Incorrect MCQ - Week of 11/25 Flashcards
What is Dourine disease?
How is it transmitted?
What is the etiologic agent?
What are the clinical signs?
Is this disease commonly found in the U.S?
This disease is similar to what other disease process of horses?
Dourine disease is a chronic venereal disease of horses.
Transmitted during sexual intercourse.
Etiologic agent is Trypanosoma equiperdum.
Clinical signs include mucoid vaginal discharge (containing trypanosomes) and genital edema in mares and progresses to gross edema of the genitalia, “silver dollar” dermal plaques, emaciation, progressive paralysis.
This disease is not commonly found in the U.S. It is reportable!!
This disease is similar to Contagious Equine Metritis. Caused by Taylorella equigenitalis. Think of mucopurulent vaginal discharge & endometritis in a horse recently imported from Europe or Japan. This disease is reportable!!!
What dog breeds are prediposed to developing dilated cardiomyopathy?
List the etiologies of DCM.
List the diagnostic and tx options for DCM.
Prognosis
Great Danes
Doberman Pinschers
Irish Wolfounds
Standard Poodles
Boxers
Cocker Spaniels
Etiologies:
1. Taurine deficiency
2. Carnitine responsive - boxers
3. Chagas disease
4. Parvovirus infection (in utero) - rare b/c of vaccination
5. Adriamycin/Doxorubicin (cumulative doses)
Dx:
1. Radiographs = generalized cardiomegaly, dilated pulmonary vessels, +/- perihilar infiltrate in compensated disease
2. ECG: ventricular ectopic beats commonly seen
3. Echo: LA and LV dilation (left auricular bulge), mitral valve regurg, +/- RA and RV dilation
Tx:
1. Antiarrthymics: Sotalol, mexilitene
2. ACE Inhibitors: Enalapril (Inhibits conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II –> lowers BP)
3. Positive ionotrope/Inodilator: Pimobendan (increases cardiac contractility and promotes vasodilation)
4. Loop diuretic: Furosemide (for CHF cases)
Prognosis is fair. Dogs can live for several years. If started before onset of CHF, Pimobendan can extend life expectancy by 1 yr but then prognosis after that is poor.
Dobermans have two genetic mutations that can lead to the development of DCM - name them. What is the likelihood of developing DCM if a patient has both genetic mutations?
PDK4, DCM2
Dogs with both genetic mutations are 30x more likely to develop DCM than a normal dog.
Define insensible fluids. What is the normal volume loss for insensible fluids in a dog for a 24-hr time period?
Insensible fluids are fluids the animals loses that are hard to measure, such as breathing.
20 ml/kg/day
What are the clinical signs of small intestinal incarceration or strangulation in horses?
How is it diagnosed? Treated?
SI incarceration can occur through?
C/S: Progressively painful, copious nasogastric reflux, deteriorating metabolic status
Dx:
1. Rectal exam - multiple loops of distended small intestine
2. Rectal US - same as above
3. Place NG tube - copious NG reflux (more than 2L)
Tx: Sx +/- resection
SI incarceration can occur through the epiploic foramen, mesenteric rents, inguinal orifice, umbilical orifice
Define Evans syndrome.
What dog breed is predisposed to this condition?
Evans syndrome is IMHA + IMT
Cocker spaniels are prediposed.
Pseudocowpox leave what characteristic lesion?
Pseudocowpox heal from the center and leave a characteristic horseshoe or ring of scabs.
This disease is zoonotic! Milkers will have lesions on their hands.
Prolonged tx for EPM with antifolate AB like sulfadiazine or sulfamethoxazole may cause?
Anemia
Monitor CBC
What is the meningeal worm of white-tailed deer? What does it cause?
Paralaphostrongylus tenuis (P. tenuis) causes traumatic and inflammatory myeloencephalomeningitis in cervids, goats, and sheep and less often can infect cattle and camelids. Pass through host CNS as part of their lifecycle.
What AB should be avoided when treating cases of botulism and why?
Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside AB, should be avoided due to its association with the adverse effect of neuromuscular blockade. Other adverse effects of aminoglycosides include nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.
Necroticizing meningoencephalitis is most commonly seen in what dog breeds of what age group?
What are the clinical signs? Dx? Tx?
Prognosis
Pugs < 5 yo (usually around 18 mo old), Maltese, Yorkie, Chihuahua, French bulldogs
Clinical signs include forebrain, brainstem, or meningitis neurological signs.
Dx: MRI, CSF tap
Tx:
1. Anti-seizure medications
2. Immunosuppressants: corticosteroids +/- cyclosporine, mycophenolate, cytarabine
Prognosis is fair to guarded; 1-2 yrs
What types of flies are these? What disease do they carry?
What are the C/S, dx, and tx? Prevention?
These are horn flies and they carry Stephanofilaria stilesi, the causative agent of stephanofilariasis.
C/S: plaque-like dermatitis along the ventral midline of cattle.
Dx: microfilaria on deep skin scraping.
Tx: Incidental finding - no tx needed.
Prevention: Dust bags, feed-through insect growth regulators or insecticides, insecticide impregnated ear tags, or pour-on insecticides.
What are the clinical signs of pericardial effusion in a dog? List the etiologies, diagnostics, and tx
C/S: Exercise intolerance, tachycardia, tachypnea, muffled heart sounds, abdominal distension, pale mm, pulsus paradoxocus
Dx:
1. Radiographs - round, globoid cardiac silhouette; dilated caudal vena cava, ascites
2. ECG - tachycardia, electrical alterans
3. Echocardiogram - fluid filled pericardium, failing right heart, possible mass
Tx:
1. Pericardiocentesis, possible pericardectomy if recurrent effusions occurring.
2. If right auricular hemangiosarcoma - possible surgical resection
3. If lymphoma, chemodectoma, mesothelioma, or RA HSA = chemotherapy
Primiparous blood type B queens can have anti-A antibodies with or without prior exposure?
WITHOUT prior exposure
Type A queens can have anti-B antibodies but these are weaker than the antibodies seen in type B queens
Why do dogs with iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism have little to no response to ACTH stim tests?
Chronic steroid use –> negative feedback on adrenals –> renal atrophy –> little to no response to ACTH stim test
What volume of daily water consumption is consistent with polydipsia in a dog?
Over 100 ml/kg/d
How long is estrus in gilts compared to multiparous sows?
Estrus is shorter in gilts compared to multiparous sows
Describe cryptosporidiosis in an adult corn snake.
Cryptosporidiosis affect the gastric mucosa causing decreased segmented motility and significant thickening of the gastric rugae.
C/S: Postprandial regurgitation, weight loss, chronic debilitation.
Dx: Contrast radiographs, endoscopy, acid-fast feces staining, etc.
Tx: Hyperimmune bovine colostrum has been consistently effective + aggressive supportive care. Euthanasia is reasonable. NOT ZOONOTIC
What bony disorder an develop secondary to Spirocerca lupi infection?
Hypertrophic osteopathy
- Look for lesions at the distal aspect of all four limbs.
Spirocerca lupi affects the esophagus, aorta, and thoracic vertebrae
The use of compounded medication is an example of?
Extra-label drug use
How many vertebrae do dogs have? Cats?
Dogs - 54 vertebrae (7 cervical, 13 thoracic, 7 lumbar, 3 sacral, 20-23 caudal vertebrae in tail)
Cats - 30 (7 cervical, 13 thoracic, 7 lumbar, 3 sacral, 18-23 caudal vertebrae in tail)
Foals whose dams are fed what supplements can be born with a hyperplastic goiter?
Kelp, rape, cabbage, soybeans, kale, turnips
Loss of patellar reflex and inability to bear weight on the hind limbs means there is a lesion at what spinal vertebrae?
L4-L6
When see loss of patellar reflex thing femoral nerve!
Intact withdrawal reflex means what nerve is intact? What spinal vertebrae is this nerve located at?
Sciatic nerve, L7-S1
What is the difference between parakeratosis and greasy pig disease in pigs?
Parakeratosis is characterized by excessive keratinization with a horny scale that, when removed, reveals fissures.
Greasy pig disease can look the same but is seen in younger pigs (1-10 weeks old).
Define paronychia
Paronchyia is swelling around a single nail bed which can be caused by neoplasia, infection, or immune-mediated disease.
Define onychorrhexis.
Brittle nails that are split and easily broken. Multiple may be idiopathic - think dachshunds or associated with dermatophytosis or leishmaniasis.
Define onychomycosis
Fungal infections of the nail bed such as Trichophyton mentagrophytes. Tend to be generalized not single nail infections.
Define onychomadesis.
Sloughing of the nail off the nail bed and may occur with almost any nail disease.
Define nail dystrophy
Nail dystrophy is a syndrome of generalized nail deformities caused by congenital malformation or zinc responsive dermatosis
What is transmissible gastroenteritis in pigs?
What is the etiologic agent? C/S? Dx? Tx?
What is something important to remember about mortality in naive herds?
TGE is a diarrheal disease of pigs and is caused by a coronavirus. (Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus also has the same EA, CS, Tx).
TGE affects pigs of all ages.
C/S include: profuse watery yellow diarrhea, weight loss, dehydration, vomiting.
Necropsy: distended small intestine; microscopically can see extreme villous blunting in the jejunum.
Tx: Feed the pigs there own feces to create herd immunity.
Mortality is inversely proportional to age (highest in neonates).
What is the best diagnostic test to run for canine influenza?
PCR on nasal swabs + acute and convalescent titers.
What is the most definitive method of diagnosing tuberculosis in camelids?
Bacterial culture and isolation
What avian ectoparasite is pictured below?
Is this common in old or young birds? How do they acquire this infection?
What are the C/S? Dx? Tx?
Knemidocoptes pilae.
More common in older birds that are immunosuppressed.
C/S: White, porous, proliferative encrustations around the mouth, cere, and beak. Similar lesions can be seen around the vent.
Dx: Facial scraping
Tx: Ivermectin
What cardiac arrhythmia is seen below?
VPCs
What is the first clinical sign seen in cattle with pyelonephritis?
What is the most common etiologic agent?
Hematuria is the first clinical sign; other c/s include straining to urinate, anorexia, fever, etc.
Corynebacterium renale, Trueperella spp, or E.coli
What is the most common cause of endometritis in mares? What are the most common clinical signs? Tx?
Streptococcus equi subsp. zooepidemicus
C/S: infertility +/- vulvar discharge
Tx: AB/saline uterine lavage, ecbolic drugs such as oxytocin and prostaglanin, sexual rest, +/- caslick’s surgery (only if vulvar conformation is normal).
After the first rabies vaccination when is a dog or cat or ferret considered to be fully immunized and protected against rabies?
After 28 days
Tx for dysphoria post op is ?
Administering acepromazine (a phenothiazine derivative psychotropic drug) or dexmedetomidine (an alpha-2 agonist)
If unresponsive, administer naloxone to reverse dysphoria caused by hydromorphone.
What blood marker is sensitive and specific of acute myocardial injury?
Cardiac troponin I
What is the most common cause of photosenitization in cattle?
Type 3 Photosensitization: impaired biliary excretion of phylloerythrin (a porphyrin), which is a normal by-product of chlorophyll metabolism.
What is bone spavin?
Bone spavin is osteoarthrosis of the distal intertarsal joints.
C/S: Stiff hind limbs at trot, dragging hind toes, flexion test +.
Periarticular bone formation can lead to ankylosis of the joints, returning them to soundness.
Tx: Corticosteroid injections, surgical or chemical arthrodesis.
What is the most common underlying cause of the equine dystocia?
Postural abnormalities due to long extremities
What is the youngest age at which a horse will have all of its permanent incisors?
When do deciduous incisors erupt in foals?
5 yrs old (begin errupting at 2.5, 3.5, and 4.5 yrs)
1 week, 6 weeks, 6 months
What is the most appropriate way to estimate a horse’s age?
Evaluate lower incisors for the central white spot of the dental star (arrows) which changes with age as the tooth wears
What drug family is associated with tooth enamel problems? What other problems does this drug class cause?
Tetracyclines; also potentially nephrotoxic so do not use in renal insufficiency
What are the side effects of fluoroquinolones?
Fluroquinolones, such as enrofloxacin, can lead to retinal degeneration in cats and articular cartilage defects in young growing dogs and foals.
What adverse side effects are associated with cephalosporins?
Cephalosporins, such as cephalexin, ceftriaxone, and ceftiofur can cause pain at injection site and risk of hypersensitivity.
The corneal reflex may be absent at what stage of anesthesia?
Stage IV aka anesthesia overdose. The corneal reflex should NEVER be gone unless patient is paralyzed with a neuromuscular blocker.
Corneal reflex: an involuntary blinking response that occurs when something touches the cornea of the eye
What should the target calving interval be for dairy cattle?
Heat detection?
First service conception rate?
Average # of days open?
Services per conception?
13 months
Prolonged intervals may be due to poor estrus detection, failure of fertiliztion, early embryonic death, anestrus or cystic ovarian disease
What % of body weight is plasma volume?
4%
1/3 tbw = extracellular, 2/3 tbw = intracellular
Answer the following in regards to Mycoplasma hemofelis in cats:
1. Alternative name?
2. Signalment
3. Transmission
4. Diagnostics
5. Treatment
6. Once infected these cats are?
- Hemotropic mycoplasmosis
- Male outdoor cats
- Unknown; fighting, blood-sucking arthropod vectors, transplacental transfer, blood transfusion
- Blood smear - cocci in rings on surface of RBC, PCR
- Doxycyline or a fluoroquinolone (enrofloxacin); ONLY use steroids in patients with severe anemia, do not respond to AB therapy, or when primary immune-mediated etiology is possible.
- Become carriers!
Describe the clinical presentation of munge in llamas. What is the age of onset? How is it treated?
Munge is characterized by hyperkeratosis around the nose and mouth. Average onset of C/S is 6 mo - 2yrs old.
Tx: 10% povidone iodine scrub to tx secondary bacterial infections, 7% tincture iodine; topical glucocorticoid or intralesional triamcinolone acetonide if minimal response
When is atropine contraindicated in a canine or feline patient administered dexmedetomidine?
Atrial bigeminy or atrial premature contractions
diarrhea
Is there a zoonotic risk?
Toxocara cati (roundworms)
YES! Humans can develop visceral larva migrans or ocular larva migrans
A foal is presented who was born healthy but has become weak and icteric at two days of age. The foal begins to have seizures and other signs of encephalopathy.
Bilirubin levels are as follows:
- Bilirubin Total = 6.3 (N = 0.4-2.8)
- Bilirubin Unconjugated = 5.9 (N = 0.1-2.8)
- Bilirubin Conjugated = 0.4 (N = 0.2-0/6)
What is your top differential?
Kernicterus - deposition of unconjugated bilirubin in the CNS and can result from the high levels of serum bilirubin seen in foals with neonatal isoerythrolysis, the top differential for this foal.
Describe the equine lameness sclae 1-5
