Incorrect MCQ - Cross Species Flashcards
(199 cards)
1
Q
Ergot intoxication is primarily associated with which clinical signs?
A
Necrosis of extremities and gangrene.
May also see CNS signs.
2
Q
Ergot intoxication is caused by the ingestion of ?
A
Alkaloids in the parasitic fungus Claviceps purpurea. This fungus infects grains such as rye and wheat. bromes, bluegrass, and ryegrass.
3
Q
Give an example of a Phosphodiesterase inhibitor.
A
Pimobendan
4
Q
What is the MOA of Phosphodiesterase inhibitors?
A
Phoshodiesterase inhibitors are positive ionotropes so they increase the strength of cardiac contractility by making more Ca2+ available.
5
Q
An increase in what immunoglobulin would make you suspicious for current toxoplasmosis infection in a pregnant human patient?
A
IgM
IgG positive = previous infection
Toxoplasmosis will only cause birth defects in a fetus if the mother is infected for the FIRST time.
6
Q
Abnormalities in the frontal cerebral cortex, also known as the ___________, would result in what clinical signs?
A
Cerebrum
Blind with normal PLR
Seizures
Compulsive pacing
Dementia
Lack of owner recognition
7
Q
What is the difference between elastic vs inelastic demand?
A
Inelastic demand = the % difference in # of procedures performed is lower than the % difference in the price increase.
- Hospital makes MORE MONEY by raising the price.
Elastic demand = the % difference in # of procedures performed is greater than the % difference in the price decrease.
- Hospital makes more money by LOWERING the price.
8
Q
A
9
Q
From the choices listed below, which affect the healthiest, fastest-growing animals in a group?
A
Clostridium perfringens type C and shiga-toxin producing E-coli
10
Q
Edema disease primarily affects what species and within what age range?
A
Primarily affects nursery age piglets.
- Usually occurs 1-2 weeks after weaning and always affects the HEALTHIEST animals in the group.
11
Q
What are the major clinical signs of Edema disease?
A
Facial/periocular edema, CNS signs such as ataxia, paralysis.
- in some cases may see NO clinical signs.
12
Q
How do you treat edema disease?
A
Treatment is often ineffective, but antimicrobials in the water may help prevent clinical disease in unaffected pigs.
There are several vaccines now available.
13
Q
Clostridium Perfringens Type C is seen in what species and of what age range?
A
Healthy, fast growing calves
(also affects lambs)
14
Q
What are the major clinical signs associated with Clostridium Perfringens Type C?
A
In calves - acute diarrhea, dysentery, abdominal pain, seizures, opsithotonos, and death.
15
Q
What test is used to confirm protein-losing enteropathy in small animals?
A
Fecale A-1 proteinase inhibitor
Same size as albumin so it is lost via the GIT HOWEVER fecal a-1 proteinase inhibitor is resistant to digestion so that is why it can be measured.
16
Q
How do you treat Clostridium Perfringens Type C?
A
Treatment often ineffective
17
Q
What is the MOA of Pralidoxime Chloride (2-PAM) in the tx of OP toxicosis?
A
2-PAM blocks binding of toxin to acetylcholinesterase.
Why is this important? Toxins bind to acetylcholinesterase –> build up of Ach at muscarinic receptor –> seizures, convulsions, etc.
18
Q
What is an example of a Type I immune reaction?
A
Anaphylaxis
19
Q
What is an example of a Type II immune reaction?
A
Ag + Ab complex formation –> lysis
Example = IMHA
20
Q
What is an example of a Type III immune reaction?
A
Ag + Ab complex formation –> deposited on endothelium
Example = Glomerulonephritis, SLE, purpura hemorrhagica, anterior uveitis, vasculitis
21
Q
What is an example of a Type IV immune reaction?
A
Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
- are cell mediated
22
Q
How can you tell, when looking at an ECG, if a patient is experiencing premature ventricular contractions?
A
There will be QRS waves going off without a P wave b/c depolarization is occurring in the ventricles and completely bypassing the atria.
23
Q
When looking at an ECG, how can you tell a patient is experiencing a bundle branch block?
A
The QRS complexes are oddly shaped!
This is because the conduction pathway is normal up until it reaches a point in the heart where a bundle is blocked.
24
Q
Cochliomyia is a genus of _________.
Is this disease still found in North America?
A
Screwworm
It has been eliminated in North America but is still found in South America and Caribbean countries.
25
What is healing by second intention?
Healing by second intention is when a wound is not only dirty but you also fear that suturing it closed would fail so you debride as much as possible and let it granulate, epithelialize, and contract to closure.
26
Holstein cattle are genetically predisposed to developing what disease?
Cystic ovarian disease due to insufficient release of GnRH --> persistent follicles b/c no LH surge to prompt ovulation.
27
Mild loss of skin turgor is associated with what % of dehydration? Severe loss of skin turgor?
6-7%
8-10%
28
In a case of Nutritional Secondary Hyperparathyroidism in a horse, what would you expect to see on BW?
Increased parathyroid hormone
Increased phosphorous
Normal to low calcium
Always think High P, Low Ca for this disease
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When you see dead calves and peri-renal edema, think oak poisoning. In the spring, oak acorns contain high levels of nephrotoxic tannins
30
Define hygroma.
Hyogromas are nonpainful fluctuant swelling of soft tissue that has suffered repeated trauma.
Often see in the tarsus of cattle and the elbow or carpus of horses.
31
When can you reliably feel the following in a pregnant cow:
- Chorionic membrane slip
- Placentomes
- Fremitus
- Chorionic membrane slip: 30-35 days
- Placentomes: 70-75 days
- Fremiturs: 120-150 days
32
What is the most common nasal tumor in cats? Tx of choice?
Lymphoma; radiation therapy
33
List the species that are induced ovulators:
Llamas, ferrets, cats, rabbits, south american camelids
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List the species that are spontaneous ovulators:
Dogs, guinea pigs, sheep, rodents
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Distemper
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What are the most common clinical signs seen in birds infected with polyomavirus?
Acute onset of lethargy, crop stasis, death within 24-48 hrs. Subcutaneous hemorrhage is also often reported.
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Epiglottic entrapment for fucks sake
40
Diagnose what is in the image
Dorsal displacement of soft palate
41
T/F: Vesicular stomatitis commonly causes clinical disease in small ruminants.
FALSE
It rarely causes clinical disease in small ruminants
42
What does Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae cause in small ruminants?
Nonsuppurative polyarthritis
43
You are presented with a flock of sheep with the following C/S:
- Edema and hyperemic skin lesions on the udders and coronary bands
- Ulcerations of the oral mucous membranes
What is your most likely differential?
Bluetongue
44
Imidocarb diproprionate is the most effective therapeutic agent against what orgnaism?
Babesia canis
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DON aka vomitoxin (real name: Deoxynivalinol) is commonly found in corn and other grains harvested during times of HIGH MOISTURE. Imparts an aversive taste and animals will rarely eat feed.
Tx: Replace feed or blend contaminated feed with uncontaminated feed to decrease toxin concentration OR scrub grains to remove fungus.
46
If you see two week old rats in a colony with dry skin and annular constrictions of their tails, what should you do?
Increase humidity and decrease room temperature - this is ringtail!
Humidity should be maintained around 40-70%, room temp around 70-74F
47
When is the best time to reduce twins found in a pregnant mare?
14-16 days b/c day 16 is the day of implantation and after this point the embryo is too large to be easily seen on US.
If you miss this window, you can also reduce at day 35-40 when the endometrial cups start to form.
Euthanizing one of the fetuses is recommended since twins are detrimental to health of mare.
48
What breathing pattern is this?
Cheyne-Stokes pattern
Occurs when there is direct or ischemic damage to the brain, cerebral edema and/or increased intracranial pressure is present.
Can also happen if too deep under anesthesia
49
What suture type (monofilament or multifilament) is better for skin wounds and why?
Monofilament because less likely to wick bacteria leading to wound infection. Also less tissue drag during suture procedure.
50
You are presented with a horse that displays exaggeration of upward flexion of one or both hindlimbs. What is your top differential? Etiology? Dx? Tx?
Stringhalt
Idiopathic or sporadic - both associated with a neuropathy. Sporadic associated with ingestion of dandelion (Hypochoeris radicata).
Tx: Remove inciting cause, Intraarticular steroids. If medical management does not work - Sx on lateral digital extensor tenectomy (results are inconsistent).
51
A seven-year-old male neutered Labrador retriever is presented with a five-month history of intermittent left pelvic limb lameness.
Radiographs of the left hock are shown below.
What is the primary lesion of concern?
There is a fracture in an oblique orientation of the proximal talus. This is best seen on the cranio-caudal projection.
Other radiographic findings: There is new bone proliferation on the medial and lateral aspects of the talus near the fracture margin. There is increased soft tissue opacity at the level of the tarsocrural joint indicating effusion.
Surgically reduce and stabilize tarsal fractures. In some cases, arthrodesis is the best choice.
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Define paronychia.
Swelling around a single nail bed, caused by neoplasia, infection, or immune-mediated disease.
55
Define onychorhexis
Brittle nails that are split or easily broken.
Multiple in dachshunds are idiopathic.
Generalized infections - dermatophytosis or leishmaniasis.
56
Define onchymycosis
Fungal infection of nail bed
57
Define onychomadesis
Sloughing of the nail off the nail bed.
58
List the parameters for septic peritonitis in horses:
- serum-to-peritoneal glucose difference > 50 mg/dL
- peritoneal fluid pH < 7.2
- Cytology showing > 90% of cells are degenerate neutrophils with free and phagocytosed bacteria
- increased lactate > 2
- serum amyloid A > 10
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What is a common cause of acute colitis and diarrhea in adult horses?
Salmonella
Commonly occurs due to AB treatment or admission to hospital for colic.
This is why macrolides, like erythromycin, should be used with caution in horses.
61
What is an important cause of sepsis in newborn foals?
E.coli
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Normal!
64
What would you see in a case of cholecalciferol toxicity in a cat?
Severe hypercalcemia and acute renal failure secondary to renal calcification.
65
Philodendron plants contain?
Calcium oxalate so when ingested in excess you would see oxylate crystals causing renal failure + oral inflammation and swelling NOT HYPERCALCEMIA
66
What are the top differentials for a thin camelid?
GI parasites
poor dentition or nutrition
Johnne's disease
Mycoplasma haemolamae
eosinophillic enteritis
BVDV
GI ulceration
neoplasia such as lymphosarcoma or SCC
67
Imidocarb dipropionate (Imizol®) and fluids (with quarantine) are the treatments of choice for equine babesiosis. Can also use diminazine diaceturate (Berenil®) but Tx is complicated and depends on if horse lives in endemic country, and has acute/chronic/subacute Dz.
Babesiosis (or piroplasmosis) is a tick-borne disease caused by the apicomplexan protozoan parasites, Babesia caballi and Theileria equi. It is of huge economic importance in endemic regions (not the U.S./Canada), and is rarely reported in the southern gulf-coast region of the U.S.
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Which of the following statements about temperature control in aquatic systems is most accurate?
E
71
`
72
Which one of the following methods is the best way to prevent infection with bovine viral diarrhea (BVD) in South American camelids?
Strict biosecurity
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74
What are the two main causes of pregnancy toxemia in guinea pig sows?
Ketosis and hypertension
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What is a common cause of urethral obstruction in male ferrets?
Enlarged prostate (prostatic hypertrophy) secondary to hyperadrenocorticism.
78
A three-year-old budgerigar (parakeet) with a two-week history of respiratory infection and clogged sinuses is presented. She has been on and off sick over the last two months, and does not appear to be responding to doxycycline mixed into her feed for the last month.
She presents with feathers puffed up, and white plaques around her mouth and eyes. Her eyes seem to be
"bugged out" (exophthalmia).
What condition is at the top of the differential diagnosis list?
79
Treat this enteric septicemia of channel catfish with antimicrobials based on culture results with an FDA-approved medicated feed. Caused by the gram-negative bacteria Edwardsiella ictaluri, it is the most important infectious disease of the catfish industry.
Death rates are worsened by stress and handling, poor water quality, and recent chemical treatment of the water. Most likely to occur in spring/fall when water temperatures stay between 71.6-82.4°F (22-28°C).
There are enteric and meningeal forms. Enteric causes hemorrhagic enteritis with punctate, red lesions along the body wall and petechial hemorrhages around the eyes and mouth. Meningeal causes "hole in the head" in fingerlings and disoriented/spinning behavior.
There are available vaccines for prevention.
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Use zinc sulphate fecal flotation to diagnose giardiasis with a feather-picking cockatiel.
These birds lose weight and may vocalize a lot.
Zinc sulfate fecal flotation can show the organism-may need to do repeat testing since
animals do not shed Giardia consistently.
83
Chloroquine
84
When do the majority of South Camelids show clinical signs of infection with Johne's Disease?
Less than 2 yrs
85
A Cuban brown anole (Anolis sagrei) is presented with something orange visible around the eyes (see image),
gluttal folds, and inguinal folds.
What is this?
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Salter Harris Type 1 Fracture
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An overdose of amprolium, the anti-protozoal drug, in sheep can cause?
Polioencephalomalacia
Amprolium inhibits thiamine utilization of the host. B/c of this, prolonged high dosages can cause thiamine deficiency.
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During the spring, a two-week-old foal in Pennsylvania is presented that is acutely ill and down. The foal alternates between severe depression, being almost comatose, and convulsions.
Icterus is noted on physical exam (see blurry image below).
A quick blood test shows:
Glucose < 30 mg/d| (1.6 mmol/L) [N=62-114 mg/d| (3.4-6.3 mmol/I)].
Total bilirubin > 5.0 mg/dI [N=0.3-3.0].
What is your top differential?
99
What is the main cause of retained fetal membranes in cattle? How is it treated?
100
What condition is pictured?
What is the another differential? How can you differentiate between the two?
Another differential is iris melanoma. Determine based on ultrasound - cysts are fluid filled, melanomas are not.
100
Which of the following are most sensitive to Pinus Pondersoa toxicity?
Explain the pathogenesis.
Cattle
Ponderosa Pine toxicity causes late term abortion because the needles and bark contain isocupressic acid which causes vasoconstriction, decreasing blood flow to the uterus and other tissues.
Ischemic necrosis of CL --> lack of progesterone --> lose pregnancy
No Tx
101
Name two examples of an inverting suture pattern.
Cushing, Lembert
102
A necropsy of a muskrat shows miliary, whitish foci of necrosis in the spleen (gray arrowhead). Similar lesions were in the liver.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
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Embryo retrieval and transfer in the mare is most successful when performed during which time period post-ovulation?
Days 7-8 b/c the embryo remains in the oviduct until day 5-6 post-ovulation.
106
What is the anion gap?
Write the formula.
The anion gap is used to assess a patient's metabolic status and evaluate unmeasured anions such as ketones, lactate, uremic metabolites, and toxins.
Formula: (Na+ + K+) - (HCO3- + Cl-)
107
You see these on the back of beef and dairy cattle.
What is your top differential? How would you treat it?
Hypoderma bovis or H. lineatum
Pour-on moxidectin.
108
Plain lateral and DV radiographs from a three-year old male bulldog show evidence of a mid-thoracic hemivertebra.
The dog has no obvious clinical neurologic signs.
What is the treatment of choice and prognosis?
109
What cells/tissues require carbohydrates as their primary source of energy?
Neurons b/c they do not store glucose
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T/F: Amoxicillin-Clavulanic acid does not readily cross the BBB.
True! This is why it can be used in pregnant animals.
Macrolides are a good second choice.
112
What is the primary pathogenesis of diabetes mellitus in cats? How does it differ from dogs?
Cats = Peripheral insulin resistance with beta cell failure.
Dogs = Immune-mediated destruction of pancreatic beta cells
113
During fecal examination of a two-month old piglet, this organism is evident. What parasite is this?
Ascarid (roundworm)
114
Describe the pathogenesis of Diabetic ketoacidosis.
Poorly regulated diabetic with concurrent disease --> cells are starved for energy --> lipolysis/fatty acids are produced --> excess ketoacid production --> Metabolic Acidosis
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What is the etiology?
Infectious Bursal Disease Virus
Purchase new chicks from only vaccinated breeder flocks
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What is the etiology?
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An Austrailian Shepherd presents for this unilateral ocular issue. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Superficial keratitis
119
What ocular issue commnonly seen in German Shepherds is pictured?
Pannus
Starts from lateral canthus of the eye
120
A boa constrictor snake is presented with a history of anorexia, weight loss, vomiting, and mucoid-
hemorrhagic diarrhea. Wet prep of feces shows the following:
What is your top differential?
121
These are tapeworms, so use Praziquantel
122
What necropsy finding is highly suggestive of the cardiac form of African Horse Sickness?
Supraorbital fossa and hydropericardium
123
How do ruminants obtain proteins and essential amino acids?
Rumen microbial protein and diet
124
What are the causes for the following forms of azotemia:
1. Pre-renal
2. Renal
3. Post-renal
1. Pre-renal = dehydration, hypotension.
2. Renal = Ethylene glycol, pyelonephritis.
3. Post-renal = urinary obstruction, ruptured urinary bladder.
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Do you see hyposthenuria, isosthenuria, or hypersthenuria with renal azotemia?
Isosthenirua
126
Pre-renal azotemia can typically be treated with?
Pressors
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Azotemia questions/info
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What is the most common isolate from equine pleuropneumonia?
Streptococcus equi. subsp. zooepidemicus
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What is your top differential?
130
What is the definitive host of Ecchinococcus granulosus?
Canids (dogs, other canines)
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Echinococcus granulosus is very common in what communities?
Populations that raise sheep!
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What humane methods are used to induce molting in commercial poultry?
Reduction of photoperiod, temporarily reduce feed calories, alternate specific nutrients (high zinc, low sodium)
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Edema disease
135
Cochliomyia hominivorax - screwworm of North Central, South America
136
What larvae is pictured?
Cuterebra
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Pork quality assurance standards
138
Name the pulmonary pattern and top differential seen in this image.
Aspiration pneumonia
Alveolar pulmonary pattern
139
What is the main route of transmission of Brucella abortus in cattle?
Ingestion of water, feed, or contaminated genitals.
140
How do you screen a herd for Brucella abortus?
Milk ring test, but can produce a lot of +
141
What is the principal effect of infectious bursal disease in young chickens?
Immunosuppression
142
Answer the following in regards to Infectious Bursal Disease:
1. Etiology
2. Pathogenesis
3. Clinical Signs
4. Treatment
5. Prognosis
6. Prevention
1. Infectious bursal disease virus, double stranded RNA virus; Birnaviridae family
2. Virus attacks the bursa which a lymphoid organ that produces B cells --> immunosuppression
3. Clinical Signs include listlessness, watery diarrhea, ruffled feathers, dehydration.
4. NONE
5. Prevention: Vaccination (note: predisposes subjects to infection with normally nonpathogenic viruses and bacteria).
143
What is the function of ACE inhibitors?
ACE inhibitors inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme from converting angiotensin 1 into angiotensin 2 which narrows blood vessels --> hypertension
144
What is the most common cause of protein-losing nephropathy in dogs?
Glomerulonephritis.
145
Soft coated wheatens develop a breed-associated ?
Glomerulopathy
146
Urine protein is 3+
What os the treatment of choice?
Benazepril
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On bloodwork you see an elevated ALP - What does that mean for this patient
?
Elevated ALP = poor prognostic indicator
This means that there is an increase in the bone isoenzyme aka increase in osteoblastic activity.
149
At what day in equine gestation can you see the fetal heartbeat?
Day 25
150
Prostatic massage may be used to obtain prostatic fluid for cytologic and microbiologic analysis, but there is a risk of causing?
Septicemia
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152
What are the two major chemistry changes seen in canine patients suffering from glomerulonephritis?
Hypoalbuminemia, proteinuria
153
Coccidiosis causes ________ diarrhea.
Mucoid
154
Coccidiosis has ______ morbidity, _______ mortality.
high morbidity, low mortality
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What protozoan parasite causes enteric and oral lesions along with weight loss in poultry? Tx?
Trichomonas gallinae
Acidified copper sulfate in water is first line tx. Dimetrazole/ipronazole/carnidazole or metronidazole is effective but banned from extra-label use in food producing species in U.S. and NONE on label.
157
At what age of animal is bovine brain and spinal cord tissue prevented from entering the human food supply in the U.S. and Canada?
30 months
158
A client presents a middle aged ferret with pelvic limb weakness and aimless wandering. What is your top differential?
Insulinoma
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Pyridostigmine and broad spectrum ABs
Pyridostigmine - inhibits the break down of ACH by acetylcholinesterase to prolong life at the synapse and lessen clinical signs associated with MG.
160
In cats, extra hepatic biliary obstruction is associated with what conditions?
Pancreatitis, inflammatory bowel disease, cholangitis
161
In all cases of EHBO, there is lack of bile entry into the intestinal tract leading to a ?
decrease in the absorption of fat and fat soluble vitamins such as Vitamin K, potentially leading to coagulopathies.
162
Palatine artery
163
Herpes mammillitis
(not pseudocowpox because those lesions are raised and ulcerated in the center)
164
How is Caprine arthritis encephalitis transmitted to goats?
Raw colostrum at birth
165
List the forms of controlling Caprine Arthritis encephalitis:
1. Heat treating colostrum to 56 degrees Celsius
2. Culling positives at birth (ELISA more sensitive than AGIS)
3. Permanently isolate kids from birth
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What can be seen in the image below? What can be used to treat it?
Hyphema - red blood cells in the anterior chamber
Tissue plasminogen activator - releases trapped RBCs
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E
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With anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity, what increases first - PT or PTT?
PT increases first and is more sensitive than PTT
169
List the Vitamin K dependent clotting factors. Which of these has the shortest half-life?
2,7,9,10
7 has the shortest half life
170
On chemistry you see a profound hyperglycemia and a hypernatremia. What s your top diagnosis?
Diabetes melli tus and a hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state
171
How do you treat patients with DM and a hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state?
Address hydration status and electrolyte disturbances first. Then treat with regular insulin.
Prognosis is guarded - 50% mortality
172
A ten-year-old female spayed Persian cat is presented for evaluation of a two-month history of a mass. There is a two-cm diameter, firm, solitary, hairless, dome-shaped, ulcerated mass on her left neck just behind the jaw that is bleeding.
What is your top differential?
Basal cell tumor
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What is your top differential diagnosis?
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schroeder-Thomas splint
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What drug family is associated with tooth enamel problems?
Tetracyclines
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Diagnosis?
Hiatal hernia
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Pectus excavatum
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In poultry, hydropericardium is seen in a syndrome associated with?
Avian adenovirus
188
How do you diagnose avian adenovirus? Tx?
Histopathology, serology, PCR
Tx: NONE
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Define anisocytosis
RBC - different shapes
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Define spherocytosis
RBC w/o central pallor
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Define schistocytosis
Fragmented RBC
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Polysaccharide storage myopathy
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This is a cytology sample taken from the underside of a crust from a 3 yr old female goat with poor BCS, slightly depressed, febrile and mildly pruritic. What is your top differential?
Dermatophilosis
When you see "railroad tracks" think Dermatophilosis - this is a gram + cocci bacteria that is seen in animals that are living in poor environmental conditions (high moisture, rainy conditions, skin damage, poor hygiene). You will see crusts on your patients - that is where you need to get your sample!
Infection will resolve without tx but can use AB both topical and systemic
194
What % of total body water is in the intracellular and extracellular fluid compartment? What is the % breakdown of ECF compartment?
IC = 60%, ECF = 40%
ECF 40% --> 75% interstitial fluid, 25% intravenous fluid, small % third space
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What is the difference between 0.9% NaCl and 0.45% NaCl
0.45 % NaCl is hypotonic, so when administered it will draw water from the vasculature into the sodium-rich tissues--> cerebral edema
0.9% NaCl is isotonic so we do not worry about those C/S
196
What is used to disinfect TB infected premises?
Cresylics because it dissolves the coat and lyses the bacterium
197
Your patient presents for pneumothorax. What is the first step?
thoracocentesis + chest tube
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