Half of heat loss

95
Q

What are the two centers for temperature regulation within the hypothalamus?

A

1) Anterior: activated by warmth
2) Posterior: activated by cold

96
Q

1) Chronic cold exposure stimulates what?
2) What is this abundant in? (2 things) What does this do?
3) What idea is this relevant to?

A

1) Brown adipose tissue (“brown fat”)
2) In mitochondria and iron; gives red/brown appearance
3) Thermogenesis

97
Q

1) Sweat glands involve mostly what 2 ions?
2) What type of sweat gland appears in puberty?

A

1) Na+ and Cl-
2) Apoeccrine

98
Q

What are the two main types of sweat glands? Which is dominant?

A

1) Eccrine: Dominant.
2) Apocrine

99
Q

1) What are the nutritional needs of the skin?
2) How is blood flow to the skin controlled? What does this operate in tandem with?
3) What is dependent on sympathetic nerve signals?

A

1) Nutritional needs of the skin are low
2) Blood flow is controlled by reflexes or changes in temperature; in tandem with sweating
3) Vasodilation

100
Q

Circadian Rhythm and temperature:
1) When does minimum temperature happen?
2) What about maximum temperature?

A

1) At night hours before waking
2) Late afternoon/evening

101
Q

Regarding the menstrual cycle and temperature, when does lowest temperature occur?

A

Just before ovulation

102
Q

1) Define metabolic rate
2) Give the formula for metabolic rate
3) What is metabolic rate normally expressed in terms of?

A

1) The rate at which energy is expended by external and internal work
2) Energy expenditure / time
3) Heat

103
Q

Energy is balanced through what 4 molecular signals?

A

1) How much fat is stored
2) Feeding status
3) Hunger
4) Circulating nutrients

104
Q

1) What part of the hypothalamus regulates hunger?
2) Define this structure

A

1) Arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus
2) Two subsets of neurons functioning in opposition

105
Q

List, define, and give the functions of the two subsets of neurons (functioning in opposition) in the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus

A

1) One releases neuropeptide Y (NPY): Highly potent appetite stimulator. Promotes weight gain.
2) The other releases melanocortins: Suppress appetite in humans (allow camouflage in other animals)

106
Q

Two areas of the hypothalamus are richly supplied by axons from neurons of the arcuate nucleus; what are they? What does each do?

A

1) Lateral hypothalamic area (LHA): Produces orexins which are potent appetite stimulators
2) Paraventricular nucleus (PVN): Release chemical messengers that decrease appetite

107
Q

List and define the 3 types of exercise

A

1) Dynamic exercise: skeletal muscle contractions at changing lengths with rhythmic episodes of relaxation
2) Isometric Exercise: Force generated at constant muscle length without rhythmic episodes of relaxation
3) Aerobic Exercise: oxygen usage to work output

108
Q

1) Define oxygen debt
2) Does oxygen have an upper limit? If not, why? If so, what determines it?

A

1) Excess oxygen consumption during the first minutes of recovery
2) Yes; cardiac output and muscle metabolic capacity determine it

109
Q

1) What accumulation is the major cause of muscle fatigue? What is this also called?
2) What is occurring?

A

1) ADP; reduced ATP
2) Slow cross-bridge cycling

110
Q

1) Exercise plays a key role in homeostasis of what element?
2) What condition does this prevent?
3) What does this reduce the pain and disability of?
4) What does this do in cases of RA?

A

1) Calcium
2) Osteoporosis
3) Osteoarthritis
4) Increases muscle strength

111
Q

What 2 things stimulate erythropoiesis in pregnancy?

A

hPL and progesterone

112
Q

Decreased blood flow to legs in pregnancy increases risk of what? Why?

A

DVT; slower blood flow causes clotting

113
Q

What increases renal blood flow?

A

Progesterone

114
Q
A
115
Q

Is Naegele’s rule for dating pregnancy accurate?

A

No; incredibly inaccurate- there are apps for this these days

116
Q

The _________________is the site of fertilization

A

Ampulla

117
Q

[Fertilization]
1) Define capacitation
2) What triggers it?

A

1) Final maturation of sperm
2) Acidic environment removes glycoproteins

118
Q

[Fertilization]
1) Sperm binds to what?
2) What ion does this increase? What does this lead to?

A

1) Zona Pellucida
2) Ca2+; acrosomal reaction
(acrosome fuses w. plasma membrane)

119
Q

1) Following implantation of the blastocyst in the uterine wall, the _______________ forms.
2) What form and fill with blood to eventually develop into this structure?

A

1) placenta
2) Lacunae [eventually become a placenta]

120
Q

What 2 tissues of the endometrium develops into the placenta?

A

Trophoblastic and decidual

121
Q

[Placenta development]
What layer of the chorion continues to expand? What does this eventually erode, and what does this cause?

A

Trophoblastic layer; maternal capillary walls, leaking maternal blood to fill the cavities

122
Q

List 2 hormones made by the placenta and describe when each begins to rise and for how long

A

1) hCG: human chorionic gonadotropin
-detectable 6-8 days post-fertilization [doubles every 2-3 d until 15 wks]
2) hPL: Human placental lactogen
-rises in wk 3 [until term]

123
Q

1) What hormone extends life of the corpus luteum?
2) What does this also stimulate?
3) When is this hormone detectible?
4) When does it increase and at what rate?

A

1) hCG
2) luteal steroidogenesis
3) 6-8 days after fertilization
4) Every 2-3 days until about 15 weeks

124
Q

1) What hormone is similar to GH and PRL?
2) When does it rise in pregnancy?
3) What does it regulate? By promoting what?
4) What condition can it lead to?

A

1) hPL
2) During the 3rd week until term
3) Fuel availability by promoting maternal insulin resistance
4) Gestational diabetes

125
Q

[Placental exchange:]
What does estrogen increase and enhance in both the mother and fetus?

A

Increases size of uterus and blood flow, enhance fetal organ development, increase breast tissue

126
Q

1) Progesterone produced by the placenta enters the ____________ circulation.
2) Some gets converted to ____________.
3) What effect does this have?

A

1) maternal
2) DHEAS
3) Increases water solubility and aids in transportation

127
Q

Estrogen stimulates the renin-angiotensin system to raise _____________ levels and promote ____________ reabsorption, thus, water _____________.

A

aldosterone; sodium; retention

128
Q

What are the only two physiologic factors discussed to decrease during pregnancy?

A

Peripheral resistance and functional residual capacity

129
Q

[Maternal Adaptation]:
1) There’s a physiological __[increase/ decrease]__ in systemic BP during pregnancy​.
2) This should not to be mistaken for ____________.​

A

1) decrease
2) hypotension

130
Q

1) What type of compression can potentially explain low BP in pregnancy if pt is experiencing symptoms? When and in what position?
2) Why does it happen?
3) List the chain of events

A

1) IVC compression; > 20 weeks gestation; supine position ​​
2) Growing uterus is compressing on IVC and/or aorta can threaten perfusion to body and/or placenta​
3) Less venous return > less CO > BP falls > dizziness, lightheadedness, headache, presyncope > syncope

131
Q

During pregnancy, a woman’s blood clots more easily to lessen blood loss during labor and delivery and protect from hemorrhage; how?

A

Coagulability increases:
1) Increase in clotting factors (7, 8, 9, 10) and fibrinogen.
2) Fibrinolytic activity decreases simultaneously.

132
Q

1) What two things abt pregnancy alter pulmonary funct.?
2) What sensitivity does the rise in progesterone [in pregnancy] enhance?
2B) What does this increase?

A

1) Progesterone & the enlarging uterus
2) Brain respiratory center to carbon dioxide
2B) Tidal volume

133
Q

List what happens to these in pregnancy:
1) Airway tone
2) Minute ventilation
3) PCO2
4) Arterial PO2
5) pH
[all due to progesterone and enlarging uterus]

A

1) Relaxes; bronchodilation
2) Increases: 30%
3) Decrease
4) Increase
5) Slight respiratory alkalosis

134
Q

1) As uterus enlarges the diaphragm is elevated by how much?
2) What does this cause?
3) What two vitals does this reduce?

A

1) 4-5 cm
2) Early closure of smaller airways
3) Functional residual capacity and expiratory reserve volume (FRC & ERV)

135
Q

Why does constipation occur in pregnancy? Explain

A

Progesterone = vasodilator
-Decreases transmit time in intestines > colonic relaxation > hard stools > constipation

136
Q

1) GERD (heartburn) occurs in pregnancy bc of what two factors?
2) What lifestyle changes can help?
3) What severe GI condition can occur in pregnancy?

A

1) LES (lower esophageal sphincter) relaxation + compression of stomach by gravid uterus = reflux
2) Avoid caffeine, spicy foods, nicotine
-TUMS are safe during pregnancy
3) Gallbladder disease

137
Q

Endocrine function and maternal metabolism change to support fetal growth by increasing what 4 hormones?

A

1) PRL
2) Cortisol
3) CRH
4) Insulin

138
Q

Of the 4 hormones discussed that increase in pregnancy:
1) Which involves breastfeeding?
2) Which is a stimulant for labor?
3) Which maintain blood sugar levels (risk of gestational DM)?
4) Which contributes to fetal lung development?
5) Which cause stretch marks and contr. to insulin resistance?

A

1) Prolactin; “pro-lactation”​
2) Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH)​
3) Insulin
4) Cortisol
5) Cortisol

139
Q

__________ activates milk ejection; aka the “let down” reflex

A

Oxytocin

140
Q

1) Parturition (birth) is on average _________ days+/- 14 days from fertilization
2) What hormone keeps the uterus inactive? What expression is reduced?
3) Is this reduction/ block overridden or not?

A

1) 270
2) Progesterone; estrogen receptors expression (progesterone block)
3) Fetal growth stimulates more receptors, overriding block

141
Q

Placental estrogen reaches a peak which prepares uterus and cervix for labor and delivery; this includes:
1) ___________ inserted into gap junctions allow the uterine smooth muscles cells to contract as a single unit
2) Increased concentration of myometrial _____________ receptors; ____________ ultimately initiates labor
3) Local prostaglandins degrade local __________ fibers and also increase responsiveness to ___________.

A

1) Connexons
2) oxytocin; oxytocin
3) collagen; oxytocin

142
Q

What ultimately initiates labor?

A

Oxytocin

143
Q

Parturition’s positive feedback cycle of oxytocin (pre-delivery):
1) What first triggers this cycle?
2) What happens when uterine contractions become more powerful?

A

1) Pressure of the fetus against the cervix triggers oxytocin from posterior pituitary
2) More oxytocin is released

144
Q

Parturition’s positive feedback cycle of oxytocin (post- delivery):
1) What causes the secession of this cycle? Why?
2) What two hormones are gone?
3) What hormone inhibitory effect on prolactin is then withdrawn? What does this do?

A

1) Baby and placenta are delivered,pressure against cervix ceases
2) Placental estrogen and progesterone
3) Estrogen; initiates lactation

(PA school) Human Physiology (35 decks)

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