Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NAPLEX 2023 > Practice Exam NAPLEX #1 (Access Pharmacy) > Flashcards

Practice Exam NAPLEX #1 (Access Pharmacy) Flashcards

1
Q

Vaccines are available against which bacteria that cause meningitis?

A

S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae,
N. meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

SIADH is caused by what underlying disorder and common cause?

A

Euvolemic hypotonic hyponatremia & sertraline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Prozac is available in what dosage forms?

A

Once daily capsules
Oral solution
Weekly capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

mEq Calcium concentration from lowest to highest

A

Gluconate 90 mg
Acetate 250 mg
Carbonate 400 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bisphosphonates in order from lowest available dosage (mg per tablet) to highest.

A

Risedronate
Alendronate
Ibandronate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the recommended type of screening is done annually for lung cancer?

A

Helical CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is considered a stand alone ASCVD risk-enhancing factor?

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What medications may interact with medicinal doses of garlic?

A

Metoprolol
Oral contraceptives
Rilpivirine
Fentanyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

By what MOA does glucagon reverse beta-blocker induced hypotension and bradycardia?

A

Stimulation of the glucagon receptors on the beta-receptor complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What laboratory parameters need to be checked prior to starting Lithium?

A

Serum creatinine
Electrocardiogram
Thyroid function tests
Electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What would be a contraindication to administration of tamoxifen for the prevention of breast cancer in a “high risk” premenopausal patient?

A

History of deep venous thrombosis “DVT”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) prevention and management for a newly diagnosed patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL).

A
  1. Initiate allopurinol
  2. Treating electrolyte disturbances
  3. Aggressive hydration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common side effect of ondansetron?

A

Constipation and headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Risk factors associated with melanoma AE:

A
  1. Presence of multiple dysplastic nevi
  2. Presence of genetic factors
  3. Individuals with fair skin type who sunburns easily
  4. Individuals who are immunosuppressed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a safe option for treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis that does not have any restrictions in renal impairment?

A

Calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the total calcium requirement for a pregnant woman?

A

1000 - 1300 mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Important counseling point for Migranal (dihydroergotamine)

A

Once prepared, use within 8 hours.

Nasal spray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What adjunctive measures is used to lessen the occurrence of nephrotoxicity associated with amphotericin B?

A

Normal saline boluses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Females weighing more than 198 lbs should have no issues using what contraceptives?

A
  1. Depo-Provera (causes wt gain)
  2. NuvaRing
  3. Yasmin

Xulane is not recommended in patient > 198 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What percentage of total calories is provided by the fat content?

A

10%

fats provide 9 kcal/g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What was the main requirement of the Poison Prevention and Packaging Act?

A

Reducing the oral-prescription medication death rates in children under 5 yoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Parkinson Disease drugs in order according to ability to control motor symptoms (bradykinesia, rigidity, tremor) from most efficacious to least

A
  1. Carbidopa/levodopa
  2. Amantadine IR
  3. Rasagiline
  4. Ropinirole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What monoclonal antibodies used in the treatment of colorectal cancer is associated with causing hypomagnesemia?

A

Panitumumab & Cetuximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What adverse events should be discussed prior to first cycle infusion of rituximab?

A
  1. Hep B reactivation
  2. Infusion related reactions
  3. Tumor lysis syndrome
  4. Flu-like symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What common oral iron formulation contains 20% of elemental iron?

A

Ferrous sulfate 60 mg per 5 ml syrup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What measure of central tendency should be utilize for primary outcome for nominal data?

A

Mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the best recommended oral contraceptive for a patient with premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)?

A

YAZ is FDA approved for PMDD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What oral contraceptives are FDA approved for acne treatment?

A

Ortho Tri-Cyclen & Estrostep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Side effects associated with interferon

A
  1. Flu-like symptoms requiring premedication with antipyretic
  2. Fatigue
  3. Depression
  4. Somnolence and confusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Side effects associated with oral evening primrose oil use

A

Overall, evening primrose oil is well tolerated with some GI side effects (abdominal pain, N/V/D, flatulence, dyspepsia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What type of pharmacoeconomic analysis assumes the outcomes are equal?

A

Cost-minimization

*measures cost in dollars and outcomes equal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the percentage error of the inaccurate balance equation?

A

Error x 100% / Desired Quantity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

List the disease that requires the least total number of doses of penicillin to the least most.

A
  1. Secondary syphilis
  2. Late Latent syphilis
  3. Neurosyphilis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define intent to treat (ITT)

A

The analysis includes all participants in the arm to which they were randomized originally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a potential adverse effect when using oral antihistamines for the management of allergic rhinitis in a 3 yo child?

A

Paradoxical agitation

36
Q

What is a potential adverse effect related to intranasal corticosteroids?

A

HPA axis suppression

37
Q

What is an adverse effect related to overuse of topical decongestants?

A

Rebound congestion

38
Q

What patient population or condition often leads to fast titration of antipsychotic drugs (ASDs)?

A

Children

because they require prompt control of seizures to avoid interference with brain development and cognition

39
Q

What is an important counseling point for Humira?

A

Proper injection technique

SQ and available as a single-dose syringe or pen device

40
Q

What agents have been associated with osteonecrosis of the jaw?

A

Teriparatide
Alendronate
Denosumab

41
Q

What data pertaining to prostate cancer screening is reviewed to determine diagnosis?

A

DRE and PSA combined

42
Q

Neutrophils function/role

A

To engulf and destroy the infectious pathogen

43
Q

What is the best empiric regimen against C. glabrata?

A

Caspofungin 70 mg x 1 dose, then 50 mg daily

44
Q

What type of biological safety cabinet (BSC) should the cytarabine be prepared in?

A

Vertical flow, class II

*HEPA filtered air “ISO class 5” is required for personnel in handling hazardous agents)

45
Q

Counseling point for capecitabine

A

Take tablets with food

46
Q

What natural products could increase the risk of bleed with concomitant warfarin use due to the supplement’s antiplatelet/anticoagulant properties?

A
  1. Chondroitin & glucosamine sulfate
  2. Evening primrose oil
  3. Garlic
  4. High doses of fish oil
47
Q

What medical condition may be exacerbated when receiving bevacizumab?

A

Hypertension

48
Q

Counsel points when starting metoprolol

A
  1. Hypotension
  2. Bradycardia
  3. SOB
49
Q

What is the recommended duration of a COC before changing products?

50
Q

What agent has been associated with liver toxicity and failure, and its use is contraindicated in patients with pre-existing liver disease in Parkinson Disease?

51
Q

What is considered the gold standard for measurement of GFR?

A

Insulin clearance

52
Q

Which insulin can be mixed with insulin glargine in one syringe in order to decrease daily insulin injections?

53
Q

Which insulins can be mixed with insulin NPH?

A

Insulin aspart and insulin regular

54
Q

What therapy should be administered within 1 hour of the recognition of sepsis?

A

Broad-spectrum antimicrobial therapy

55
Q

What patient groups are considered to have complicated UTIs?

A
  1. Children
  2. Men
  3. Pregnant women
  4. Catheter-associated
56
Q

What agent should be utilized in patients with castration-resistant prostate cancer with bone pain for assistance with pain reduction?

A

Radium-223

57
Q

Main adverse effect about lamotrigine

58
Q

What agents can cause constriction of the afferent arteriole?

A
  1. Tacrolimus
  2. Ibuprofen
  3. Cyclosporine
59
Q

Counseling point when ibuprofen and aspirin is being taking

A

Take ibuprofen at least 30 minutes after aspirin or aspirin 8 hours after ibuprofen. Monitor BP often

60
Q

What is the pretreatment for paclitaxel infusion to prevent infusion reactions?

A
  1. Dexamethasone
  2. Ranitidine
  3. Diphenhydramine
61
Q

Why is folic acid recommended along with methotrexate therapy?

A

Folic acid can prevent GI toxicity caused by MTX.

62
Q

What TNF-inhibitors can be self-administered SQ?

A

Cimzia and Humira

63
Q

Unfractionated heparin routes of administration

64
Q

What is the primary therapy for early stage colon cancers?

65
Q

What is the best treatment option for a 61 yoM who is chemotherapy naive and was recently diagnosed with extensive-stage small-cell lung cancer?

A

Cisplatin + Etoposide + Atezolizumab

66
Q

Counseling tips for someone starting levothyroxine for hypothyroidism

A
  1. Levothyroxine will need to be continued lifelong
  2. Should be taken OES
  3. Separated at least 4 hours from other medications
67
Q

What IV vasodilator therapies would be contraindicated in a pregnant patient with ADHF?

A

Enalaprilat

ACE-I

68
Q

What agent best targets the symptoms of rhinorrhea?

A

Ipratropium

69
Q

What classes of medication can be used for management of allergic rhinitis after the first trimester of pregnancy?

A
  1. Oral antihistamines (cetirizine/levocetirizine)
  2. Intranasal corticosteroids (budesonide)
  3. Oral decongestants (not during 1st trimester)
  4. Topical decongestants (safer option)
70
Q

What is the duration of antimicrobial therapy in most patients with septic shock?

71
Q

List the NNRTIs in order based upon initial starting dose (lowest to highest)

A
  1. Rilpivirine
  2. Nevirapine
  3. Etravirine
  4. Efavirenz
72
Q

What agent is FDA indicated for social anxiety disorder and can be used first-line?

A

Effexor XR (venlafaxine XR)

73
Q

What medications contains tenofovir alafenamide (taf)?

A
  1. Odefsey (Emtricitabine, rilpivirine, tenofovir-taf)

2. Genvoya )Elvitegravir, cobicistat, emtricitabine, tenofovir-taf)

74
Q

What class of antihypertensive overdose is bradycardia, hypotension and hyperglycemia hallmarks of toxicity?

A

Calcium channel blockers

75
Q

What agents are utilized in the prophylactic management for PJP and Toxoplasmosis?

A

Atovaquone, dapsone and leucovorin

76
Q

What is the most commonly utilized agent in the management of PJP and Toxoplasmosis?

77
Q

What is the appropriate dose of ondansetron to prevent PONV?

A

4 mg IV given at the end of surgery

78
Q

MOA of isoniazid

A

Inhibition of mycolic acid production which is necessary for mycobacterial cell walls

79
Q

MOA of ethambutol

A

Inhibition of mycobacterial arabinosyl transferase to inhibit cell wall production

80
Q

MOA of rifamycins

A

Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase in bacterial cells

81
Q

Rank the glaucoma eye drops from highest to lowest ability to lower IOP

A
  1. Latanoprost (35%)
  2. Timolol (30%)
  3. Brinzolamide (26%)
  4. Brimonidine (18%)
82
Q

When should a serum digoxin concentration be obtained at least __ hours, but preferably _____ hours following last dose?

A

At least 6 hours but preferably 12-24 hours after last dose

83
Q

What is used for empiric treatment of a moderate-severe, polymicrobial cellulitis?

A

Ertapenem 1 g IV daily

Broad-spectrum: covers S. aureus, streptococci, Gram-negatives, anaerobes. NO Pseudomonas

84
Q

What is the appropriate BUD for a Mini Bag Plus product assembled in the LAFW under proper conditions as part of batch?

A

BUD assignment of the assembled system does not apply. As with proprietary products, expiration date is assigned based on manufacturer’s recommendations.

85
Q

Hyperkalemia may result from AKI and can lead to what life-threatening complications?

A

Arrhythmias

NAPLEX 2023 (88 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions