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NAVLE > Incorrect MCQ - Week of 10/21 > Flashcards

Incorrect MCQ - Week of 10/21 Flashcards

All-encompassing questions on topics you got wrong + info from questions you got right that you did not remember!

1
Q

A range cow from south Texas near the Mexican border is presented for a two-day history of high fever, anorexia, depression, and “redwater” (hemoglobinuria).

What is your top differential?

A

Babesiosis (Babesia)

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2
Q

You believe your patient has babesia. What is the next step?

A

Report !!!

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3
Q

The most likely cause of a large uterine mass in an intact female pot-bellied pig is a ?

A

Uterine leiomyoma.

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4
Q

What is the treatment for a uterine leiomyoma in a potbellied pig?

A

These tumors do not typically metastasize so you can cure the patient via surgical removal of the uterus.

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5
Q

Do vaccines and maternal antibodies interfere with FeLV testing?

A

NO! They do NOT

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6
Q

FeLV ELISA and FeLV PCR test for?

A

Circulating antigen, which is why vaccination does not interfere with testing

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7
Q

What are the major clinical signa of nephrosplenic entrapment in a horse?

A

Mild to moderate recurrent abdominal pain

Rectal palpation reveals the large colon is displaced to the left lateral abdominal wall & the spleen is displaced medio-ventrally

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8
Q

What is the difference between succussion & ballottement?

A

Succussion is when you use your fist and push into the abdomen to feel/elicit splashing sounds in the gut.

Ballottement is when you push to feel for an organ or baby’s head or hips in the uterus

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9
Q

Equine botflies are called?

A

Gasterophilus spp.

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10
Q

Describe the life cycle of a horse botfly

A

Horse botflies lay eggs on a horse’s shoulders or forelimbs and hatch when the horse licks them. They become embedded in a horse’s mouth and then hatch in the stomach. These bots are either asymptomatic or cause mild gastritis.

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11
Q

What is the tx of choice for a case of acute pancreatitis in which the patient is intermittently vomiting?

A

Enteral nutrition (aka feeding via the stomach). You only choose nothing per os for cats & dogs when the patient is uncontrollably vomiting.

Other tx add-ons: IVF, antiemetics, analgesia, GI prokinetics. NO ab unless there is pancreatic abscessation.

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12
Q

Feline pancreatitis is commonly _______, although it has been associated with?

A

Idiopathic, diabetes mellitus, IBD, cholangitis, pancreatic hypoperfusion, trauma, and some medications and drugs.

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13
Q

What is the most sensitive and specific test currently available for Feline Pancreatitis?

A

Serum fPLI to measure pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity.

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14
Q

What is pictured here? What are the C/S? Dx? Tx? Prognosis?

A

Hemivertebrae

C/S can either be asymptomatic or kyphosis, ataxia, paresis, scoliosis.

Dx: Xrays

Tx: If asymptomatic, no tx. If symptomatic, would need to surgically decompress.

Prognosis: Good for asymptomatic.

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15
Q

Hemivertebra is inherited in what dog breed?

A

German shorthaired pointer

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16
Q

Describe what premature placental separation looks like. What does it mean? How is it treated?

A

A bright red, velvety membrane.

This means the chorioallantois has separated from the endometrium before the foal is able to breathe on its own. You must tear open the “Bag” to assist in foal delivery immediately.

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17
Q

What should you normally see during stage 2 of labor in a horse?

A

A translucent white amniotic sac. This occurs after the water breaks.

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18
Q

What is ma huang? What happens if it is ingested by a dog?

A

Ma huang is Ephedra sinica, a herb containing ephedrine and pseudoephedrine that is used for weight loss and athletic performance. If ingested by a dog, it causes hyperthermia, tachycardia, and tremors.

The FDA banned the used of supplements containing ephedrine alkaloids.

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19
Q

What electrolyte deficits can predispose a horse to develop a-fib?

A

K and Mg

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20
Q

How can you convert a-fib to a sinus rhythm?

A

Quinidine sulfate

OR transvenous electrical cardioversion (gold standard at some hospitals)

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21
Q

How do you successfully eliminate classical swine fever in a population?

A

Depopulation of infected herds.

Typically vaccinate in endemic areas and cull in nonendemic areas.

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22
Q

How is classical swine fever transmitted?

A

Between live animals, pork products, mechanically via fomimtes.

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23
Q

Classical swine fever is often endemic in?

A

Wild boar

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24
Q

What is grossly seen on necropsy of a pig that died of classical swine fever?

A

Petechiae, hemorrhage, “button” ulcers at the ileocecal junction.

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25
Q

What is a characteristic microscopic lesion seen in patients that died from classical swine fever?

A

Nonsuppurative encephalitis with a characteristic vascular cuffing

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26
Q

T/F: Narrow surgical removal is always appropriate when diagnosing an injection site sarcoma.

A

FALSE it is never appropriate. Remove the entire tumor with wide margins (incisional biopsy).

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27
Q

Name several inverting suture patterns.

A

Connell
Cushing
Halsted
Lembert
Parker-Kerr
Purse string

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28
Q

Name several examples of appositional patterns.

A

Simple continuous
Simple interrupted
Cruciate
Gambee
Intradermal/subcuticular
Ford interlocking

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29
Q

What forms of lymphoma are commonly seen with FeLV infection?

A

GI lymphoma was commonly seen but has decreased significantly due to vaccination.

Other: Spinal, multicentric, mediastinal lymphoma

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30
Q

What are the two types of GI lymphoma? What are the clinical signs? Tx? Prognosis?

A

Small cell lymphoma - T cell in origin; slowly progressing. Low grade lymphoma. Stays confined to mucosa. Tx = pred and chlorambucil Prognosis is good.

Large cell lymphoma - B cell in origin; Found in intestinal wall, lymphadenopathy, hepatic involvement. High grade lymphoma. Tx - surgical removal only if no disease at other sites. Tx = CHOP; prognosis is guarded to poor with mean survival with tx 45-100 days.

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31
Q

Strangles is caused by? C/S? Dx? Tx? Transmission?

A

Caused by: Streptococcus equi subsp equi

C/S: submandibular lymphadenopathy, mucopurulent nasal discharge, fever, difficulty swallowing

Dx: PCR or culture on nasopharyngeal or guttoral pouch wash OR abscess lymph node exudate.

Tx: Procaine penicillin, supportive care

Transmission: Direct contact, fomites; HIGHLY CONTAGIOUS

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32
Q

How do you dx and tx a sinus infection in a horse?

A

Dx: radiographs

Tx: Trephination and lavage sinus cavity and systemic AB; if secondary sinusitis, tx underlying disease

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33
Q

You see pigs with intense pruritus, headshaking, and tiny red pimples + crusty deposits in their ears. What is your top differential? Tx?

A

Sarcoptic mange

Topical permethrin + injectable ivermectin

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34
Q

When do clinical signs associated with sarcoptic mange in pigs develop?

A

Several few weeks following exposure. At this point, most of the herd is affected.

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35
Q

What are your top two differentials for caseous exudate with necrotic foci in the mouth and esophagus of a bird?

A

Candidiasis (thrush) or trichomonosis

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36
Q

How do birds develop candidiasis? C/S? Dx? Tx?

A

Candida spp. are apart of normal GI flora. Birds succumb to disease if administered ab or unsanitary drinking facilities.

C/S: See caseous exudate in mouth and esophagus.

Dx: Epithelial hyperplasia, ballooning degeneration, visualization of pseudohyphae and blastospores.

Tx: No approved tx in U.S. Possibly nystatin?

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37
Q

How do birds develop trichomonosis? C/S? Dx? Tx?

A

Apart of normal flora

Contaminated water is most important source of infection.

Lesions start off as small, yellowish areas on oral mucosa then rapidly coalesce to form large masses.

Dx: histo

Tx: Possibly AB (metronidazole, other azoles)

Control: separate infected birds from breeding birds

38
Q

Porcine stress syndrome is caused by?

A

An autosommal recessive mutation of a Ca release channel in the sarcoplasmic reticulum

38
Q

What are some triggers of porcine stress syndrome?

A

Stress, inhalant anesthesia, depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs. Use preanesthetic sedatives, use total IV anesthesia when possible

38
Q

How can you treat porcine stress syndrome?

A

Prophylactically treat with dantrolene.
- NOTE: relatively ineffective if signs are severe. Discontinue anesthesia, ice baths, alcohol baths, Tx any arrhythmias

38
Q

Loss of patellar reflex and an inability to bear weight on hind limbs = lesion @?

A

L4-L6 aka where the femoral nerve is

39
Q

An intact withdrawal reflex means what nerve is not damaged?

A

The sciatic nerve is ok!

40
Q

If there was a lesion at L4-S3, what neuro signs would you see?

A

LMN signs in hind limbs

41
Q

If there was a lesion at T3-L3, what neuro signs would you see?

A

UMN - hind limbs

42
Q

If there was a lesion at C6-T2, what neuro signs would you see?

A

UMN - pelvic limbs
LMN - forelimbs

43
Q

If there was a lesion at C1-C5, what neuro signs would you see?

A

UMN - all limbs

44
Q

A lesion at C1-C5 can result in?

A

Death by respiratory failure

45
Q

What clinical signs may you see in a patient with a lesion at C6-T2?

A

absent cutaneous trunci, two different gaits being expressed by forelimbs and hindlimbs

46
Q

Horner syndrome occurs if there is a lesion at?

A

T1-T3

47
Q

“Bowed tendon” in horses is typical of?

A

Acute superficial digital flexor tendinitis

48
Q

Name the two causes of equine piroplasmosis. C/S? Dx? Tx?

A

Etiologies: Babesia caballi, Theileria equi

C/S: Fever, petechiae, hemolytic anemia, lethargy, pale/icteric mm, hemoglobinuria, etc.

Dx: Intra-erythrocytic organisms on blood smear and/or serology.

Tx: Imidocarb dipropionate

49
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of mycotic rhinitis?

A

White and dark spots on the surface of a nasal mass

50
Q

How can you treat mycotic rhinitis?

A

Tx success if poor but you can do sodium iodide or repeated cryotherapy

51
Q

What is pictured in this radiograph?

A

Patellar tendon rupture

52
Q

What medication is used to treat Chlamydia felis?

A

Oral doxycycline; treat all cats in the household at the same time!

53
Q

How do you confirm Chlamydia felis infection?

A

PCR testing

54
Q

Methicillin resistant staph pseudointermedius is resistant to what AB?

A

all beta lactam AB including penicillins, cephalosporins, and carbapenams; often also resistant to tetracycline and streptomycin

55
Q

If you are presented with a cow that has lymphadenopathy, nasal and oral ulceration, and is also aggressive with CNS signs, what is your top differential?

A

Malignant catarrhal fever

(not BVD b/c no neuro signs with BVD)

56
Q

List the etiology, pathogenesis, clinical signs, dx, tx and prevention for Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus

A

Etiology: BVDV, a pestivirus
Pathogenesis: If become infected between day 40-120, can become persistently infected.

C/S: Lethargy, diarrhea, anorexia, oral ulcers, etc. Cerebellar hypoplasia or death.

Dx: viral isolation or PCR on milk, serum, whole blood, tissues, or semen; paired serology to determine if recent infection or exposure or vaccination

Tx: supportive care

Prevention: test and remove PI calves; vaccinate

57
Q

How do you treat a patient with Cuterebra aka grubs, warbles?

A

Gently open the breathing hole and extract the grub WITHOUT rupturing it.

58
Q

Pilocarpine is a what kind of drug? Used to diagnose?

A

Topical miotic agent aka a pupil constrictor

Use to diagnose cranial nerve 3 lesions

59
Q

Tropicamide is a?

A

Topical mydriatic agent

60
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with HCM in cats? How is it Dx? Tx? Prognosis?

A

C/S: Often asymptomatic. If symptomatic, will present with respiratory distress, hind in paralysis due to aortic thromboembolism or sudden death.

Dx: Radiographs (dilated pulmonary vessels, alveolar pattern, cardiomegaly), echocardiogram

Tx: Acute = furosemide. Chronic = furosemide, clopidogrel (reduce risk of thromboembolism), enalapril (for hypertension), and pimobendan.

Prognosis: Guarded. Median survival time for severe cases is 3 months but varies.

61
Q

What is the most common cause of splenomegaly in cats?

A

Mast Cell Tumor

62
Q

A well-circumscribed, raised, pale pink, hairless mass is noted in a 10 yr old Siamese cat. Mandibular LN palpate normally. Bloodwork and labs all come back normal. FNA shows this below. What is your top differential? Tx? What is the prognosis?

A

Cutaneous MCT

Tx: Complete surgical excision is usually curative.

Prognosis: Unlike in dogs, cat MCT are not as aggressive. Extent of excision does not affect prognosis as recurrence is unlikely.

63
Q

What is the median survival time of a mammary tumor that is < 2 cm? What about if it is > 2 cm?

A

< 2 cm = 3 yr median survival time post-op

> 2 cm = 4-6 mo median survival time post-op

64
Q

Which cat breeds have a higher risk of developing mammary tumors?

A

Siamese and domestic shorthair cats. Siamese have 2x the risk of other breeds.

65
Q

A systolic BP of > 160 mmHg in a patient with clinical signs if indicative of ? While a systolic BP of > 180 without clinical signs is indicative of?

A

Target organ damage, Hypertension

66
Q

What two drugs can successfully manage hypertension in cats?

A

Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, and Telmisartan, an angiotensin-II receptor block (only FDA approved treatment for feline hypertension)

67
Q

Describe clinical signs, diagnostics, tx, and prevention for goats suffering from Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis (CAE):

A

C/S - Adults: Progressive polysynovitis, arthritis. Hard udder!!!

C//S - Kids: Encephalomyelitis, placing deficits in pelvic limbs, may progress to para or tetraparesis or paralysis

Etiology: Enveloped Single-stranded RNA lentivirus (Retroviridae family)

Dx: AGID (specific), ELISA(sensitive), Biopsy/necropsy to show lymphoproliferation w/ degenerative mononuclear cells = definitive, virus isolation or PCR

Tx: NONE

Prevent: Isolate kids @ birth & feed heat-treated colostrum, pasteurized milk. CULL seropositive animals

68
Q

How does Bluetongue present in small ruminants?

A

Lameness, changes @ the coronary band, crusty/scabby lesions on the nose.

69
Q

Describe the etiology, clinical signs, diagnostics, tx for Contagious Agalactia in sheep.

A

Etiology: Mycoplasma agalactiae

C/S: Hot, painful arthritis, pneumonia, keratoconjunctivitis

Dx: Culture, PCR on mammary and lung tissue/milk/joint fluid, ELISA

Tx: Cull infected animals

REPORTABLE DISEASE IN USA

70
Q

What medication is used to treat exaggerated pain responses following surgery?

A

Ketamine, a NMDA antagonist. NMDA antagonists prevent or minimize the amplification that causes sensitization.

71
Q

Name four NMDA receptor antagonists:

A

Ketamine, methadone (an opioid), amantadine (anti-viral), dextromethorphan (anti-tussive)

72
Q

These radiographs were taken of a 2-yr old FS mixed breed dog. What is the primary abnormality?

A

If you see the pulmonary artery is dilated - this is called the pulmonary knob sign and is a classic indicator of heartworm disease.

73
Q
A

If you see @ 1 oclock there is a prominent bulge - that is the aorta.

If you look at 2 oclock that bulge is the pulmonary artery.

And then at 2 oclock there is a bulge in the cardiac silhouette.

These three “bulges” are classic for patent ductus arteriosis.

74
Q

Describe what a patent ductus arteriosus is. C/S? Dx? Tx?

A

A PDA is a congenital defect in which the connection between the aorta and the pulmonary artery is still open after birth.

On PE, you will hear a consistent murmur at the left heart base and bounding pulses.

Dx: Rads, but mainly echo and angio.

Tx: Place an occluder and tx pulmonary edema (left heart failure) if present.

75
Q

What is pharmaceutical name for Vitamin K1?

A

Phytonadione

76
Q

Define accounts payable.

A

Accounts payable is how much money the practices owes someone else.

77
Q

Hemolytic-uremic syndrome is a fatal complication of?

A

Shiga-toxin producing E.coli infection

78
Q

What is the shortest effective treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity?

A

4-methylpyrazole

79
Q

What rate per hour is considered to be safe for lowering serum sodium levels in a 10 mo old puppy?

A

0.5-1 meQ/L/hr over 24-48 hrs

Can be increased to 1 if the known cause if hypernatremia

80
Q

What is the name of the rumen fluke?

A

Paramphistomum cervi.

Do not typically cause overt disease unless immature flukes attach to duodenum and ileum, then can cause severe enteritis, local damage leading to diarrhea, anorexia, polydipsia, etc.

81
Q

Specificity = true ?
Sensitivity = true ?

A

Specificity = true negatives; if a test is highly specific, you can trust a + result.

Sensitivity = true positives

82
Q

Describe a classic case of hardware disease. What is the best treatment?

A

Descreased milk production, tachypnea, lethargy, anorexia positive grunt test, arched back

Treat by performing a rumenotomy to remove hardware if rumen magnet does not work (which it does in 50% of cases)

83
Q

Describe a classic case of neonatal maladjustment syndrome. Tx? Prognosis?

A

Within first three days of life, foal loses interest in mother and stops suckling for milk.

Tx: AB, supportive care, maldigan squeeze

Prognosis is excellent with supportive care.

84
Q

Describe the clinical signs and radiographic findings of a canine patient with synovial cell sarcoma. How is it treated?

A

Limb lameness, progressive swelling, painful and firm on palpation, not warm.

On radiographs you see perarticular soft tissue swelling, poorly defined periosteal reaction, multifocal punctat osteolytic lesions.

Tx: limb amputation as proximal as possible to decrease recurrence +/- adjuvant chemo

85
Q

List the risk factors of gastric ulcers in pigs.

A

Episodes in which they had no access to feed, finely ground (usually pelletted) feed which decreases gut transit time.

86
Q

What is the most common cite for OCD in horses?

A

Distal Intermediate Ridge of the Tibia AKA DIRT LESION

87
Q

An upside-down U shaped urinary bladder in a horse is indicative of?

A

Bladder rupture –> uroperitoneum

88
Q
A

NAVLE (12 decks)

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