Chapter 54: Pediatric Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

What temperature must an infant age < 3 months old seek urgent care

A

Temp of 100.4 F/38 C (rectal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What temperature must an infant age 3-6 months old seek urgent care

A

Temp of 101 F/38.3 C (rectal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What temperature must an infant age < 6 months old seek urgent care

A

Temp of 103 F/39.4 C (rectal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A newborn’s general condition is assessed with what scoring tool

A

Apgar score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An infant with a lower Apgar score requires

A

more medical care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which medication is a standard med given at birth to prevent bleeding

A

IM Vitamin K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What can be used in newborn children for jaundice

A

Light therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Low Apgar scores in pre-term infants are usually due to

A

immature lung and heart development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What medications should be given for patent ductus arteriosus

within how long of birth?

A

NSAIDs (IV indomethacin or ibuprofen)
(meant to close naturally, avoid NSAIDs in 3rd trimester to avoid early closure)

14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Persistent pulmonary hypertension of a newborn may be linked with exposure to ___

A

in utero SSRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is caused by:

A

a deficiency of surfactant production in lungs that are not fully developed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most babies born < ____ weeks gestation will receive surfactant immediately after birth for RDS

A

35 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Do not recommend ASA or salicylates for pts < ___ years old

A

16 (risk of Reye’s syndrome in children recovering from viral infections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acetaminophen infant drops and children’s suspension are the same _____

A

concentration (to help reduce dosing errors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Avoid ibuprofen in children < ___ months for pain/fever d/t risk of nephrotoxicity

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F: Ibuprofen products are supplied in different dosage strengths for infants and children

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which OTC gas product can be used for mild relief of gas

A

simethicone drops

drug not absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The FDA does not recommend OTC cough and cold medications in children < ___ years old

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Oral _____ is recommended for treatment of intermittent constipation in pediatrics

A

PEG 3350 (MiraLax)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

OTC pediatric-size _____ are commonly used for quick relief of constipation in an uncomfortable baby

A

glycerin suppositories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What oral rehydration solutions can be used in infants

A

Pedialyte and Enfamil Enfalyte

used in children with diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the dosing for acetaminophen in children and infants

A

10-15 mg/kg/dose every 4-6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the dosing for ibuprofen in infants

A

5-10 mg/kg/dose every 6-8 hrs

infant must be ≥ 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A definitive diagnosis of bacterial meningitis can be made with

A

a lumbar puncture

25
Q

Common symptom of bacterial meningitis in infants

A

nuchal rigidity

26
Q

Empiric treatment of bacterial meningitis in neonates (< 1 month)

A

ampicillin + either cefotaxime or gentamicin

27
Q

bacterial meningitis treatment 1-23 months

A

vanco + (ceftriaxone or cefotaxime)

28
Q

bacterial meningitis treatment 2 +

A

vanco + (ceftriaxone or cefotaxime)

29
Q

Ceftriaxone, which is used in adult bacterial meningitis, is generally avoided in neonates for what reason

A

It displaces bilirubin from albumin, which can cause bilirubin-induced brain damage. Ceftriaxone and calcium-containing solutions can precipitate, causing an embolus and death

30
Q

RSV is a common cause of

A

bronchiolitis (swelling & mucus build up in the bronchioles)

31
Q

Treatment of RSV

A

supportive (oxygen, IV fluids, suctioning of secretions)

32
Q

Treatment for severe lower respiratory tract RSV infections with an underlying compromising condition

A

inhaled ribavirin (Virazole)

33
Q

Prevention of serious lower respiratory tract disease caused by RSV in children at high risk

A

Palivizumab (Synagis)

34
Q

When is RSV ppx recommended

A

During RSV season (late fall, winter, early spring)

35
Q

Who should receive Palivizumab (Synagis) for RSV ppx

A
  • Premature infants born at < 29 weeks gestation
  • Premature infants born < 32 weeks gestation with chronic lung disease who are < 12 months of age
  • Infants < 12 months of age with certain heart conditions
36
Q

How often is Palivizumab (Synagis) dosed for RSV

A

IM monthly

37
Q

In neonates and infants, where is the IM injection site

A

anterolateral thigh muscle

38
Q

What is the max monthly doses an infant can receive of Palivizumab (Synagis) during the RSV season

A

no more than 5 monthly doses

39
Q

Croup is a viral infection which causes inflammation of

A

the upper airway

40
Q

Hallmark signs of croup

A

inspiratory stridor (high-pitched breathing sound), barking cough and hoarseness

usually < 6 years old

41
Q

Mainstay of croup treatment for mild, moderate and severe cases

A

Systemic steroids (usually dexamethasone)

42
Q

Moderate - severe croup cases with difficulty breathing will usually be given a systemic steroid and then

A

nebulized racemic epinephrine

43
Q

Nebulized racemic epinephrine is a 1:1 mixture of dextro (D) isomers and levo (L) isomers. Which isomer is the active component

A

L isomer

44
Q

Non-drug treatment for nocturnal enuresis

A

Positive reinforcement, normal daytime voiding pattern, normal hydration patterns, alarm therapy

45
Q

Drug treatment for nocturnal enuresis

A

Desmopressin tablet

46
Q

How is desmopressin dosed

administration?

A

QHS

tablets, nasal spray, injection; tablets used for enuresis

47
Q

Desmopressin CI

A

hyponatremia

48
Q

Codeine is CI in all patients age < ___ years and < ___ after ___

A

<12
and < 18 after tonsillectomy/adenoidectomy

49
Q

FDA recently changed its labeling for all prescription cough and cold medications that contain codeine or hydrocodone to no longer be indicated in patients < ___ years

A

<18

50
Q

Promethazine is CI in children < __ years

A

<2

due to potentially fatal respiratory depression

51
Q

Quinolones are not recommended in pediatric patients due to the possibility of

A

adverse effects on the cartilage, bone and muscle

52
Q

Tetracyclines are not recommended in patients < 8 years of age b/c

A

they stain teeth and deposit into mineralizing bone and cartilage

53
Q

What is the one exception to using tetracyclines in children & which tetracycline is the most effective

A

tick-borne Rickettsial diseases

Doxycycline

54
Q

T/F: benzocaine is safe to use for teething infants

A

false - can cause methemoglobinemia & FDA recommends against its use in children < 2 yrs

55
Q

Two common culprits of accidental overdose in children

A

Iron and APAP

56
Q

name the list of vaccine preventable childhood disease

A

measles
mumps
rubella
polio
pertussis
rotavirus
chickenpox

57
Q

Classic symptoms of measles

A

Koplik spots (white spots on the inside of cheeks), maculopapular rash

58
Q

Measles transmission

A

airborne

59
Q

mumps has what symptoms

A

swollen salivary glands