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NAVLE > General Info - Canine > Flashcards

General Info - Canine Flashcards

1
Q

You recently diagnosed a canine patient with Hyperadrenocorticism. What would you expect to see on this patient’s bloodwork in order to have helped you reach this conclusion?

A
  1. Elevated ALP
  2. Hypercholesterolemia
  3. Hyposthenuria +/- proteinuria
  4. Stress leukogram = neutrophilia, eosinopenia, lymphopenia
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2
Q

What is the function of trilostane?

A

Inhibits cortisol producing enzyme

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3
Q

What is the function of Lysodren?

A

Kills cells in adrenals that makes cortisol

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4
Q

What is the difference between IVDD seen in chondrodystrophic breeds vs nonchondrodystrophic breeds?

A

Chondrodystrophic: Nucleus pulposus extrudes through the annulus fibrosus.

Nonchondrodystrophic: Hypertrophy/bulging of the annulus pulposus.

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5
Q

The heartworm snap test detects?

A

Adult female worms 5+ mo post infection

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6
Q

List the intermediate hosts of heartworm disease:

A

Aedes, Anopeles, Culex

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7
Q

Fipronil kills?

A

Adult fleas

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8
Q

Lufeneuron does?

A

Inhibits flea development

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9
Q

List the radiographic changes/signs of canine hip dysplasia:

A
  1. Flattened femoral head
  2. Poor femoral head coverage
  3. Shallow acetabulum
  4. Femoral head/neck thickening
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10
Q

What % of the femoral head is covered by the acetabulum in canine hip dysplasia patients?

A

50%

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11
Q

When is PennHIP most accurate?

A

Early in life than OFA

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12
Q

Who are the poster children for panosteitis?

A

Vizlas

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13
Q

What is the difference, in terms of physical exam findings, between panosteitis, HOD, and OCD?

A

Panosteitis: pain on long bone (femur, humerus, radius, ulna, tibia) palpation.

HOD: pain when palpating near metaphysis

OCD: Joint effusion, decreased range of motion.

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14
Q

What is the difference, in terms of radiographic findings, between panosteitis, HOD, and OCD?

A

Panosteitis: increased medullary opacity, periosteal new bone.

HOD: “double physis”

OCD: flattening of femmoral head, joint mice, effusion

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15
Q

What clinical signs are seen with ethylene glycol toxicity @ 1-2 hrs & 24-72 hrs?

A

1-2 hrs = stuporous, disoriented, nauseous

24-72 = renal failure signs, vomiting, anorexic, PU/PD,

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16
Q

The Ethylene glycol test is only good for what amt of time post ingestion?

A

30 min - 12 hrs

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17
Q

How long does it take for calcium oxalate crystals to form in EG patients urine?

A

3-18 hrs

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18
Q

An osmole gap of = is suggestive of EG toxicity?

A

osmole gap > 20

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19
Q

What is the MOA of Fomepizole in treating EG toxicity?

A

Prevents conversion of EG to toxic metabolites.

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20
Q

Parvovirus is what type of virus?

A

Nonenveloped single stranded DNA virus

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21
Q

Parvovirus attacks?

A

Bone marrow, lymphopoietic tissue, and small intestinal crypts –> villous blunting

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22
Q

You are presented with a 5 yr old lab that is experiencing weight gain, lethargy, exercise intolerance, bilateral nonpruritic alopecia with a rat tail, and dry coat.

You suspect your patient has Hypothyroidism and want to run some tests to confirm your suspicions. What would you expect for the following values:

Total T4
Free T4
TSH

Explain your thought process

A

In patients with hypothyroidism, you would typically see a low T4 (but this is not confirmatory of true hypothyroidism, so need to check Free T4 and TSH. If free T4 is low = true hypothyroidism, if normal = sick euthyroid syndrome. Lastly, if TSH is high = true hypothyroidism, if normal or low = most likely sick euthyroid syndrome.

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23
Q

Pre-renal vs renal vs post renal azotemia

A
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24
Q

List the etiologies of kennel cough

A

Bordatella bronchiseptica, canine adenovirus 2, canine influenza virus H3N8 & H3N2, Mycoplasma, canine parainfluenza, +/- distemper virus

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25
Q

What two drugs can cause temporary megaesophagus?

A

Ketamine, xylazine

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26
Q

Which cystic calculi are radioopaque?

A

Struvite, calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, silica, +/- cystine

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27
Q

How would you treat a case of cystitis or struvite crystals?

A

AB or sx or medial dissolution with diet.

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28
Q

How would you treat a case of calcium oxalate or phosphate crystals?

A

Sx and low protein alkaline promoting urine diet

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29
Q

How would you treat a case of cystine crystals?

A

Low protein and low methionine for 1 mo past dissolution then low protein renal diet

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30
Q

List the etiologies for fleas in canids and felids:

A

Felids: C. felis
Canids: C. canis

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31
Q

List the etiologies for mites in canids and felids:

A

Sarcoptes scabei, Cheyletiellosis

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32
Q

T/F: Dogs are usually infected with cat fleas

A

True

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33
Q

How do you treat flea infestation in dogs?

A

Fipronil in puppies > 8 weeks of age

Lufenuron or Selamectin in puppies > 6 weeks of age

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34
Q

How would you treat mites in dogs?

A

Lime sulfur dips, Selamectin, fluralner, ivermectin

35
Q

How would you treat tick infestation in dogs?

A

Remove, fluralener, fipronil

36
Q

What clinical signs are more common in young dogs with distemper?

A

Forebrain signs - seizures, pacing, head-pressing, visual deficits, behavioral changes

37
Q

What clinical signs are more common in older dogs with distemper?

A

Cerebellar, brainstem, spinal cord
Cerebellar = ataxia, hypermetria, intention tremors

Brainstem = vestibular, nystagmus, head tilt, facial and tongue paralysis

Spinal chord = hyperreflexia, parlysis/paresis

38
Q

List the etiologic agents for the following in dogs:

  1. Roundworms
  2. Hookworms
  3. Whipworms
  4. Tapeworm
A
  1. Roundworms = Toxocara canis
  2. Hookworms = Ancyclostoma caninum
  3. Whipworms = Trichuris vulpis
  4. Tapeworm = Dipylidium caninum
39
Q

How do you treat the following in dogs:

  1. Roundworms
  2. Hookworms
  3. Whipworms
  4. Tapeworm
A
  1. Roundworms, Hookworms = pyrantel
  2. Whipworms = fenbendazole
  3. Tapeworm = praziquantel
40
Q

How are the following transmitted:

  1. Roundworms
  2. Hookworms
  3. Whipworms
  4. Tapeworm
A
  1. Roundworms = mammary, placenta, egg infestation or transport hosts
  2. Hookworms = ingestion of larvae in feces, trans-mammary, direct cutaneous penetration
  3. Whipworms = ingestion of infected eggs 2-4 weeks after shed in dog feces
  4. Tapeworm = ingestion of infected prey or fleas
41
Q

What drugs pass the BBB?

A

Lomustine, Cytarabine

42
Q

What is the normal PCV/TS range in a canine? Blood glucose?

A

PCV = 35-57
TS = 5.4-7.5
BG = 63-114

43
Q

What is the normal ratio of Na:K?

A

> 27:1

44
Q

What are the causes of addison’s disease?

A

Immune mediated destruction of adrenal cortex, iatrogenic due to chronic steroid usage with no tapering, or with mitotane/trilostane therapy (used for HYPERadrenocorticism)

45
Q

When you think of Addison’s disease, what electrolyte abnormalities are the first that come to mind?

A

Na and K, specifically hyponatremia and hyperkalemia.

46
Q

What is the most common form of Addison’s disease?

A

Glucocorticoid and mineralcorticoid deficiency

47
Q

What do we expect to see in the erythrogram of an Addisonian patient and why?

A

Normocytic, normochromic, nonregenerative anemia b/c cortisol deficiency –> less RBC production (since cortisol is needed for RBC production)

48
Q

What would be the results of ACTH stim test in an addisonian patient?

A

pre and post ACTH cortisol < 2 mcg/dL

49
Q

What is the purpose of ACTH stim test?

A

To rule in or rule out Hypoadrenocorticism

If baseline > 2 = rules out hypoadrenocorticism

If baseline < 2 = need to do an ACTH stim

50
Q

When looking at results of a LDDST, how do you determine whether or not the patient has Cushing’s?

A

First look @ 8 hrs. If > N = Cushing’s, if < N = not Cushing’s

Then look at pre-dex (baseline) cortisol and take 50% of that value.

Then look @ 4 hrs. If the 50% value is < 4 hrs = PD Cushing’s, if > = Either PD or AD Cushing’s

51
Q

You suspect a patient has cushing’s disease, what tests do you run and in what order?

A

UCCR, then LDDST. If still unclear, do ACTH stim for iatrogenic cushing’s

52
Q

What ACTH stim results do you expect to see in a patient with iatrogenic cushing’s?

A

low pre and post cortisol b/c since this is caused by giving steroids in a different form, the body stops making as much cortisol and the adrenals are atrophied/quiescent

53
Q

What LDDST results do you expect to see in a PD Cushinoid patient? AD ?

A

PD @ 4 hrs = yes or no suppression, @ 8 hrs = no suppression

AD @ 4 hrs = no suppression, @ 8 hrs = no suppression

54
Q

What T4 and TSH results do you expect to see in a patient with hypothyroidism?

A

Free T4 = low, TSH = high

55
Q
A

Toxocara canis
Canine Roundworm

56
Q
A

Dipylidium caninum
Canine tapeworm

57
Q
A

Trichuris vulpis
Canine whipworm

58
Q
A

Vomitus with T. canis (blacarrows) and D. caninum (inside blue circle)

59
Q
A

T. canis egg

60
Q
A

A. caninum
Canine hookworm

61
Q
A

T. vulpis
Canine whipworm

62
Q
A

D. caninum
Canine tapeworm

63
Q

What is the classic presentation of a canine patient with Wobbler’s Syndrome?

A

A Doberman pinscher/Great Dane that is at least 7 yrs of age presents for progressive hindlimb weakness and ataxia +/- forelimb involvement

64
Q

What are the etiologies of wobbler syndrome in dogs?

A

Disc associated = congenital vertebral canal stenosis with later intervertebral disc extrusion

Osseous-associated = osseous malformation and osteoarthritis compress the spinal chord

65
Q

T/F: Selamectin and doramectin are safe in MDR1 dogs.

A

True

66
Q

The most common nasal tumor in dogs is?

A

Adenocarcinoma

67
Q

What would you see on BW in a canine patient with hyperadrenocorticism?

A

Hypercholesterolemia, elevated ALP, stress leukogram, thrombocytosis, hyposthenuria +/- proteinuria

68
Q

What medication is used to treat canine hyperadrenocorticism?

A

Trilostane - inhibits enzyme key in cortisol production
Lysodren - kills cells that make cortisol

69
Q

What would you see on BW in a canine patient with hyporthyroidism?

A

Low Total T4, normal to increased TSH
Hypercholesterolemia and triglyceridemia, mild non-regenerative anemia

70
Q

What medication is used to treat canine hyporthyroidism?

A

Levothyroxine (Oral T4)

71
Q

How do you treat canine diabetes mellitus?

A

HIGH FIBER DIET (different from cats where you want low carb, NO fiber)

Insulin - long acting = NPH, vetsulin)

72
Q

What would you see on BW in a canine patient with hypoadrenocorticism?

A

Lack of a stress leukogram despite begin so sick, hyponatremia and hypokalemia (normal Na:K ratio is 27:1), isosthenuria

73
Q

Cervical Stenotic Myelopathy is also known as?

A

Wobbler’s Syndrome

74
Q

Cervical stenotic myelopathy, aka Wobbler’s Syndrome, is commonly seen in?

A

Large or giant breed dogs.
- Large breed > 7 yrs
- Giant breed at least 3 yrs

75
Q

What are the classic clinical signs of a canine patient with Wobbler’s Syndrome? What causes these clinical signs?

A

Chronic progressive hindlimb weakness and ataxia +/- forelimb involvement.

There are two forms of Wobbler’s Syndrome: Disc-associated = congenital vertebral canal stenosis w/ intervertebral disc extrusion OR Osseous-associated with osseous malformation and osteoarthritis compressing the spinal chord.

76
Q

How do you diagnose wobbler’s syndrome?

A

Spinal radiographs to r/o other disease. Definitive diagnosis via MRI, CT with myelogram (uses contrast die to determine if there is a problem in the spinal chord).

77
Q

How is Wobbler’s syndrome treated?

A

Exercise restriction and steroids or NSAIDs. 50% of cases will improve with just this.

80% of cases will improve with surgical treatment.

78
Q

What is the prognosis of wobbler syndrome?

A

Most dogs deteriorate within 3 years of diagnosis, regardless of treatment

79
Q

What can be seen in these xrays of a 12 year old Labrador retriever?

A

Hypoinflation of the lungs. `

80
Q

How would you treat a ceruminous gland adenocarcinoma?

A

Total ear canal ablaton with a bulla osteotomy

81
Q

Why is Hypertonic saline chosen over Mannitol to treat ICP in dogs?

A

B/c while mannitol is a hyperosmotic agent that is used to treat ICP, it can exacerbate dehydration which makes it less desirable to treat patients in shock.

82
Q

Answer the following in regards to Canine Hepatozoonosis:
1. Etiology
2. Clinical signs
3. Dx
4. Tx
5. Prognosis

A
  1. Hepatozoon americanum; transmitted by ticks or ingestion of a carcass infested with H. americanum cystozooites.
  2. Clinical signs: fever, depression, mucopurulet ocular discharge, muscle wasting and pain, weakness, cervical guarding, hyperesthesia.
  3. Marked neutrophilic leukocytosis is the most common lab finding.
  4. Combo of TMS, Clindamycin, and pyrimethamine. NO CURE
83
Q

Answer the following in regards to meningioencephalitis:
1. Etiology
2. Clinical signs
3. Diagnosis
4. Tx
5. Prognosis

A
  1. Etiology: presumed immune-mediated. Pugs, yorkies, maltese, and other small breeds are overrepresented.
  2. Clinical signs: seizures, altered mentation, torticollis, hemiparesis.
  3. Diagnosis: CSF and MRI
  4. Tx: immunosuppression, anti-seizure meds
  5. Prognosis: Fair to guarded.
84
Q

What is the best and safest treatment for demodicosis?

A

Fluralaner, an oral isoxazoline.

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