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NAVLE > General Info - Ovine > Flashcards

General Info - Ovine Flashcards

1
Q

Contagious ecthyma, also known as “orf” is caused by?

A

A parapox virus (related to pseudocowpox and bovine papillary stomatitis virus)

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2
Q

How do you Dx orf?

A

PCR or electron microscopy

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3
Q

How long does a case of orf typically last? What do you do with infected individuals?

A

1-4 weeks
Isolate or cull the affected sheep and vaccinate the rest

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4
Q

T/F: Your sheep farm is orf-free and you want to keep it that way! So you think the best way is to vaccinate all sheep with a live vaccine.

A

FALSE - you should not vaccinate on orf-free farms because that can actually cause disease.

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4
Q

Is Orf a zoonotic disease?

A

Yes! It is highly contagious and zoonotic. Can be transmitted via direct contact with affected animals or via live vaccine

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5
Q

T/F: Orf is more severe in goats than sheep, but it is less common goats.

A

TRUE

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6
Q

Enterotoxemia is also known as?

A

Bloody scours because you see bloody diarrhea in lambs and kids that drank too much milk/indigestion.

Other C/S: Anorexia, lethargy, GI pain, seizures, opisthotonus, ataxia or peracute death w/o premonitory signs

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7
Q

Enterotoxemia type D is also called?

A

Pulpy kidney & overeating disease because it is seen in the fastest growing, healthiest animals. Same C/S as bloody scours

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8
Q

Lambs and ewes usually contract tetanus due to?

A

A wound that they acquired 10-14 days prior.

First starts off as a stiffening of the masseter muscles aka lockjaw and then progresses to generalized stiffness aka sawhorse stance.

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9
Q

Name the toxin that causes Enterotoxemia Types C and D

A

Type C = Beta toxin –> intestinal damage

Type D = Epsilon toxin

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10
Q

Clostridium is what type of bacteria?

A

Gram +, rod shaped bacteria

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11
Q

What additive can help stabilize a sample from a patient diagnosed with enterotoxemia?

A

Chloroform

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12
Q

How can you prevent Enterotoxemia & Tetanus infection in sheep?

A

Vaccinate with the CD&T vaccine (Enterotoxemia Type C, D and Tetanus) when young 2x + ~ 1 mo before parturition.

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13
Q

T/F: Enterotoxemia is more common in sheep than in goats.

A

True

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14
Q

How can you prevent Enterotoxemia Type C and Type D infection?

A

Type C = good udder hygiene, vaccinate

Type D = minimize rapid feed changes + vaccinate

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15
Q

What parasite of ovine is pictured?

A

H. contortus aka the barber pole worm.

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16
Q

Name the etiologic agent of coccidiosis in sheep

A

Eimeria spp.

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17
Q

What parasite of sheep is pictured ?

A

GI parasite - Telodorsagia circumcincta (formerly Ostertagia)

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18
Q

What parasite of sheep is pictured?

A

Trichostrongylus spp.

Causes gastroenteritis of growing lambs mid-summer onwards.

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19
Q

T/F: Fecal egg count is not very sensitive.

A

TRUE

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20
Q

In order to dx coccidiosis you need?

A

> 20,000 oocysts/g of feces

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21
Q

What do you see an increase of in a case of Teladorsagia?

A

Plasma pepsinogen levels

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22
Q

How do you treat a case of Eimeria/coccidiosis?

A

Once diagnosed, treatment is actually ineffective. However, you can reduce the severity of infection by giving toltrazuril, diclazuril, or sulfaquinoxaline as well as rotating pastures.

To prevent, reduce stress and maintain nutrition + you can give prophylactic coccidiostats to lambs for 28 days during new pasture introduction.

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23
Q

Eimeria, Telodorsagia, Trichostrongylus, and H. contortus all inhabit ?

A

The abomasum

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24
Q

Which GI parasites are more common in cooler winter/rainfall climates?

A

Tichostrongylus and Telodorsagia circumcincta

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25
Q

What gI parasites are more common in tropical or subtropical climates?

A

H. contortus

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26
Q

What LN are most commonly affected in a case of Caseous lymphadenitis?

A

Submandibular, parotid, prescapular, prefemoral

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27
Q

What is the etiology of caseous lymphadenitis?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis a gram + facultative intracellular bacterium

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28
Q

How do you treat a case of caseous lymphadenitis in a valuable sheep vs a non-valuable sheep?

A

Non-valuable = cull

Valuable = isolate + lance, drain, lavage with iodine solution OR surgically excision OR formalin injection if not being consumed by humans

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29
Q

T/F: Vaccination against Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis prevents disease.

A

False, it reduces incidence.

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30
Q

What are the classic clinical signs of a sheep with ovine progressive pneumonia and maedi-visna?

A

Sheep > 4 yrs of age; Progressive wasting, respiratory distress

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31
Q

What are the classic clinical signs of a sheep with ovine pulmonary adenocarcinoma?

A

Respiratory distress, crackles throughout lung fields + copious nasal dc

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32
Q

What are the classic clinical signs of a sheep with caprine arthritis encephalitis?

A

Arthritis + neuro signs

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33
Q

OPA is caused by?

A

Jaagsiekte sheep retrovirus

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34
Q

OPP, M-V, CAE, and OPA are caused by?

A

Retroviruses

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35
Q

List the etiologies of pneumonia in lambs and kids:

A

PI-3, adenovirus, respiratory syncytial virus, +/- secondary bacterial infection

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36
Q

Dictyocaulus filaria like to reside in the?

A

Bronchi

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37
Q

Muellerius capillaris like to reside in?

A

Alveoli and lunch parenchyma (worse in goats than sheep)

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38
Q

How do you treat cases of OPP, M-V, CAE ?

A

Cull positive animals

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39
Q

Is there tx for OPP, M-V, CAE, and OPA?

A

None

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40
Q

T/F: Parasitic pneumonia affects margins of diaphragmatic lung lobes and is rarely clincal

A

True

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41
Q

Compare and contrast a classic case of caprine arthritis encephalitis in adults vs kids

A

Adults = progressive polysynovitis/arthritis
- swollen joints
- indurative mastitis aka hard bag –> agalactia

Kids = encephalomyelitis
- placing deficits which may progress into para or tetraparesis

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42
Q

What causes caprine arthritis encephalitis?

A

Enveloped, single stranded RNA lentivirus from the retrovirus family

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43
Q

When diagnosing CAE, what test is the most sensitive and which is the most specific?

A

Most sensitive = ELISA
Most specific = AGID

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44
Q

How can you prevent CAE?

A

Isolate kids @ birth and feed heat-treated colostrum, pasteurized milk

Serology of herd biannually + eventually cull seropositive animals

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45
Q

What will you likely see on bloodwork of a late gestation dam with pregnancy toxemia? On necropsy?

A

Elevated serum beta-hydroxybutyric acid (BHB) and increased urine ketones +/- hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia.

Necropsy: hepatic lipidosis, adrenal enlargement, increased BHB in aqueous humor, CSF

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46
Q

Sheep should not enter the last 6 weeks of pregnancy with a BCS of less than?

A

2.5

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47
Q

Serum BHB levels should be ?

A

1.7 mmol/L

48
Q

You know you are dealing with a ruptured bladder when?

A

The fluid aspirated on abdominocentesis has a creatinine 2x that of peripheral blood

49
Q

If a sheep is suffering from urethral obstruction, what do you do?

A

Tube cystotomy to allow calculi to be expelled spontaneously over time

50
Q

If a sheep is early/mild/partially obstructed, what do you do?

A

Antispasmodics/tranquilizers to relax sigmoid flexure of penis

51
Q

If a sheep is blocked at the urethral process what do you do?

A

Amputate

52
Q

If a sheep has a ruptured urethra or bladder, what do you do?

A

Drain uroperitoneum slowly via teat cannula or trocar.

PU as salvage procedure. Usually can not repair and cull within 3-4 months

53
Q

How do struvite stones form?

A

Lots of grain with low calcium: phosphorous ratio

54
Q

How do silica stones form?

A

Associated with grazing on silica rich soil

55
Q

This is commonly seen in cases of copper toxicity in sheep.

A

Photosensitization

56
Q

This is classically seen in what disease? And at what stage? What is a clinical sign resulting from this?

A

Acute copper toxicity in sheep

Dark urine!!

57
Q

What can be used to tx ACUTE copper toxicity in sheep

A

Penicillamine = enhances copper excretion

Vitamin C = antioxidant for erythrocyte damage

58
Q

Ammonium tetrathiomolybdate can?

A

Decrease liver copper absorption and increase liver copper excretion BUT HAS A 10 DAY WITHDRAWAL PERIOD

59
Q

What factors affect copper metabolism?

A

STRESS –> causes sudden release and acute hemolytic crisis

Low molybdenum = excess copper retention

Low sulfur, zinc, calcium in diet

Heliotropium europaeum or Senecio have hepatotoxic alkaloids –> liver disease –> release of copper into bloodstream and hemolysis

60
Q

Treatment for polled intersex syndrome?

A

CULL, do not breed

61
Q

Polledness is what type of trait?

A

Autosomal dominant trait in males and females

62
Q

Intersexism is a _________ trait seen only in ?

A

recessive, polled females

63
Q

Corrynebacterium renale is?

A

Gram + diptheroid bacterium that hydrolyzes urea

64
Q

C. renale typically seen in?

A

castrated males

65
Q

C. renale clincal signs ?

A

Preputial swelling that can progress to straining to urinate and swelling, +/- redness of vulva and clitoris

66
Q

How can you prevent C. renale infection?

A

Low-protein diet

High protein diet leads to increased urea –> increased ammonia produced by C. renale which irriates penis and urethra. If animal has dirt caked in hair around prepuce or too short or too long hair = alters urine flow

67
Q

What is the pathogenesis of blue tongue?

A

Widespread vasculitis in fine-wool and mutton breeds of sheep

68
Q

What are the key clinical signs of blue tongue?

A

Edema of face, cyanotic oral mucosa and tongue, serous to mucopurulent nasal DC as well as internal system damage

69
Q

Blue tongue is caused by?

A

Orbivirus transmitted by Culicoides spp. (midges or gnats)

70
Q

What is pictured?

A

Bluetongue virus

71
Q

T/F: There are modified live vaccines available for some serovars of blue tongue.

A

True!

72
Q

What is the incubation time for heartwater?

A

7-35 days

73
Q

Key clinical signs of heart water include?

A

Fever, listlessness, and progressive neuro signs

74
Q

What is the etiology of heartwater?

A

Ehrlichia ruminantium transmitted by Ambylomma tick

75
Q

How do you tx heartwater?

A

Tetracycline (but can only be used early on in disease which is hard because you usually dont see until c/s more severe)

76
Q

What disease process is pictured here?

A

Hair loss adjacent to tail head
Key C/S of Scrapie

77
Q

What are the key clinical signs of scrapie?

A

Behavioral changes (sudden aggression, vacant fixed stare), progressive weight loss, pruritis, hair loss adjacent to tail head, “scratch reflex”

78
Q

Scrapie is caused by?

A

Scrappie is a transmission spongiform encephalopathy transmitted caused by transmissible prion PrPSC

79
Q

Antemortem testing for scrapie vs post mortem testing for scrapie
?

A

ante mortem = IHC on biopsies of lymphoid tissue (rectal mucosa easiest) or third eyelid

post mortem = brain ihc

80
Q

How do you treat scrapie?

A

Test and cull

Inform USDA/APHIS

81
Q

How do you prevent scrapie?

A

breed resistant genotypes

82
Q

What is the pathogenesis of scrapie?

A

Abnormal PrPSC converts cellular prion protein protein PrPc and accumulates as amyloid plaque in lymphoreticular and neural tissues.

83
Q

What is the incubation time of scrapie?

A

2-5 years

84
Q

T/F: Scrapie is always fatal and reportable?

A

TRUE

85
Q

Border disease causes ?

A

Barren dams, abortion of mummified or macerated lambs (if cervix open, not macerated)

in lambs - hairy wool, lo birth weight

86
Q

What causes border disease?

A

Flaviviriidae

87
Q

How do you dx border disease?

A

Fluorescent AB on aborted fetal tissue or PI animals; blood of affected lambs before colostral intake b/c maternal AB interfere

Necropsy: myelin deficiency, hypercellularity of white matter

88
Q

Prevention for border disease?

A

Eliminate PI animals from flock; test all animals at birth

89
Q

how is border disease spread?

A

Vertical and venereal spread

90
Q

What is a possible side effect of Xylazine in sheep and goats?

A

Hypoxemia
- Sometimes fatal
- Esp when administered IV

Preferably sedate sheep with a benzodiazepene (midazolam, diazepam)

91
Q

T/F: Hyperventilation is a common side effect of sedation in ruminants, regardless of what medication you use.

A

FALSE - Hypoventilation is

92
Q

Is the toxic dose of lidocaine lower or higher in small ruminants compared to dogs/horses?

A

Lower

93
Q

What is the primary lesion in rams with Brucella ovis?

A

Epididymitis.

94
Q

How are valuable vs nonvaluable rams suffering from Brucella treated?

A

Nonvaluable - cull

Valuable - chlorotetracycline or streptomycin

95
Q

Name two infectious causes of arthrogryposis in sheep and goats.

A

Bluetongue virus and akabane virus

96
Q

What is the most common toxic cause of arthrogryposis in calves and lambs?

A

Lupine plants because they contain quinolizidine alkaloids

97
Q

List the clinical signs seen in cases of contagious agalactia

A

Hot, painful arthritis
Pneumonia
Keratoconjunctivitis
In sheep: mastitis –> fibrotic and atrophied udders

98
Q

How do you dx patients with contagious agalactia?

A

PCR testing of clinical samples, such as mammary lung tissue, milk, and joint fluid.

OR

Detection of serum AB by ELISA

99
Q

What is the best form of tx for patients suffering from contagious agalactia?

A

Cull; reportable disease

100
Q

Why are kids and lambs under 3 days of age generally more affected by Clostridium perfringens type B and C?

A

B/c they lack the pancreatic proteolytic enzyme needed to inactivate the beta toxin (toxin produced by Type B and C) which is why newborns are disproportionately affected.

101
Q

What are the major clinical signs of Clostridium perfringens type B in kids or lambs?

A

Watery diarrhea with flecks of blood prior to death (1-3 days old); On necropsy find diffuse hemorrhage in abomasum and intestines.

102
Q

What medications are labeled to treat bacterial pneumonia in sheep?

A

Oxytetracycline, tilmicosin, and ceftiofur

103
Q

What drug can be used to synchronize estrus in ewes?

A

PGF2a

104
Q

T/F: Like horses, ruminants are affected by the ingestion of Centaurea spp aka Yellow star thistle or russian knapweed.

A

FALSE

They are not!!

105
Q

How are cases of pregnancy toxemia treated?

A

Emergency c-section, IVF, glucose, acid-base correction and other electrolyte abnormalities.

106
Q

What is the best way to prevent Vibriosis abortion in ewes?

A

Vibriosis is caused by Campylobacter fetus feuts, jejuni jejuni, and C. lari –> late term abortion, autolyzed fetus.

Prevent by vaccinating!

107
Q

How do you diagnose Campylobacter in sheep?

A

Darkfield or fluroescent AB of placental tissue, uterine discharge, fetal abomasal contents, liver, or lungs

108
Q

Name the common sheep tapeworm and the side effects of infection.

A

Moniezia expansa.

nonpathogenic in low numbers. heavy infestation leads to GI disturbances, typically in sheep 4-5 mo old

109
Q

What is the most common cause of clinical mastitis in small ruminants?

A

Staph aureus

110
Q

What organ sample is the best to use for measurement white muscle disease?

A

Liver!!

111
Q

What is the most common cause of viral diarrhea in lambs and kids?

A

Rotavirus

5 days to 2 weeks old

112
Q

Name the major pathogens that cause diarrhea in lambs and kids:

A
113
Q

Name the parasite pictured here

A

Fasciola hepatica eggs

114
Q

What is the main difference between sheep and goat estrus cycles?

A

Sheep - 17 day estrous cycle
Goats - 21 day estrous cycle

115
Q

Ingestion of what plant can cause the congenital defect cyclops in lambs?

A

False hellebore, skunk cabbage

By ewes on day 14 of gestation will produce lambs with cyclops.

116
Q

What is the most common cause of abortion storms in sheep in the western u.s.?

A

Campylobacter fetus

117
Q
A

NAVLE (12 decks)

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