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NAVLE > Incorrect MCQ - Week of 10/28 > Flashcards

Incorrect MCQ - Week of 10/28 Flashcards

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1
Q

How do you diagnose and treat EHV-1?

A

Diagnose: PCR - whole blood

Tx: Supportive care, heparin, antivirals

Biosecurity: Quarantine the horse, call state vet

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2
Q

What are the classical clinical signs of EHV-1?

A

Ascending paralysis with dribbling urine and hind-end ataxia. Also can be accompanied by ANY neuro sign

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3
Q

Mares should be vaccinated against EHV-1 at?

A

5, 7, and 9 mo of gestation

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4
Q

Name the stones that are radiopaque on radiographs.

A

Struvite
Calcium oxalate
Silica
+/- cystine

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5
Q

Name the stones that are radio-luscent on radiographs.

A

+/- Cystine
Urate
Xanthine

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6
Q

Struvite calculi are formed secondary to?

A

The bacteria staphylococcus or proteus

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7
Q

How do you treat struvite urolithiasis?

A

AB
Surgical removal or medical dissolution with science diet S/D

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8
Q

How do you treat calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate crystals? Prevention?

A

Surgical removal, correct underlying cause of hypercalcemia

Prevent with: Low protein, alkaline urine promoting diet

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9
Q

How do you treat cystine uroliths?

A

Restricted protein + low methionine diet for 1 mo past dissolution then feed a low purine renal diet to prevent recurrence.

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10
Q

Chronic low purine diets can lead to?

A

Cardiomyopathy

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11
Q

Urate calculi are commonly seen in?

A

Dalmations and portosystemic shunt dogs

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12
Q

Cystine calculi are commonly seen in?

A

Newfoundlands, Labs, dachshund, basset hounds, yorkies due to genetic defect –> cystinuria

Genetic testing available for Newfoundlands and labs

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13
Q

T/F: Inguinal hernias can not resolve within the first year of life in horses.

A

FALSE

They can resolve within the first year of life which is why frequent manual reduction +/- bandaging is the first step in management.

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14
Q

Answer the following in regards to Chagas disease:
1. Etiologic agent
2. Most commonly found in what region?
3. C/S
4. Definitive diagnosis
5. Tx
6. Prognosis

A
  1. Etiologic agent: Trypanosoma cruzi - transmitted by triatoma sanguisuga aka kissing bugs
  2. Most commonly found in what region? Southern USA (particularly Texas) and south America
  3. C/S: Acute infection: acute myocarditis, fatal arrhythmias, rapidly fatal and most common in dogs < 1 yo; Chronic infection: Dogs present with signs of right sided congestive heart failure - ascites, pleural effusion, peripheral edema.
  4. Definitive diagnosis: IDing organism on blood smear prior to euthanasia +/- titers if myocarditis is suspected. Post-mortem: amastigotes in myocardium at necropsy.
  5. Tx: No definitive tx. Palliative care.
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15
Q

What organism is pictured in the myocardium?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas disease)

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16
Q

What is the vector of Neorickettsia risticii aka the cause of ?

A

Trematode

Potomac horse fever

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17
Q

What parasite is commonly associated with equine intussuception?

A

Anoplocephala perfolioata (tapeworm)

C/S: Colic

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18
Q

Name the parasite that is most commonly associated with verminous pneumonia or summer colds?

A

Parascaris equorum (the large ascarid worm) - Parascandola = round face

Large adult worm burden = SMALL INTESTINE impaction; see C/S AFTER DEWORMING

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19
Q

Name the parasite that is commonly associated with verminous arteritis

A

Strongylus vulgaris

Migrates through the cranial mesenteric artery and its branches –> thrombosis, arteritis

C/S: colic

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20
Q

What are the small strongyles of equids?

A

Cyathostomes
C/S: diarrhea, weight loss, colic
Think wet climate, damage large intestinal wall, HUGE PARASITE OF CONCERN

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21
Q

How do you diagnose GI parasitism in horses?

A

Fecal egg count

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22
Q

How do you treat the following: Cyathostomes, large strongyles, tapeworms, and roundworms?

A

Cyathostomes = Fenbendazole OR moxidectin
Lare strongyle = most antihelminthics, larvae = macrocytic lactone aka Ivermectin, Moxidectin,

Tapeworms = praziquantel or 2x pyrantel

Roundworms = most antihelminthics

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23
Q

Answer the following in regards to infectious bronchitis in poultry:

  1. Etiologic agent
  2. Clinical signs
  3. Diagnosis
  4. Treatment
  5. Prevention
A
  1. Etiologic agent - Infectious bronchitis virus, a Coronavirus
  2. Clinical signs: Wheezing, tracheal rales, nasal discharge, decreased egg production, poor egg quality
  3. Diagnosis: suggestive findings on necropsy or RT-PCR of choanal cleft and or tracheal swabs from affected birds.
  4. Treatment: AB, increase temperature by 5-10 degrees F.
  5. Prevention: Vaccination
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24
Q

Answer the following in regards to Equine Metabolic Syndrome

  1. Pathogenesis
  2. C/S
  3. Diagnosis
  4. Treatment
A
  1. Pathogenesis: EMS is characterized by insulin dysregulation aka chronic hyperinsulinemia or insulin resistance
  2. C/S: Obesity or regional adiposity, laminitis
  3. Diagnosis: First line test is a resting insulin measurement.
  4. Treatment: exercise, low-carb and low calorie diet, +/- metformin or thyroxine to improve insulin sensitivity.
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25
Q

When treating a feline patient with cholangitis, what should ideally be done?

A

Culture and sensitivity of bile acids to choose appropriate AB.

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26
Q

Many cats with cholangitis may also have?

A

Concurrent IBD and pancreatitis

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27
Q

Name the receptor and MOA for the following drugs:
1. Dopamine
2. Norepinephrine
3. Atropine
4. Dobutamine
5. Phenylephrine

A
  1. Dopamine: (Precursor to NE) Dopaminergic receptors, increase in cardiac contractility, HR, Output
  2. Norepinephrine: alpha-1,2 adrenergic receptors, vasconstriction –> increase in BP
  3. Atropine: Anticholinergic; Decreases vagal tone to increase HR
  4. Dobutamine: beta-1 adrenergic receptors, immediate increase in BP to increase CO
  5. Phenylephrine: alpha-1-agonist, vasconstriction
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28
Q

Name the etiologic agents of Atrophic Rhinitis in pigs.

A

Bordatella bronchiseptica and pasteurella multocida

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29
Q

Is it common to see a low level of aberrant turbinates in pigs?

A

Yes it is!! When it rises to unacceptable levels, chemoprophylaxis, vaccination, temporary closure of herd to introduction of new pigs, and improved management (less dusty feed, better ventilation, hygiene)

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30
Q

What plant is pictured below? What clinical signs are associated with ingestion?

A

Lupinus spp.

Convulsions, arthrogryposis, dyspnea

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31
Q

Breeding ewes as well as does in endemic areas should be vaccinated against?

A

Campylobacter and Chlamydophila spp.

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32
Q

Dystocia in a sow is present when what amt of time has passed between piglets?

A

1 hour

33
Q

T/F: Endometrial cup formation means that a mare was not only successfully bred but also possesses a healthy, viable fetus.

A

FALSE

34
Q

What is the minimum % hydration that can be detected on PE of a dog or cat?

A

5%

35
Q

Cattle remain _________ with a properly placed caudal epidural but they will _________ after getting a lumbosacral epidural using a local anesthetic.

A

Cattle remain standing with a properly placed caudal epidural but they will go down after getting a lumbosacral epidural using a local anesthetic.

36
Q

In cases of ascending placentitis, the placenta is grossly?

A

Abnormal, esp at cervical star

37
Q

Enzootic abortion of ewes typically occurs in ?
What is the etiologic agent?

A

Naive herds. Initial exposure leads to abortion rates of up to 30%, then after initial exposure rates drop to 10-15%.

Chlamydophila abortus

38
Q

What is the most common cause of abortion and stillbirth in sheep and goats?

A

Toxoplasmosis

39
Q

What is the gold standard post–mortem test for diagnosis of Scrapie in adult sheep?

A

IHC of obex

40
Q

T/F: there are currently no vaccines available for respiratory disease in sheep and goats and cattle vaccines have not be shown to be effective.

A

True!

41
Q

How long is the gestation period for the following species:
1. Horses
2. Cows
3. Pigs
4. Sheep
5. Goats
6. Dogs
7. Cats

A
  1. Horses - ~ 330-340 days
  2. Cows - ~ 280 days
  3. Pigs - ~114 days
  4. Sheep- 5 months
  5. Goats - 5 months
  6. Dogs - ~65 days
  7. Cats - ~65
42
Q

Describe the C/S and treatment for Horsebrush toxicity.

A

C/S: Generalized edema (swelling of the eylids, lips, and throat region)

Tx: Remove animals from plant source and house them out of the sun, antihistamines, topical AB, parenteral corticosteroids.

43
Q

How do you treat a case of big head disease, aka ?
Caused by?

A

Clostridium novyi

Tx with penicillin and separate rams from each other

Seen in young rams that butt heads a lot!

44
Q

What is the most common cause of verminous pneumonia in sheep and goats in the U.S?

A

Muellerius capillaris

45
Q

What is the best way to prevent Vibriosis infection in ewes?

A

Vaccinate against Campylobacter !!

46
Q

High doses of amprolium in sheep can lead to?

A

Polioencephalomalacia in sheep b/c amprolium mimics thiamine’s structure.

47
Q

What organism is associated with cases of severe clinical mastitis in goats and sheep?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

48
Q

Heartwater disease in goats and sheep is transmitted by?

A

Amblyoma ticks

49
Q

How would you describe bastard strangles?

A

Lymph node abcesses in the thorax, abdomen

50
Q

Name a proven biologic vector of vesicular stomatitis

A

Sand flies (Lutzomyia spp.)

51
Q

The radiograph pictured shows what?

A

Fracture of the stylohyoid bone

52
Q
A
53
Q
A

Buprenorphine - a lot of pain associated with ingestion

Do not want to induce emesis due to risks associated with aspiration

54
Q

Describe the prognosis associated with Sarcocystis neurona.

A

60% of treated horses improve but less than 25% recover completely.

55
Q

What large animal species does not respond well to xylazine?

A

Swine

56
Q

What lab results would you expect to see in a patient with PRIMARY hyperparathyroidism?

A

Normal to high-normal PTH in the face of hypercalcemia. This is inappropriate because PTH levels should decrease when Ca levels rise.

57
Q

Primary Hyperparathyroidism is a heritable, autosomal dominant trait in what dog breed?

A

Keeshonds

58
Q

Secondary renal hyperparathyroidism results in what lab values?

A

Hyperphosphatemia, normal or low Ca levels

59
Q

What lab values are seen in patients with nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

If diet is low in Ca or high in P = cause

Calcium levels are normal or low normal

60
Q

What is an important control method for long term control of Eimeria infection in SA camelids?

A

Environmental decontamination

61
Q

In all cases of fistulous withers, should do a serum agglutination titer for ____________, especially when the horse has had contact with?

The other organism associated with fistulous withers is?

A

Brucella abortus

Cattle

Actimomyces bovis aka lumpy jaw in cattle

62
Q
A
63
Q
A
64
Q
A
65
Q

Do you surgically repair all diaphragmatic hernia patients?

A

No, only if they are clinical

66
Q

What can be seen in the radiograph below?

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

67
Q
A

Horner’s syndrome!!

68
Q

Answer the following questions in regards to Horners Syndrome:
1. Etiology
2. C/S
3. Tx

A
  1. Idiopathic in 50% of dogs, 45% of cats
  2. Miosis causing anisicoria, 3rd eyelid protrusion, enopthalmos, ptosis
  3. None
69
Q
  1. What is your top differential?
  2. How would you tx this patient?
A
  1. Copper deficiency or molybdenum toxicity
    - Molybdenum toxicity causes a secondary deficiency in copper
    - Other mineral excesses such as iron and sulfur can cause secondary copper deficiency
  2. Administer copper
70
Q

Never apply casts or splints where?

A

Above the stifle or elbow

71
Q

Always apply bone plates to the?

A

Tension side of the bone

72
Q

Swainsonine is found in what plant species?

A

Astragalus and Oxytropis aka locoweeds, vetches, or milk vetches

73
Q

A two-year-old male neutered domestic shorthair cat is presented with severe diffuse pruritus of several weeks duration. The owner has also noted white
“grains of rice” in the litter box recently.
A physical examination reveals patchy, symmetrical alopecia over the ventrum, caudomedial thighs, and lateral flanks. The skin lesions are shown in the image below.

  1. What is your top differential?
  2. How would you tx it?
A
  1. Flea allergy dermatitis
  2. Imidacloprid and prednisolone
74
Q
A

Normal vesicular glands

75
Q
A
76
Q

How do you medically treat megaesophagus secondary to myasthenia gravis?

A

Pyridostigmine inhibits the break down of acetylcholine (ACH) by acetylcholinesterase to prolong life at the synapse and lessen C/S associated with MG.

Ab for aspiration pneumonia

77
Q
A

Ulcerative dermatitis aka scale rot

Tx with topical and systemic AB

78
Q
A

NAVLE (19 decks)

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