Practice NAVLE 1 Incorrect Questions

Question 1

How does the bacteria Coxiella burnetii persist in the environment?

Answer 1

It forms spore-like structures

Question 2

Coxiellosis is caused by?

Answer 2

Coxiella burnetii, an obligate intracellular bacterium

Question 3

List the most common reservoirs of Coxiella burnetii:

Answer 3

Sheep, goats, cattle

Question 4

How is Coxiellosis transmitted? Describe a classic case.

Answer 4

Transmitted via inhalation, ingestion, direct contact.

Classic case: Late term abortion, anorexia

Question 5

Coxiella burnetii is more heat resistant than?

Answer 5

Mycobacterium bovis

Therefore this bacterium sets standards in the U.S. for pasteurization.

Question 6

What are the effects of Coxiella burnetii if contracted by a human?

Answer 6

Coxiellosis is a REPORTABLE disease. It can be asymptomatic or cause “Q” fever in humans, abortion in pregnant women, endocarditis in people with preexisting heart defects or immunosuppression.

Question 7

Answer 7

Renal neoplasm

Question 8

The radiograph shown is from a red-eared slider turtle. The turtle is housed in a 10 gal (38 L) aquarium with an inadequate water filtration system that results in fetid water. Its diet consists of a commercial pelletized aquatic turtle food. What major clinical sign would you see that would help you confirm your diagnosis?

Answer 8

Lop-sided swimming

Question 9

How do you treat footrot in a sheep flock?

Answer 9

Zinc sulfate bath, inspect all lambs feet and trim those affected

Question 10

Answer 10

Ivermectin

Question 11

Answer 11

This is Psoroptes cuniculi, a mite commonly seen in rabbits.

Tx with Ivermectin

Question 12

A 3-week-old, hand-fed cockatiel is being evaluated because of inappetence, regurgitation, and delayed crop emptying. What is the most appropriate next step?

Answer 12

Cytologic evaluation of crop contents

Question 13

A. CVT
B. Kennel worker
C. Receptionist
D. Veterinarian
E. Veterinary assistant

Answer 13

A

Question 14

What is the most common causative agent of otitis externa in dogs?

Answer 14

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 15

Answer 15

This cat has toxoplasmosis

Clean and empty the litter box every 24 hours during treatment

Question 16

Identify the condition pictured. How would you treat it?

Answer 16

Chin acne
While the exact mechanism is not understood, the abnormal follicular keratinization is thought to be related to a primary seborrheic disease such as excessive sebum production (natural oil produced by the skin). Stress, viral infection, immunosuppression, allergies, or poor grooming habits may also play a role. Unfortunately, none of these conditions have been proven to be the cause of feline acne

Tx: Hydrogen peroxide or benzoyl peroxide. Shave area prior to application

Question 17

??

Question 18

. A 4-year-old neutered male cat is in shock two hours after sustaining a small wound in the left flank and a larger wound on the lower right side just caudal to the 13th rib. A projectile injury is suspected. Which condition is most likely to result from these injuries?

Answer 18

Peritonitis

Question 19

A 12-year-old spayed female Siamese cat is being evaluated because of poor body condition, weight loss, and polydipsia.
Complete blood count shows mild nonregenerative anemia, lymphopenia, and neutropenia. Which of the following tests is most likely to help establish the diagnosis?
A. Blood culture
B. Bone marrow aspiration
C. Coomb’s test
D. FIP
E. Toxoplasma titer

Answer 19

B

Question 20

An 82-1b (37-kg), 8-year-old neutered male German Shepherd mixed-breed dog is being evaluated because of a two-month history of decreased exercise tolerance. The client reports that the dog had two episodes of “profound weakness” on walks during the past week. The dog seems comfortable at home, but his “heart is racing all the time.” Two years ago, another veterinarian diagnosed the dog with hypothyroidism and prescribed oral levothyroxine 0.8 mg twice daily. Dosage was reevaluated one month after initiation of treatment and was determined appropriate. Appetite, urination, and bowel movements are normal. Body condition score is 6/9. Temperature is 101.2°F (38.4°C) and heart rate is 180 beats/min. The dog is panting.
Physical examination detects a pulse deficit that occurs three to five times each minute. No other abnormalities are noted.
Results of complete blood count, serum biochemistry profile, and urinalysis are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the episodic weakness in this dog?

Answer 20

Decreased cardiac output

Question 21

A 5-year-old female West Highland White Terrier dog is brought back to the clinic ten days after being diagnosed as having pyoderma. Physical examination at the time had shown papules, pustules, and epidermal collarettes predominantly distributed in the inguinal region. A two-week course of trimethoprim-sulfadiazine at a standard dose was prescribed, and the client reported clearing of the lesions within a few days. The dog has now developed spreading, circular, bull’s-eye, erythematous lesions on the thorax and forelimbs. There are some papules but no erosion or ulceration. A skin biopsy is obtained. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step pending results of the skin biopsy?

Answer 21

Discontinue all therapy

Question 22

What is the most common form of inflammatory bowel disease in cats?

Answer 22

Lymphocytic-plasmacytic

Question 23

What is the most common coccidia of cats and dogs? What are the clinical signs? How is it diagnosed? Treatment?

Answer 23

Isospora spp.

Most infected dogs and cats do not display clinical signs. Acute cases are associated with diarrhea. In severe cases you may see blood in the stool.

Fecal flotation is used to diagnose this condition.

Infection usually spontaneously resolves. A sulfa AB (e.g. sulfadimethoxine) can be used in clinically ill patients.

Question 24

Answer 24

Cryptococcus neoformans

Question 25

Name the most common systemic fungal disease in cats. Pathogenesis, C/S, Tx

Answer 25

Cryptococcus neoformans

Pathogenesis: Cat inhales fungal spores found in bird droppings, pigeon feces, decaying vegetation.

C/S: Chronic nasal discharge, sneezing, loud breathing, swelling of the nose and face, deep non-healing wounds on the nose, visible masses or polyps in the nasal cavity. CNS Form: sudden blindness, seizures, behavioral changes, head or spinal pain. Cutaneous form: single or multiple non-painful, non-itchy nodules on or right below skin +/- LN enlargement.

Dx: Antigen detection test

Tx: Antifungal therapy

Question 26

A. Acepromazine
B. Diazepam
C. Ketamine
D. Phenytoin
E. Xylazine

Answer 26

Diazepam

Question 27

A. Calcium
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Chloride
E. Phosphorous

Answer 27

Potassium

Question 28

Do you see Hyperkalemia more with acute or chronic kidney disease?

Answer 28

This answer is two fold!

Hyperkalemia is more commonly seen in cases of AKI, however you can see it in end stage CKD cases. Hypokalemia is more commonly seen in CKD cases.

Question 29

A 7-year-old neutered male Miniature Poodle dog undergoes surgical repair of medial patellar luxation. Which of the following is most likely to aid in recovery?
A) Allowing the dog to exercise freely
B) Calcium supplementation
C) Corticosteroid therapy
D) Limb immobilization
E) Physical therapy

Answer 29

E

Question 30

70. Abdominal palpation confirms pregnancy in a cat that was bred three weeks ago, and the client requests termination of the pregnancy. Which of the following is the safest and most reliable management?
    A) Administration of prostaglandin F za
    O B) Cesarean delivery
    C) Injection of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
    D) Oral administration of diethylstilbestrol
    O E) Ovariohysterectomy

Answer 30

E

Question 31

Infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis most commonly occurs in dogs through contact with which of the following?
* A) Cattle
* B) Chickens
* C) Humans
* D) Soil
* E) Swine

Answer 31

C

Question 32

A 14-year-old spayed female domestic shorthaired cat is undergoing routine annual examination. The client reports no changes in the cat’s activity level or appetite. The cat’s weight is stable; body condition score is 5/9. Respiratory rate is 30 breaths/min.
Physical examination shows pink mucous membranes. Thoracic auscultation discloses a grade III/VI systolic murmur and frequent dropped heartbeats. In addition to baseline blood and urine testing, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in establishing the diagnosis?
A) Cardiac troponin testing
B) Echocardiography
C) Electrocardiography
D) N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide testing
E) Thoracic radiography

Answer 32

B

Question 33

Atrial fibrillation
Sinus arrest
Sinus tachycardia
Ventricular fibrillation
Ventricular tachycardia

Answer 33

A

Question 34

A 2-year-old domestic shorthaired cat is being evaluated because of an apparent inability to urinate. On examination, the cat has a large bladder that is easily expressed. The tail is limp, with no voluntary movement. Anal sphincter tone is normal. These findings are most consistent with which of the following?
A) Cauda equina syndrome
B + Fibrocartilaginous embelism
C) Lumbosacral instability
D) Protrusion of the intervertebral disk
E) Traumatic damage to the sacral nerves

Answer 34

E

Question 35

A 5-month-old intact male Italian Greyhound puppy is brought for emergency evaluation because he has not been able to bear weight on his left forelimb since jumping from the client’s arms and landing on his forepaws two hours ago. Physical examination shows soft tissue swelling of the left carpal region. Palpation of the area elicits pain. Radiographs disclose closed, mid-diaphyseal transverse fractures of the left radius and ulna. Which of the following sets of conditions are the most likely complications of this injury?

A) Carpal valgus, premature distal ulnar physeal elosure
B) Carpal valgus, premature closure of the medial aspect of the distal radial physis
C) Carpal varus, premature proximal unar physeal closure
D) Carpal varus, premature closure of the lateral aspect of the distal radial physis
E) Limb shortening, premature closure of the proximal radial physis

Answer 35

A

Question 36

Cats are seasonal induced ovulators
Do the other speies

Question 37

What are the clinical signs of retinal atrophy in dogs?

Answer 37

Night blindness, retinal vascular attenuation, tapetal hyperreflectivity, optic disk pallor

Question 38

How is feline heartworm treated?

Answer 38

Currently there is no approved drug therapy for cats. Prednisolone can be given every 12 to 14 hrs to reduce inflammation.

Question 39

In cats, plasma cell gingivitis-stomatitis is commonly associated with?

Answer 39

Elevated serum gamma globulin concentration

Question 40

A 2-year-old male Labrador Retriever has had a bilateral mucopurulent nasal discharge for the past two months. The dog shows no systemic signs of illness. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A > Coccidioidemycosis
B) Cryptococcosis
C) Distemper
D) Nasal adenocarcinoma
E) Nasal aspergillosis

Answer 40

E

Question 41

An 8-year-old neutered male German Shepherd Dog is brought to the clinic because he has been straining to defecate and has had a small amount of watery diarrhea for the past five days. Appetite is reduced, but water intake has not changed. Palpation of the caudal abdomen elicits mild pain. Limited rectal examination shows no significant abnormalities. A radiograph of a lateral view of the abdomen is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this dog?
A) Administration of cisapride
B † Administration of fenbendazole
C) Administration of loperamide
D) Deobstipation
E) Withholding of food and water for 24 hours

Answer 41

D

Question 42

A 9-year-old castrated male Himalayan cat has a one-week history of mild dyspnea and inappetence. No abnormalities are seen on laboratory tests. Thoracic radiographs show a 3-cm solitary mass in the caudal lung lobe. Percutaneous aspiration and cytologic examination of the mass show a large number of degenerative neutrophils and a few atypical epithelial cells with prominent nucleoli and an increased nuclear-to-cytoplasm ratio. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Metastatic neoplasia
B) Pulmonary abscess
C) Pulmonary adenocarcinoma
D) Pulmonary granuloma
E) Pulmonary hematoma

Answer 42

C

Question 43

An adult spayed female cat that is being treated for renal failure has a urine culture positive for bacterial organisms sensitive to a wide variety of antimicrobial agents. Which of the following antimicrobials requires an adjustment in dose or dose-interval in this cat?
A + Chloramphenicol
B) Clindamycin
C) Lincomycin
D) Metronidazole
E) Orbifloxacin

Answer 43

E

Question 44

In dogs, neurologic adverse effects are most likely to result from an overdose of which of the following drugs?
A) Ampicillin
B) Cephalothin
C) Metronidazole
D) Tetracycline
E) Trimethoprim-sulfadiazine

Answer 44

C

Question 45

Which of the following organisms is most likely to be isolated from a subcutaneous abscess in a cat?
A) Escherichia coli
B Pasteurella multocida
C) Sporothrix schenckii
D) Staphylococcus intermedius
E) Streptococcus spp

Answer 45

B

Question 46

In the cat, a finding of increased resonance on percussion of the chest is most indicative of which of the following?
A) Diaphragmatic hernia
B) Pleural effusion
C) Pneumothorax
D) The presence of a pulmonary mass
E) Pulmonary edema

Answer 46

C

Question 47

In the dog, which of the following is a paraneoplastic condition that is most often associated with mastocytosis?
A) Gastric hyperacidity
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hypokalemia
E) Metabolic acidosis

Answer 47

A - aka GERD
Mast cells are inflammatory cells that produce many substances that are involved in the inflammatory response including histamine. Histamine causes an increase in the acidity in the stomach, which can result in gastritis, vomiting, gastric ulcers and intestinal lesions in dogs with mast cell tumours.

Question 48

A 4-year-old domestic shorthaired cat has pruritus and numerous crusts on the dorsal lumbosacral area and around the neck.
Impression smears show eosinophils, neutrophils, and an occasional basophil. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A Demodeetie mange
B) Dermatophytosis
C) Flea allergy
D) Pemphigus foliaceus
E) Pyoderma

Answer 48

C

Question 49

The patient below developped crusts (scabs) and ulcers around the eyes, ears, footpads, groin, and bridge of the nose. What is your top differential? How is it dx and treated?

Answer 49

Pemphigus foliaceus
Dx: Characteristic acantholytic cells on cytology
Tx: Immunsuppression with glucocorticoids

Question 50

Which of the following organisms is most commonly isolated from the urine of dogs with urinary tract infections?
A) Citrobacter spp
B) Escherichia coli
C) Proteus mirabilis
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Streptococcus spp

Answer 50

B

Question 51

A 10-year-old neutered male domestic shorthaired cat is in respiratory distress. Temperature is 100.1°F (37.8°C), and heart rate is 210 beats/min with a gallop rhythm. Crackles are heard in the lung fields. Follow-up tests show congestive heart failure caused by dilated cardiomyopathy. The client should be asked about which of the following factors in this cat’s history?
A) Chewing on an electrical cord
B) Diet
C) Exposure to rodenticides
D) Previous trauma
E) Previously diagnosed congenital abnormalities

Answer 51

B

A detailed dietary history is important in cats with heart disease. Home prepared diets without meat or made with meats low in taurine (such as chicken breast), may lead to taurine deficiency-related DCM in cats.

Question 52

Which of the following is the most reasonable estimation of a dog’s blood volume?
A) 40 mL/Ib (88 mL/kg)
B) 50 mL/b (110 mL/kg)
C) 65 mL/b (143 mL/kg)
D) 80 mL/b (176 mL/kg)
E) 90 mL/b (198 mL/kg)

Answer 52

A

Question 53

An 8-year-old neutered male Siamese cat is evaluated because of a two-week history of constipation. On physical examination, the colon is distended and contains a large amount of firm feces. An enema will be administered. Which of the following enema solutions has the greatest risk for creating an electrolyte imbalance in this cat?
A) Dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate
B) Lactulose
C) Mineral oil
D) 0.9% Sodium chloride
E) Sodium phosphate

Answer 53

E

Question 54

A 3-year-old spayed female Bloodhound dog is evaluated four hours after being hit by a car. Temperature is 101.8°F (38.8°C), heart rate is 130 beats/min, and respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min. On physical examination, the dog appears cardiovascularly stable. Radiographs show a closed, mid-diaphyseal, complete transverse fracture of the left humerus. Which of the following bandage techniques is most appropriate to stabilize this dog’s fracture?
A) Bivalve cast
B) Ehmer sling
C) Modified Robert-Jones bandage
D) Spica splint
E) Velpeau sling

Answer 54

D

Question 55

Answer 55

Velpeau sling

Question 56

Answer 56

Ehmer sling

Question 57

Answer 57

Modified robert jones bandage

Question 58

Answer 58

Spica splint

Question 59

A 4-year-old female Maltese dog has had the progressive onset of tremors, excitability, and panting during the past hour. She has had two tonic seizures during this time. The dog whelped five healthy puppies four weeks ago. Her temperature is 103.9°F (39.9°C). On examination, the dog is very anxious, has muscle tremors, and is hyperresponsive to tactile stimulation. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate pharmacologic treatment of this dog?
A) Calcium gluconate intravenously
B) Dexamethasone intravenously
C) Diazepam intravenously
D) Phenobarbital intravenously
E) Potassium bromide orally

Answer 59

A
In this case, the symptoms and the history suggest that the Maltese may be experiencing eclampsia, a condition that can occur in nursing females due to low calcium levels. The signs of tremors, excitability, panting, seizures, and hyperresponsiveness align with this condition.

Given that eclampsia is typically treated with calcium supplementation, calcium gluconate would be the appropriate choice. It helps to rapidly increase calcium levels in the blood, which can alleviate the neurological signs and prevent further seizures.

Diazepam, while useful for managing seizures, would not address the underlying cause of the tremors and seizures related to hypocalcemia. Therefore, in this scenario, calcium gluconate is the correct treatment to administer.