Brand/Generic Flashcards

Question

Lipitor

Answer 1

Atorvastatin HMG-CoA inhibitor

Answer 2

Azelastine (nasal) Antihistamine H-1 receptor for allergy

Answer 3

Zithromax Macrolides 50s ribosubunit (CLiMS)

Answer 4

Bacitracin/Neomycin/Polymyxin B/ Hydrocortisone

Answer 5

Baclofen (intrathecal) skeletal muscle relaxant

Answer 6

Beclomethasone inhaled corticosteroids

Answer 7

Benazepril ACE inhibitors

Answer 8

Benzonatate antitussive anesthesia of vagal sensory nerve fibers that mediate cough

Answer 9

Benztropine Anticholinergic for Parkinson's and symptoms of antipsychotics (EPS) -- Primarily for TREMORS - anticholinergic SEs

Answer 10

Betamethasone diprionate High potency corticosteroid 0.6

Answer 11

Betamethasone / Clotrimazole

Answer 12

Bictegravir / Emtricitabine / TAF INSTI / NRTI (BETA) - don't use CrCl < 30 - separate cations - take INSTI 2 hours before or 6 hours after - all INTIs: weight gain, HA, insomnia

Answer 13

Bimatoprost decreases IOP for open angle gluacoma - another version for eyelash growth (Latisse) - 1 drop QHS

Answer 14

Brompheniramine / Psuedoephedrine / Dextromethorphan Antihistamine / anticongestant / Antitussive

Answer 15

Budesonide ICS - only neb option of ICS - jet neb only - DOC for asthma maintenance in pregnancy

Answer 16

Budesonide/ Formoterol (symBUFort) - can be used prn as a rescue inhaler in asthma (reduces exacerbations compared to albuterol alone)

Answer 17

Bumetanide Loop diuretic Furosemide 40 mg = Bume 1 mg = Torsemide 20 mg ototoxicity

Answer 18

Buprenorphine Opioid partial agonist

Answer 19

Bupropion (Wellbutrin) Serotonin and NE reuptake inhibitor ?? used for depression and smoking cessation

Answer 20

Calcitonin for severe hypercalcemia (last line) - nasal spray or injection (one nostril daily) - hypocalcemia, MALIGNANCY risk, HSR to salmon derived products

Answer 21

Canagliflozin

Answer 22

Canagliflozin/Metformin

Answer 23

Capecitabine Prodrug of fluorouracil Antimetabolite Pyrimidine analog chemotherapy - DPD deficiency incr risk of toxicity - hand-foot syndrome, diarrhea, mucositis - leucovorin incr efficacy of 5-FU

Answer 24

Carbamazepine AED, bipolar, trigeminal neuralgia - HLA-B*1502 - therapeutic range: 4-12 mcg/mL - boxed warnings: SJS/TEN, aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis - CI: myelosuppression - hyponatremia/SIADH - fetal harm - autoinducer

Answer 25

Carbidopa/Levodopa - CI: non-selective MAOi within 14 days - SE: dizziness, orthostasis, hallucinations, psychosis, dyskinesias, brown/black discoloration of urine, hemolysis risk (+ coombs test) - do not d/c abruptly

Answer 26

Carisoprodol CIV, antispasmodic - poor **2C19** metabolizers wil have incr carisoprodol concentrations

Answer 27

Carvedilol - non-selective BB + alpha-1 blockers - 1/3 options for HF - TAKE WITH FOOD - conversions to and from ER/IR are NOT 1:1

Answer 28

Celecoxib COX-2 selective NSAID - CI: sulfonamide allergy - highest COX-2 selectivity (greatest risk of MI/stroke)

Answer 29

Cephalexin

Answer 30

Chlorpheniramine / Hydrocodone

Answer 31

Cinacalcet ESRD hypercalemia or in hyperparathyroidism - decreases PTH, Ca and PO4

Answer 32

Ciprofloxacin

Answer 33

Citalopram SSRI - max dose: 40 mg/day (QTc prolongation) max 20 mg/day age > 60 - bleeding, hyponatremia

Answer 34

Clindamycin 50S (CLiMS), mostly gram + coverage, some anaerobes - no renal dose dose adjustment! - boxed warning for C. diff colitis - induction D-test performed on S. aureus - flattened zone indicates resistance (covers some CA-MRSA)

Answer 35

Clobetasol topical glucocorticoid, very high potency

Answer 36

Clonazepam

Answer 37

Clopidogrel 75 mg QD - prodrug - 2C19 - DDI: omeprazole and esomeprazole decrease efficacy (2C19 inhibitors) - TTP - stop 5 days prior to elective surgery

Answer 38

Clozapine Antipsychotic "last line" - REMS severe neutropenia (to start ANC ≥ 1500, stop if ANC < 1000) - neutropenia/agranulocytosis, myocarditis and cardiomyopathy, seizures

Answer 39

Cobicistat CYP3A4 inhibitor to enhance PI for HIV - with food - lots of DDIs - 3A4 and pgp inhibitor

Answer 40

Colchicine treat or prevent gout flares - CI: with pgp or strong 3A4 inhibitor - warnings: myelosuppression - max dose: 1.8 mg/day, start within 36 hours of symptom onset for flare - SE: N, D, muscle damage

Answer 41

Colesevelam treats high cholesterol, approved for glycemic control in diabetes - SE: increased TG, constipation, cramping - take WITH meal - colesevelam is option in pregnant patients

Answer 42

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

Answer 43

Cyclosporine Neoral, GenGraf (modified) -- great F Sandimmune (non-modified) Restasis (optic) - not interchangeable, greater F with modified - SE: incr BP, nephropathy, hyperkalemia, hypomagnesia, hirsuitism, gingival hyperplasia, edema, incr BG, neurotoxicity, QT prolongation - trough levels, many DDIs

Answer 44

Dabigatran Direct thrombin inhibitor (factor IIa) - missed dose: take unless within 6 hours of next dose - antidote: idarcizumab (praxbind) - swallow capsule whole; do NOT administer via NG - CI: mechanical heart valves - SE: dyspepsia

Answer 45

Dapagliflozin

Answer 46

Darunavir Protease inhibitor (stage 7) - caution with sulfa allergy - take WITH food (PIs)

Answer 47

Desvenlafaxine SNRI

Answer 48

Dexamethasone

Answer 49

Dexlansoprazole PPI - take withOUT regards to meals - capsules can be opened - no chewing

Answer 50

Diclofenac NSAID COX nonselective

Answer 51

Dicyclomine treats GI spasms from IBS (antispasmodic) - used for diarrhea - anticholinergic

Answer 52

Digoxin (Digox) therapeutic ranges: 1. afib: 0.8 - 2 mcg/mL 2. HF: 0.5 - 0.9 mcg/mL - oral to IV --> decr dose 25-50% - digoxin level drawn 12-24h after dose - with inhibitors --> decr dose 50% - hypo - kalemia, magnesemia, hypercalcemia increase the risk of digoxin toxicity

Answer 53

Diltiazem (Tiazac) non-DHP CCB - May worsen HF!! - constipation, edema, bradycardia, increased LFTs

Answer 54

Diphenhydramine

Answer 55

Diphenoxylate/ Atropine CV

Answer 56

Dipyridamole / ASA dipyridamole MOA: inhibits the uptake of adenosine into plts --> inhibit plt aggregation - hypotension - not interchangeable with the two products separated

Answer 57

Dolutegravir

Answer 58

Dolugravir / Abcavir / Lamivudine (TALD) - HLA-B*5701

Answer 59

Dolutegravir / Lamivudine - don't use if viral load > 500,000 copies in tx naive pt, +HBV, or no genotyping testing

Answer 60

Donepezil acetylcholinesterase inhibitor - QHS dosing to decr nausea - cardiac effects --> bradycardia

Answer 61

Dornase alfa treats cystic fibrosis Order of CF drugs: 1. bronchodilator - albuterol (open airway) 2. hypertonic saline (mobilize mucus) 3. dornase alpha (decrease viscosity to promote airway clearance) 4. chest physiotherapy (mobilize mucus to improve airway clearance) 5. Inhaled antibiotics

Answer 62

Doxazosin non-selective alpha blocker, BPH - itraoperative floppy iris syndrome (IFIS) - bedtime dosing - XL version = OROS (ghost tablet)

Answer 63

Doxycycline

Answer 64

Dronabinol

Answer 65

Duloxetine SNRI

Answer 66

Efavirenz / Emtracitabine / TDF (a triple E and Td) - empty stomach qhs (neuropsych symp with efavirenz)

Answer 67

Elvitegravir / Cobistat / Emtricibine / TAF (GEETAC)

Answer 68

Elvitegravir / Cobistat / Emtricibtabine / TDF (SCEnTED)

Answer 69

Empagliflozin

Answer 70

Emtricitabine / TAF (Dis the ETA or DETA)

Answer 71

Emtricitabine / TDF (TETd)

Answer 72

Entecavir NRTI treatment for Hep B - E --> empty stomach

Answer 73

Ergocalciferol vitamin D2

Answer 74

Escitalopram SSRI, S enantiomer of citalopram - Max dose: 20 mg/day (QTc prolongation) - hyponatremia/SIADH - increased bleeding risk

Answer 75

Esomeprazole PPI, PO and injection (IV - panto, esomep) - avoid with clopidogrel - capsule can be opened - dont chew

Answer 76

Estrogen used in post-menopausal women for vasomotor symptoms - unopposed estrogen (with uterus) can increase risk of endometrial cancer - increased risk of breast cancer, VTE, stroke

Answer 77

Eszopiclone for insomnia CIV

Answer 78

Ethinyl estradiol / drospirenone drospirenone: increased K, increased risk of clotting, decreases bloating

Answer 79

Ethinyl estridiol / etonogesterol - inserted x 3 weeks, removed for week 4 - if left in > 4 weeks, confirm not pregnant, put new ring in and use backup x 7days

Answer 80

Ethinyl estradiol / levonorgestrel - extended, only 4 periods per year/ q3mo

Answer 81

Ethinyl estradiol / norethindrone

Answer 82

Ethinyl estradiol / norgestimate

Answer 83

Ethosuximide for absence seizures - SJS/TEN, blood dyscrasias

Answer 84

Ezetimibe inhibits absorption of cholesterol in small intestine - myalgias - main effect on decr LDL

Answer 85

Famotidine antihistime H2 receptor for GERD

Answer 86

Fenofibrate PPARa activators --> increases catabolism of VLDL --> decr TGs - CI: severe liver disease, including primary biliary cirrhosis - do NOT give gemfibrozil with ezetimibe or statins - can incr LDL when TGs are high, increased LFTs - myalgias (increase risk when coadministered with statins)

Answer 87

Fentanyl - can start when ≥ 60 mg morphine equivalence per day for ≥ 7 days - CYP3A4 substrate (MORFH = methadone, oxycodone, remifentanil, fentanyl, hydrocodone)

Answer 88

Fidaxomicin cdiff infection

Answer 89

Finasteride 5-alpha reductase for urinary retention, alopecia - CI: women of childbearing age - sexual side effects, breast enlargement - 6 months of tx may be required for max benefit - should shrink prostate/ decr PSA levels

Answer 90

Fluconazole

Answer 91

Fluoxetine SSRI - long t1/2, wait 5 weeks before starting MAOi, no taper required - activating, take in AM - Sarafem - for PMDD (Sara has PMDD so thats why she needs Sarafem)

Answer 92

Fluticasone

Answer 93

Fluticasone / salmeterol

Answer 94

Fluticasone / vilanterol (FVeo)

Answer 95

Furosemide IV:PO 1:2

Answer 96

Gabapentin

Answer 97

Gemfibrozil do not use with statins or ezetimibe (myopathy risk)

Answer 98

Glecaprevir / Pibrentasvir

Answer 99

Glimepiride

Answer 100

Glipizide sulfonylurea - CI: sulfa allergy - Glucotrol XL = OROS ghost tablet

Answer 101

Guanfacine alpha-2 agonist for ADHD or HTN

Answer 102

Haloperidol 1st gen antipsychotic EPS symptoms, QTc prolongation

Answer 103

Hydralazine / Isosorbide dinitrate - improved mortality in HF - indicated for black individuals with HF - DILE (My Pretty Malar Marking Probably Has A TransIent Quality = minocycline, procainamide, methimazole, methyldopa, PTU, Hydralazine, anti-TNF agents, Terbinafine, Isoniazid, Quinidine)

Answer 104

Hydrocodone/ APAP (Norco or Vicodin)

Answer 105

Hydrocortisone - steroid equivalence

Answer 106

Hydromorphone

Answer 107

Hydroxychloroquine treatment for lupus, RA - irreversible retinopathy

Answer 108

Hydroxyzine antihistamine for allergies, short-term use in anxiety

Answer 109

Ibandronate oral q month IV q3 months

Answer 110

Icosapent ethyl (fish oil)

Answer 111

Imatinib CML or ALL for philadelphia chromosone - BCR-ABL

Answer 112

Indomethacin NSAID (nonselective - NIKI)

Answer 113

Iprotropium bromide

Answer 114

Irbesartan (Ava is a pro herbist/irbist)

Answer 115

Isocarbaxazid MAOi

Answer 116

Lacosamide warning: arrthymias (prolongs PR) - CV - IV:PO 1:1

Answer 117

Lamivudine

Answer 118

Lamotrigine Starter kits: BOG - blue = lower dose, use with valproate - orange = normal dose - green = higher dose, use with inducers (PS PORCS) - SJS/TEN, alopecia (selenium and zinc)

Answer 119

Lansoprazole PPI

Answer 120

Latanoprost refrigerate before opening - 1 drop QHS

Answer 121

Levetiracetam - psychiatric reactions, no significant DDIs - IV:PO 1:1

Answer 122

Levofloxacin

Answer 123

Levothyroxine

Answer 124

Linaclotide chronic idopathic constipation

Answer 125

Linagliptin

Answer 126

Linezolid IV:PO 1:1 no renal dose adjustment - do not use within 2 weeks MAOi - myelosuppression (duration-related, thrombocytopenia), optic neuropathy, serotonin syndrome - do NOT SHAKE SUSPENSION

Answer 127

Liothyronine (T3) - shorter t/12 causes fluctuations in T3 levels

Answer 128

Lisdexamfetamine muted "high" - less abuse potential

Answer 129

Lisinopril (Zestril)

Answer 130

Lisinopril / HCTZ

Answer 131

Lithium glutamate - therapeutic range: 0.6 - 1.2 mEq/L (trough) - serotonin syndrome - GI, cognitive effects, fine tremor, thirst, polyuria, weight gain, hypothyroidism - renally cleared - levels increase with: decr salt intake, ACEi, ARBs, NSAIDs - levels decrease wiht: incr salt intake, caffeine 5mL lithium citrate syrup = 300 mg lithium cap/tabs = 8 mEq lithium ion

Answer 132

Losartan / HCTZ

Answer 133

Lovastatin - max dose with amiodarone: 40mg/day - max dose with non-DHP CCB: 20 mg/day - take with evening meal (love to eat in the evening) - don't use most inhibitors (G PACM) - follow lower doses for (AN)

Answer 134

Lubiprostone treats certain types of constipation

Answer 135

Lurasidone SGA - somnolence, EPS, nausea - metabolic syndrome (minimal)

Answer 136

Medroxyprogesterone Depa-Provera - osteoporosis/ lowered BMD

Answer 137

Meloxicam Selective COX-2 inhibitor (CDE,MN)

Answer 138

Memantine NMDA receptor antagonist for Alzheimers - combo with donepezil (Namzaric)

Answer 139

Meperidine opioid antagonist

Answer 140

Mesalamine (5-ASA) treatment for UC - Canasa (suppository) - CI: HSR to salicylates or aminosalicylates - rectal more effective in distal/proctitis UC

Answer 141

Metformin (Glucophage)

Answer 142

Metformin/Pioglitazone

Answer 143

Metformin/Sitagliptin

Answer 144

Methadone opioid agonist for dependence - QT prolongation - variable t1/2, can decrease testosterone - major 3A4 substrate (MORFH)

Answer 145

Methocarbamol Muscle relaxant

Answer 146

Methotrexate Otrexup, Rasuvo (injection)

Answer 147

Methylnatrexone treats constipation from opioids

Answer 148

Methylphenidate ER and IR (Ritalin only) Daytrana (Patch) - daily on hips, alternate, 2h prior to need and remove after 9 hours - concerta = OROS - Journay PM - give at bedtime

Answer 149

Metoclopramide DA antagonist - boxed warning for tardive dyskinesia - avoid in PD - CrCl < 60 mL/min, use 50% dose - taken before meals and at bedtime

Answer 150

Metoprolol succinate

Answer 151

Metoprolol tartrate IV:PO --> 1:2.5

Answer 152

Metronidazole

Answer 153

Minocycline

Answer 154

Mirtazapine Antidepressant

Answer 155

Mometasone / Formoterol (Du it For Mom)

Answer 156

Montelukast Antagonist of leukotriene D4

Answer 157

Morphine Kadian

Answer 158

Moxifloxacin Not for UTIs (doesn't concentrate in urine) Does not cover PsA

Answer 159

Mupirocin for impetigo

Answer 160

Mycophenolate mofetil - CellCept and Myfortic are not interchangeable - CellCept is only stable in D5W (with BOAS) - Diarrhea, GI upset

Answer 161

Mycophenolic acid diarrhea

Answer 162

Nabilone Cannabinoid for CINV

Answer 163

Nebivolol B1 selective with NO

Answer 164

Neomycin/Polymoxin B / Dexamethasone

Answer 165

Niacin HLD and TG

Answer 166

Nifedipine ER Adalat CC

Answer 167

Nitrofurantoin

Answer 168

Nitroglycerin Nitrostat (SL)

Answer 169

Norethindrone

Answer 170

Nortriptyline

Answer 171

Olanzapine

Answer 172

Olmesartan

Answer 173

Olmesartan/ HTCZ

Answer 174

Olopatadine antihistimine h1 receptor for allergies eye drops

Answer 175

Omega-3 fatty acid

Answer 176

Omeprazole

Answer 177

Ondansetron

Answer 178

Orlistat Weight loss: prevents absorption of some fat

Answer 179

Oseltamivir

Answer 180

Oxcarbazepine

Answer 181

Oxybutynin treat overactive bladder by relaxing the muscles of the bladder wall helping it to expand

Answer 182

Oxycodone/ APAP

Answer 183

Paliperidone Atypical antipsychotic

Answer 184

Pancrelipase for cystic fibrosis **pancreas enzymes - viokace is only tablet ** must take with PPI - take before each meal/snack; take 50% of dose with snacks - high-fat meals may require higher doses - MAX DOSE: ≤ 10,000 units/KG/day - avoid food with high pH like dairy

Answer 185

Pantoprazole - PO or Injection (pant and esomeprazole) - oral suspension: take 30 min before a meal

Answer 186

Paroxetine - SSRI - big risk of withdrawal - MUST taper - Brisdelle - formulation for vasomotor symptoms due to menopause - 2D6 inhibitor (w/ fluoxetine) -> AVOID WITH TAMOXIFEN (venlafaxine preferred)

Answer 187

Phenazopyridine (Azo) urinary pain/burning relief - OTC and Rx - MAX: 2 days - take with 8 ox water - with food to minimize upset stomach - red-orange color change of body fluid, urine, clothes - hemolytic anemia with G6PD deficiency

Answer 188

Phenelzine MAO inhibitor - remember washout period usually 2 weeks

Answer 189

Phentermine w/ topiramate = Qsymia increases satiety and decreases appetite - REMS -> TERATOGENIC - sympathomimetic (stimulant) so SEs from that: tachycardia, insomnia, vision problems - CI: glaucoma, pregnancy - taper off -- d/t seizure risk

Answer 190

Phenytoin CYP inducer!

Answer 191

Pioglitazone

Answer 192

Polyethylene glycol 3350 osmotic - Onset of action: 30 min - 96 hours

Answer 193

Polyethylene glycol electrolyte soln

Answer 194

Polymyxin / Trimethoprim

Answer 195

Posaconazole

Answer 196

Potassium chloride

Answer 197

Pramipexole Parkinson's Restless Leg Syndrome

Answer 198

Pravastatin - statin equivalence: pras lPf --> prava is 40 mg - CI: pregnancy, breastfeeding - Can take at ANY time during day - Rosuva and prava has the LEAST drug interactions

Answer 199

Prednisolone

Answer 200

Prednisone - Steroid equivalence: Cute, Hot Pharmacists and Physicians Marry Together and Deliver Babies (25, 20, 5, 5, 4, 4, 0.75, 0.6) - prednisone is a prodrug of prednisolone - taper if > 14 days

Answer 201

Pregabalin - CV - approved for fibromyalgia, PHN, and neuropathic pain - SE: peripheral edema, weight gain, somnolence

Answer 202

Micronized Progesterone for post-menopause - primarily fore vasomotor symptoms, vaginal atrophy

Answer 203

Prochlorperazine antiemetic - increased mortality in elderly - decrease seizure threshold

Answer 204

Propranolol non-selective BB

Answer 205

Quetiapine - low risk of EPS, preferred for psychosis in PD patients - sedation, orthostasis, weight gain, incr lipids and glucose (large metabolic risk like olanzapine)

Answer 206

Raltegravir

Answer 207

Rilpivirine / Emtricitabine / TAF (ORETA) - Do not use if viral load > 100,000 copies or CD4 count <200 - do not use with PPIs, separate from H2RAs and antacids -depression, incr Scr w/ no effect on GFR, 3A4 substrate

Answer 208

Rilpivirine / Emtricitabine / TDF (Completely CERTifieD) - rilpivirine: no PPI, take WITH food, do not use with viral load >100,000 copies or CD4 count < 200 - TDF: avoid CrCl < 50

Answer 209

Risperidone SGA - Consta: IM q2 weeks - EPS, metabolic, increased prolactin

Answer 210

Rivaroxaban - doses ≥ 15 mg must take WITH food - special: can take both dose of 15 mg at same time if missed dose - antidote: andexanet alpha - DVT/PE treatment: 15 mg PO BID x 21 days, then 20 mg PO QD

Answer 211

Rivastigmine (patch and capsule) acetylcholinesterase inhibitor to treat confusion in Alzheimers - new patch DAILY

Answer 212

Ropinirole PD drug

Answer 213

Rosiglitazone TZD - PPARgamma agonists - boxed warning: HF, risk of MI - SE: peripheral edema, weight gain

Answer 214

Rosuvastatin

Answer 215

Sacubitril / Valsartan - boxed warning: death to developing fetus - 36h washout after before ACEi, no washout for ARB - do not use with hx angioedema, ACEi, or ARB

Answer 216

Salmeterol

Answer 217

Scopolamine - anticholinergic - 1 patch q72h prn - CI: hypersensitivity to belladonna, closed angle glaucoma - remove prior to MRI

Answer 218

Selenium sulfide danruff

Answer 219

Sertraline SSRI - preferred SSRI in pts with cardiac risk - bleeding, hyponatremia/SIADH

Answer 220

Sevelamer HCl Phosphate binder - use WITH meals

Answer 221

Sildenafil PDE5i - CI with nitrates - color discrimination, hearing loss, vision loss, hypotension, priapism, CVD - avoid with high-fat or large meal (both sildenafil and varden) - dose adjustment if: 1. age ≥ 65 2. using alpha blocker 3. using 3A4 inhibitor 4. severe renal or liver dysfunction

Answer 222

Simvastatin - max dose: 40 mg/day, 80 mg increases myalgias - max dose with amiodarone: 20 mg/day - max dose with non-DHP CCBs: 10 mg/day

Answer 223

Sitagliptin DPP4i - pancreatitis, arthralgias, renal failure, risk of HFs

Answer 224

Sodium phosphates

Answer 225

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate Hyperkalemia

Answer 226

Sodium / Potassium / Magnesium sulfate

Answer 227

Sofosbivur/ Velpatasvir - avoid or minimize acid suppressive therapy (Velpat) - approved for all 6 HCV genotypes!! (With Mavyret) - avoid amiodarone (sofosbuvir) due to symptomatic bradycardia

Answer 228

Solifenacin M3 anticholinergic for overactive bladder

Answer 229

Spironolactone

Answer 230

Sucralfate Aluminium complex creating a coating around intestines to prevent and treat uclers

Answer 231

Sulfamethoxazole / Trimethoprim inhibit the folic acid pathway - SMX: TMP in 5:1 ratio, dosed based on TMP - SJS/TEN, TTP - G6PD deficiency - hemolytic anemia (+ coombs test) - crystalluria (8oz water), photosensitivity, incr K uncomplicated UTI = 1 DS x 3 days

Answer 232

Sumatriptan 5HT1 receptor agonists - CI: CVA/TIA hx, uncontrolled HTN, ischemic heart disease - incr BP, serotonin syndrome, parathesias, triptan sensations (pressure/heaviness) Imitrex: tablet, nasal spray, SC injection Onzetra Xsail: nasal powder STATdose: SC injection

Answer 233

Sumatriptan / Naproxen (trexi might have a migraine)

Answer 234

Tacrolimus CNI - trough level - increased BP, BG, K, lipids, nephrotox, QT prolongation, alopecia - IV must be in non-PVC (laTtin) - 3A4 and pgp susbtrate

Answer 235

Tamsulosin

Answer 236

Temazepam Benzo for insomnia

Answer 237

Tenofovir alafenamide

Answer 238

Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (read dis)

Answer 239

Testosterone risk of virilization in children - increased appetite, acne, edema, hepatotoxicity, reduced sperm count, increases HEMATOCRIT Gels: in AM Androderm Patch: remove before MRI

Answer 240

Thyroid, desiccated

Answer 241

Ticagrelor P2Y12 inhibitor - dose: 90 mg PO BID x 1 year, then 60 mg BID - TTP risk, bleeding, dyspepsia - DNE ASA 100 mg with Brilinta - MAJOR 3A4 substrate!!

Answer 242

Timolol - preferred in glaucoma when only 1 eye involved (otherwise PG preferred) - non selective BB - daily or BID

Answer 243

Tiotropium LAMA used in COPD Stage C or D - anticholinergic SE - respimat - TOP counseling, 2 inhalations QD - handihaler - do not swallow capsule, inhale TWICE form 1 capsule

Answer 244

Tolterodine muscarinic receptor agonist for urinary incontence like Vesicare and Ditroban XL - CI: uncontrolled narrow angle glaucoma

Answer 245

Tolvaptan SIADH treatment

Answer 246

Topiramate AED, weight loss, migraine ppx - metabolic acidosis (decr bicarb), nephrolithiasis, angle-closure glaucoma, hyperammonemia, visual problems, fetal harm - levels decreased by PS PORCS + valproate - can decrease INR

Answer 247

Tramadol CIV - prodrug - 2D6 - serotonin syndrome, hypoglycemia

Answer 248

Tranexamic Acid hemostatic agent - Lysteda approved for heavy menstrual bleeding

Answer 249

Tranylcypromine MAO inhibitor

Answer 250

Travoprost prostaglandin analog - increased OUTFLOW of aqueous humor to decrease IOP in glaucoma - darkening of iris -PG analogues are the most effective drugs for glaucoma

Answer 251

Tretinoin (topical) - avoid in pregnancy, tazarotene CI in pregnancy - apply daily 20 minutes after washing face - takes 4-12 weeks to see response

Answer 252

Triamcinolone

Answer 253

Triamterene / HTCZ

Answer 254

Valacyclovir

Answer 255

Valganciclovir CMV - prodrug of ganciclovir - boxed warning for myelosuppression

Answer 256

Valprioc acid Divalproex increases GABA for seizure control, also migraine ppx, bipolar disorder - therapeutic range: 50-100 mcg/mL - boxed warnings: hepatic failure, fetal harm (neural tube defects) - hyperammonemia (carnitine), thrombocytopenia - SE: alopecia (selenium and zinc), weight gain

Answer 257

Valsartan / Amlodipine

Answer 258

Valsartan / HCTZ

Answer 259

Vancomycin

Answer 260

Varenicline smoking cessation - start 1 week before quit date - serious neuropsychiatric events, seizures, - take after eating with full glass of water

Answer 261

Venlafaxine SNRI - depression, GAD, panic disorder, SAD - big risk of withdrawal - MUST taper - Max dose: 375mg/day (IR) - HYPONATREMIA/SIADH, bleeding risk - NE SEs

Answer 262

Verapamil non-DHP CCB - may exacerbate HF! - constipation, gingival hyperplasia, bradycardia, edema - moderate inhibitor 3A4 (g pacmaN)

Answer 263

Voriconazole decreases ergosterol synthesis - antifungal - very empty --> take on empty stomach - vori and posa CrCl < 50--> oral (SBECD vehicle accumulates) - visual changes (avoid driving at night), hepatotoxicity, CNS toxicity (hallucinations)

Answer 264

Zidovudine NRTI - IV during labor and delivery to protect the baby

Answer 265

Ziprasidone SGA - Zip past the pantry --> take with food - IM option - very high risk of QTc prolongation