Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NAVLE > Incorrect MCQ - Cross Species > Flashcards

Incorrect MCQ - Cross Species Flashcards

1
Q

Ergot intoxication is primarily associated with which clinical signs?

A

Necrosis of extremities and gangrene.
May also see CNS signs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ergot intoxication is caused by the ingestion of ?

A

Alkaloids in the parasitic fungus Claviceps purpurea. This fungus infects grains such as rye and wheat. bromes, bluegrass, and ryegrass.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give an example of a Phosphodiesterase inhibitor.

A

Pimobendan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the MOA of Phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

A

Phoshodiesterase inhibitors are positive ionotropes so they increase the strength of cardiac contractility by making more Ca2+ available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An increase in what immunoglobulin would make you suspicious for current toxoplasmosis infection in a pregnant human patient?

A

IgM
IgG positive = previous infection

Toxoplasmosis will only cause birth defects in a fetus if the mother is infected for the FIRST time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Abnormalities in the frontal cerebral cortex, also known as the ___________, would result in what clinical signs?

A

Cerebrum
Blind with normal PLR
Seizures
Compulsive pacing
Dementia
Lack of owner recognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the difference between elastic vs inelastic demand?

A

Inelastic demand = the % difference in # of procedures performed is lower than the % difference in the price increase.
- Hospital makes MORE MONEY by raising the price.

Elastic demand = the % difference in # of procedures performed is greater than the % difference in the price decrease.
- Hospital makes more money by LOWERING the price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

From the choices listed below, which affect the healthiest, fastest-growing animals in a group?

A

Clostridium perfringens type C and shiga-toxin producing E-coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Edema disease primarily affects what species and within what age range?

A

Primarily affects nursery age piglets.
- Usually occurs 1-2 weeks after weaning and always affects the HEALTHIEST animals in the group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the major clinical signs of Edema disease?

A

Facial/periocular edema, CNS signs such as ataxia, paralysis.
- in some cases may see NO clinical signs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do you treat edema disease?

A

Treatment is often ineffective, but antimicrobials in the water may help prevent clinical disease in unaffected pigs.

There are several vaccines now available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Clostridium Perfringens Type C is seen in what species and of what age range?

A

Healthy, fast growing calves
(also affects lambs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the major clinical signs associated with Clostridium Perfringens Type C?

A

In calves - acute diarrhea, dysentery, abdominal pain, seizures, opsithotonos, and death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What test is used to confirm protein-losing enteropathy in small animals?

A

Fecale A-1 proteinase inhibitor
Same size as albumin so it is lost via the GIT HOWEVER fecal a-1 proteinase inhibitor is resistant to digestion so that is why it can be measured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you treat Clostridium Perfringens Type C?

A

Treatment often ineffective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the MOA of Pralidoxime Chloride (2-PAM) in the tx of OP toxicosis?

A

2-PAM blocks binding of toxin to acetylcholinesterase.

Why is this important? Toxins bind to acetylcholinesterase –> build up of Ach at muscarinic receptor –> seizures, convulsions, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is an example of a Type I immune reaction?

A

Anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an example of a Type II immune reaction?

A

Ag + Ab complex formation –> lysis
Example = IMHA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an example of a Type III immune reaction?

A

Ag + Ab complex formation –> deposited on endothelium
Example = Glomerulonephritis, SLE, purpura hemorrhagica, anterior uveitis, vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is an example of a Type IV immune reaction?

A

Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
- are cell mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How can you tell, when looking at an ECG, if a patient is experiencing premature ventricular contractions?

A

There will be QRS waves going off without a P wave b/c depolarization is occurring in the ventricles and completely bypassing the atria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When looking at an ECG, how can you tell a patient is experiencing a bundle branch block?

A

The QRS complexes are oddly shaped!
This is because the conduction pathway is normal up until it reaches a point in the heart where a bundle is blocked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cochliomyia is a genus of _________.
Is this disease still found in North America?

A

Screwworm
It has been eliminated in North America but is still found in South America and Caribbean countries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is healing by second intention?

A

Healing by second intention is when a wound is not only dirty but you also fear that suturing it closed would fail so you debride as much as possible and let it granulate, epithelialize, and contract to closure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Holstein cattle are genetically predisposed to developing what disease?

A

Cystic ovarian disease due to insufficient release of GnRH –> persistent follicles b/c no LH surge to prompt ovulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Mild loss of skin turgor is associated with what % of dehydration? Severe loss of skin turgor?

A

6-7%

8-10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In a case of Nutritional Secondary Hyperparathyroidism in a horse, what would you expect to see on BW?

A

Increased parathyroid hormone
Increased phosphorous
Normal to low calcium

Always think High P, Low Ca for this disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
A

When you see dead calves and peri-renal edema, think oak poisoning. In the spring, oak acorns contain high levels of nephrotoxic tannins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Define hygroma.

A

Hyogromas are nonpainful fluctuant swelling of soft tissue that has suffered repeated trauma.

Often see in the tarsus of cattle and the elbow or carpus of horses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When can you reliably feel the following in a pregnant cow:
- Chorionic membrane slip
- Placentomes
- Fremitus

A
  • Chorionic membrane slip: 30-35 days
  • Placentomes: 70-75 days
  • Fremiturs: 120-150 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the most common nasal tumor in cats? Tx of choice?

A

Lymphoma; radiation therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

List the species that are induced ovulators:

A

Llamas, ferrets, cats, rabbits, south american camelids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

List the species that are spontaneous ovulators:

A

Dogs, guinea pigs, sheep, rodents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
A

Distemper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the most common clinical signs seen in birds infected with polyomavirus?

A

Acute onset of lethargy, crop stasis, death within 24-48 hrs. Subcutaneous hemorrhage is also often reported.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
A

Epiglottic entrapment for fucks sake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Diagnose what is in the image

A

Dorsal displacement of soft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T/F: Vesicular stomatitis commonly causes clinical disease in small ruminants.

A

FALSE
It rarely causes clinical disease in small ruminants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae cause in small ruminants?

A

Nonsuppurative polyarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

You are presented with a flock of sheep with the following C/S:
- Edema and hyperemic skin lesions on the udders and coronary bands
- Ulcerations of the oral mucous membranes

What is your most likely differential?

A

Bluetongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Imidocarb diproprionate is the most effective therapeutic agent against what orgnaism?

A

Babesia canis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
A

DON aka vomitoxin (real name: Deoxynivalinol) is commonly found in corn and other grains harvested during times of HIGH MOISTURE. Imparts an aversive taste and animals will rarely eat feed.

Tx: Replace feed or blend contaminated feed with uncontaminated feed to decrease toxin concentration OR scrub grains to remove fungus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

If you see two week old rats in a colony with dry skin and annular constrictions of their tails, what should you do?

A

Increase humidity and decrease room temperature - this is ringtail!

Humidity should be maintained around 40-70%, room temp around 70-74F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When is the best time to reduce twins found in a pregnant mare?

A

14-16 days b/c day 16 is the day of implantation and after this point the embryo is too large to be easily seen on US.

If you miss this window, you can also reduce at day 35-40 when the endometrial cups start to form.

Euthanizing one of the fetuses is recommended since twins are detrimental to health of mare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What breathing pattern is this?

A

Cheyne-Stokes pattern
Occurs when there is direct or ischemic damage to the brain, cerebral edema and/or increased intracranial pressure is present.

Can also happen if too deep under anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What suture type (monofilament or multifilament) is better for skin wounds and why?

A

Monofilament because less likely to wick bacteria leading to wound infection. Also less tissue drag during suture procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

You are presented with a horse that displays exaggeration of upward flexion of one or both hindlimbs. What is your top differential? Etiology? Dx? Tx?

A

Stringhalt
Idiopathic or sporadic - both associated with a neuropathy. Sporadic associated with ingestion of dandelion (Hypochoeris radicata).
Tx: Remove inciting cause, Intraarticular steroids. If medical management does not work - Sx on lateral digital extensor tenectomy (results are inconsistent).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A seven-year-old male neutered Labrador retriever is presented with a five-month history of intermittent left pelvic limb lameness.
Radiographs of the left hock are shown below.
What is the primary lesion of concern?

A

There is a fracture in an oblique orientation of the proximal talus. This is best seen on the cranio-caudal projection.
Other radiographic findings: There is new bone proliferation on the medial and lateral aspects of the talus near the fracture margin. There is increased soft tissue opacity at the level of the tarsocrural joint indicating effusion.
Surgically reduce and stabilize tarsal fractures. In some cases, arthrodesis is the best choice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Define paronychia.

A

Swelling around a single nail bed, caused by neoplasia, infection, or immune-mediated disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Define onychorhexis

A

Brittle nails that are split or easily broken.
Multiple in dachshunds are idiopathic.
Generalized infections - dermatophytosis or leishmaniasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Define onchymycosis

A

Fungal infection of nail bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Define onychomadesis

A

Sloughing of the nail off the nail bed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

List the parameters for septic peritonitis in horses:

A
  • serum-to-peritoneal glucose difference > 50 mg/dL
  • peritoneal fluid pH < 7.2
  • Cytology showing > 90% of cells are degenerate neutrophils with free and phagocytosed bacteria
  • increased lactate > 2
  • serum amyloid A > 10
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is a common cause of acute colitis and diarrhea in adult horses?

A

Salmonella
Commonly occurs due to AB treatment or admission to hospital for colic.

This is why macrolides, like erythromycin, should be used with caution in horses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is an important cause of sepsis in newborn foals?

A

E.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
A

Normal!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What would you see in a case of cholecalciferol toxicity in a cat?

A

Severe hypercalcemia and acute renal failure secondary to renal calcification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Philodendron plants contain?

A

Calcium oxalate so when ingested in excess you would see oxylate crystals causing renal failure + oral inflammation and swelling NOT HYPERCALCEMIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the top differentials for a thin camelid?

A

GI parasites
poor dentition or nutrition
Johnne’s disease
Mycoplasma haemolamae
eosinophillic enteritis
BVDV
GI ulceration
neoplasia such as lymphosarcoma or SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
A

Imidocarb dipropionate (Imizol®) and fluids (with quarantine) are the treatments of choice for equine babesiosis. Can also use diminazine diaceturate (Berenil®) but Tx is complicated and depends on if horse lives in endemic country, and has acute/chronic/subacute Dz.
Babesiosis (or piroplasmosis) is a tick-borne disease caused by the apicomplexan protozoan parasites, Babesia caballi and Theileria equi. It is of huge economic importance in endemic regions (not the U.S./Canada), and is rarely reported in the southern gulf-coast region of the U.S.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which of the following statements about temperature control in aquatic systems is most accurate?

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
A

`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which one of the following methods is the best way to prevent infection with bovine viral diarrhea (BVD) in South American camelids?

A

Strict biosecurity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the two main causes of pregnancy toxemia in guinea pig sows?

A

Ketosis and hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is a common cause of urethral obstruction in male ferrets?

A

Enlarged prostate (prostatic hypertrophy) secondary to hyperadrenocorticism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

A three-year-old budgerigar (parakeet) with a two-week history of respiratory infection and clogged sinuses is presented. She has been on and off sick over the last two months, and does not appear to be responding to doxycycline mixed into her feed for the last month.
She presents with feathers puffed up, and white plaques around her mouth and eyes. Her eyes seem to be
“bugged out” (exophthalmia).
What condition is at the top of the differential diagnosis list?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q
A

Treat this enteric septicemia of channel catfish with antimicrobials based on culture results with an FDA-approved medicated feed. Caused by the gram-negative bacteria Edwardsiella ictaluri, it is the most important infectious disease of the catfish industry.
Death rates are worsened by stress and handling, poor water quality, and recent chemical treatment of the water. Most likely to occur in spring/fall when water temperatures stay between 71.6-82.4°F (22-28°C).
There are enteric and meningeal forms. Enteric causes hemorrhagic enteritis with punctate, red lesions along the body wall and petechial hemorrhages around the eyes and mouth. Meningeal causes “hole in the head” in fingerlings and disoriented/spinning behavior.
There are available vaccines for prevention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
A
81
Q
A
82
Q
A

Use zinc sulphate fecal flotation to diagnose giardiasis with a feather-picking cockatiel.
These birds lose weight and may vocalize a lot.
Zinc sulfate fecal flotation can show the organism-may need to do repeat testing since
animals do not shed Giardia consistently.

83
Q
A

Chloroquine

84
Q

When do the majority of South Camelids show clinical signs of infection with Johne’s Disease?

A

Less than 2 yrs

85
Q

A Cuban brown anole (Anolis sagrei) is presented with something orange visible around the eyes (see image),
gluttal folds, and inguinal folds.
What is this?

A
86
Q
A
87
Q
A
88
Q
A

Salter Harris Type 1 Fracture

89
Q
A
90
Q
A
91
Q
A
92
Q
A
93
Q

An overdose of amprolium, the anti-protozoal drug, in sheep can cause?

A

Polioencephalomalacia

Amprolium inhibits thiamine utilization of the host. B/c of this, prolonged high dosages can cause thiamine deficiency.

94
Q
A
95
Q
A
96
Q
A
97
Q
A
98
Q

During the spring, a two-week-old foal in Pennsylvania is presented that is acutely ill and down. The foal alternates between severe depression, being almost comatose, and convulsions.
Icterus is noted on physical exam (see blurry image below).
A quick blood test shows:
Glucose < 30 mg/d| (1.6 mmol/L) [N=62-114 mg/d| (3.4-6.3 mmol/I)].
Total bilirubin > 5.0 mg/dI [N=0.3-3.0].

What is your top differential?

A
99
Q

What is the main cause of retained fetal membranes in cattle? How is it treated?

A
100
Q

What condition is pictured?
What is the another differential? How can you differentiate between the two?

A

Another differential is iris melanoma. Determine based on ultrasound - cysts are fluid filled, melanomas are not.

100
Q

Which of the following are most sensitive to Pinus Pondersoa toxicity?

Explain the pathogenesis.

A

Cattle
Ponderosa Pine toxicity causes late term abortion because the needles and bark contain isocupressic acid which causes vasoconstriction, decreasing blood flow to the uterus and other tissues.

Ischemic necrosis of CL –> lack of progesterone –> lose pregnancy

No Tx

101
Q

Name two examples of an inverting suture pattern.

A

Cushing, Lembert

102
Q

A necropsy of a muskrat shows miliary, whitish foci of necrosis in the spleen (gray arrowhead). Similar lesions were in the liver.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?

A
103
Q
A
104
Q
A
105
Q

Embryo retrieval and transfer in the mare is most successful when performed during which time period post-ovulation?

A

Days 7-8 b/c the embryo remains in the oviduct until day 5-6 post-ovulation.

106
Q

What is the anion gap?
Write the formula.

A

The anion gap is used to assess a patient’s metabolic status and evaluate unmeasured anions such as ketones, lactate, uremic metabolites, and toxins.

Formula: (Na+ + K+) - (HCO3- + Cl-)

107
Q

You see these on the back of beef and dairy cattle.

What is your top differential? How would you treat it?

A

Hypoderma bovis or H. lineatum

Pour-on moxidectin.

108
Q

Plain lateral and DV radiographs from a three-year old male bulldog show evidence of a mid-thoracic hemivertebra.
The dog has no obvious clinical neurologic signs.
What is the treatment of choice and prognosis?

A
109
Q

What cells/tissues require carbohydrates as their primary source of energy?

A

Neurons b/c they do not store glucose

110
Q
A
111
Q

T/F: Amoxicillin-Clavulanic acid does not readily cross the BBB.

A

True! This is why it can be used in pregnant animals.

Macrolides are a good second choice.

112
Q

What is the primary pathogenesis of diabetes mellitus in cats? How does it differ from dogs?

A

Cats = Peripheral insulin resistance with beta cell failure.

Dogs = Immune-mediated destruction of pancreatic beta cells

113
Q

During fecal examination of a two-month old piglet, this organism is evident. What parasite is this?

A

Ascarid (roundworm)

114
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Diabetic ketoacidosis.

A

Poorly regulated diabetic with concurrent disease –> cells are starved for energy –> lipolysis/fatty acids are produced –> excess ketoacid production –> Metabolic Acidosis

115
Q

What is the etiology?

A

Infectious Bursal Disease Virus

Purchase new chicks from only vaccinated breeder flocks

116
Q

What is the etiology?

A
117
Q
A
118
Q

An Austrailian Shepherd presents for this unilateral ocular issue. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Superficial keratitis

119
Q

What ocular issue commnonly seen in German Shepherds is pictured?

A

Pannus

Starts from lateral canthus of the eye

120
Q

A boa constrictor snake is presented with a history of anorexia, weight loss, vomiting, and mucoid-
hemorrhagic diarrhea. Wet prep of feces shows the following:

What is your top differential?

A
121
Q
A

These are tapeworms, so use Praziquantel

122
Q

What necropsy finding is highly suggestive of the cardiac form of African Horse Sickness?

A

Supraorbital fossa and hydropericardium

123
Q

How do ruminants obtain proteins and essential amino acids?

A

Rumen microbial protein and diet

124
Q

What are the causes for the following forms of azotemia:

  1. Pre-renal
  2. Renal
  3. Post-renal
A
  1. Pre-renal = dehydration, hypotension.
  2. Renal = Ethylene glycol, pyelonephritis.
  3. Post-renal = urinary obstruction, ruptured urinary bladder.
125
Q

Do you see hyposthenuria, isosthenuria, or hypersthenuria with renal azotemia?

A

Isosthenirua

126
Q

Pre-renal azotemia can typically be treated with?

A

Pressors

127
Q

Azotemia questions/info

A
128
Q

What is the most common isolate from equine pleuropneumonia?

A

Streptococcus equi. subsp. zooepidemicus

129
Q

What is your top differential?

A
130
Q

What is the definitive host of Ecchinococcus granulosus?

A

Canids (dogs, other canines)

131
Q

Echinococcus granulosus is very common in what communities?

A

Populations that raise sheep!

132
Q
A
133
Q

What humane methods are used to induce molting in commercial poultry?

A

Reduction of photoperiod, temporarily reduce feed calories, alternate specific nutrients (high zinc, low sodium)

134
Q
A

Edema disease

135
Q
A

Cochliomyia hominivorax - screwworm of North Central, South America

136
Q

What larvae is pictured?

A

Cuterebra

137
Q
A

Pork quality assurance standards

138
Q

Name the pulmonary pattern and top differential seen in this image.

A

Aspiration pneumonia

Alveolar pulmonary pattern

139
Q

What is the main route of transmission of Brucella abortus in cattle?

A

Ingestion of water, feed, or contaminated genitals.

140
Q

How do you screen a herd for Brucella abortus?

A

Milk ring test, but can produce a lot of +

141
Q

What is the principal effect of infectious bursal disease in young chickens?

A

Immunosuppression

142
Q

Answer the following in regards to Infectious Bursal Disease:
1. Etiology
2. Pathogenesis
3. Clinical Signs
4. Treatment
5. Prognosis
6. Prevention

A
  1. Infectious bursal disease virus, double stranded RNA virus; Birnaviridae family
  2. Virus attacks the bursa which a lymphoid organ that produces B cells –> immunosuppression
  3. Clinical Signs include listlessness, watery diarrhea, ruffled feathers, dehydration.
  4. NONE
  5. Prevention: Vaccination (note: predisposes subjects to infection with normally nonpathogenic viruses and bacteria).
143
Q

What is the function of ACE inhibitors?

A

ACE inhibitors inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme from converting angiotensin 1 into angiotensin 2 which narrows blood vessels –> hypertension

144
Q

What is the most common cause of protein-losing nephropathy in dogs?

A

Glomerulonephritis.

145
Q

Soft coated wheatens develop a breed-associated ?

A

Glomerulopathy

146
Q

Urine protein is 3+

What os the treatment of choice?

A

Benazepril

147
Q
A
148
Q

On bloodwork you see an elevated ALP - What does that mean for this patient
?

A

Elevated ALP = poor prognostic indicator

This means that there is an increase in the bone isoenzyme aka increase in osteoblastic activity.

149
Q

At what day in equine gestation can you see the fetal heartbeat?

A

Day 25

150
Q

Prostatic massage may be used to obtain prostatic fluid for cytologic and microbiologic analysis, but there is a risk of causing?

A

Septicemia

151
Q
A
152
Q

What are the two major chemistry changes seen in canine patients suffering from glomerulonephritis?

A

Hypoalbuminemia, proteinuria

153
Q

Coccidiosis causes ________ diarrhea.

A

Mucoid

154
Q

Coccidiosis has ______ morbidity, _______ mortality.

A

high morbidity, low mortality

155
Q
A
156
Q

What protozoan parasite causes enteric and oral lesions along with weight loss in poultry? Tx?

A

Trichomonas gallinae

Acidified copper sulfate in water is first line tx. Dimetrazole/ipronazole/carnidazole or metronidazole is effective but banned from extra-label use in food producing species in U.S. and NONE on label.

157
Q

At what age of animal is bovine brain and spinal cord tissue prevented from entering the human food supply in the U.S. and Canada?

A

30 months

158
Q

A client presents a middle aged ferret with pelvic limb weakness and aimless wandering. What is your top differential?

A

Insulinoma

159
Q
A

Pyridostigmine and broad spectrum ABs

Pyridostigmine - inhibits the break down of ACH by acetylcholinesterase to prolong life at the synapse and lessen clinical signs associated with MG.

160
Q

In cats, extra hepatic biliary obstruction is associated with what conditions?

A

Pancreatitis, inflammatory bowel disease, cholangitis

161
Q

In all cases of EHBO, there is lack of bile entry into the intestinal tract leading to a ?

A

decrease in the absorption of fat and fat soluble vitamins such as Vitamin K, potentially leading to coagulopathies.

162
Q
A

Palatine artery

163
Q
A

Herpes mammillitis

(not pseudocowpox because those lesions are raised and ulcerated in the center)

164
Q

How is Caprine arthritis encephalitis transmitted to goats?

A

Raw colostrum at birth

165
Q

List the forms of controlling Caprine Arthritis encephalitis:

A
  1. Heat treating colostrum to 56 degrees Celsius
  2. Culling positives at birth (ELISA more sensitive than AGIS)
  3. Permanently isolate kids from birth
166
Q

What can be seen in the image below? What can be used to treat it?

A

Hyphema - red blood cells in the anterior chamber

Tissue plasminogen activator - releases trapped RBCs

167
Q
A

E

168
Q

With anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity, what increases first - PT or PTT?

A

PT increases first and is more sensitive than PTT

169
Q

List the Vitamin K dependent clotting factors. Which of these has the shortest half-life?

A

2,7,9,10

7 has the shortest half life

170
Q

On chemistry you see a profound hyperglycemia and a hypernatremia. What s your top diagnosis?

A

Diabetes melli tus and a hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state

171
Q

How do you treat patients with DM and a hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state?

A

Address hydration status and electrolyte disturbances first. Then treat with regular insulin.

Prognosis is guarded - 50% mortality

172
Q

A ten-year-old female spayed Persian cat is presented for evaluation of a two-month history of a mass. There is a two-cm diameter, firm, solitary, hairless, dome-shaped, ulcerated mass on her left neck just behind the jaw that is bleeding.

What is your top differential?

A

Basal cell tumor

173
Q

What is your top differential diagnosis?

A
174
Q
A
175
Q
A
176
Q
A

schroeder-Thomas splint

177
Q

What drug family is associated with tooth enamel problems?

A

Tetracyclines

178
Q
A
179
Q
A
180
Q
A
181
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Hiatal hernia

182
Q
A

Pectus excavatum

183
Q
A
184
Q
A
185
Q
A
186
Q
A
187
Q

In poultry, hydropericardium is seen in a syndrome associated with?

A

Avian adenovirus

188
Q

How do you diagnose avian adenovirus? Tx?

A

Histopathology, serology, PCR

Tx: NONE

189
Q

Define anisocytosis

A

RBC - different shapes

190
Q

Define spherocytosis

A

RBC w/o central pallor

191
Q

Define schistocytosis

A

Fragmented RBC

192
Q

Polysaccharide storage myopathy

A
193
Q

This is a cytology sample taken from the underside of a crust from a 3 yr old female goat with poor BCS, slightly depressed, febrile and mildly pruritic. What is your top differential?

A

Dermatophilosis

When you see “railroad tracks” think Dermatophilosis - this is a gram + cocci bacteria that is seen in animals that are living in poor environmental conditions (high moisture, rainy conditions, skin damage, poor hygiene). You will see crusts on your patients - that is where you need to get your sample!

Infection will resolve without tx but can use AB both topical and systemic

194
Q

What % of total body water is in the intracellular and extracellular fluid compartment? What is the % breakdown of ECF compartment?

A

IC = 60%, ECF = 40%

ECF 40% –> 75% interstitial fluid, 25% intravenous fluid, small % third space

195
Q

What is the difference between 0.9% NaCl and 0.45% NaCl

A

0.45 % NaCl is hypotonic, so when administered it will draw water from the vasculature into the sodium-rich tissues–> cerebral edema

0.9% NaCl is isotonic so we do not worry about those C/S

196
Q

What is used to disinfect TB infected premises?

A

Cresylics because it dissolves the coat and lyses the bacterium

197
Q

Your patient presents for pneumothorax. What is the first step?

A

thoracocentesis + chest tube

198
Q
A

NAVLE (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions