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NAPLEX 2023 > Brand/Generic > Flashcards

Brand/Generic Flashcards

1
Q

Epzicom

A

Abacavir/Lamivudine
NRTI for HIV

(EAL)
abacavir: HLA-B*5701, potential MI risk

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2
Q

Acetaminophen/Codeine

A

Tylenol #3

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3
Q

Zovirax

A

Acyclovir
Tx for Herpes (HSV, Varicella, Zoster)

  • dosed on IBW
  • herpes labialis - 5x daily x 4 days
  • herpes zoster - 5x daily for 7 days (start within 72 hours)
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4
Q

Differin

A

Adapalene
Retinoid for acne

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5
Q

Abuterol

A

ProAir
Proventil
Ventolin

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6
Q

Albuterol/Ipratropium

A

Combivent

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7
Q

Fosamax

A

Alendronate

Bisphoshonate for osteoporosis
- ONJ, femur fracture, esophagitis, hypocalcemia, renal impairment
- separate from antacids at least 2 hours

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8
Q

Zyloprim

A

Allopurinol

xanthane oxidase inhibitor for gout
- MUST use with colchicine or NSAID for initial 3-6 months due to high rate of gout attacks
- HLA-B*5801 - SJS/TEN, don’t use if +
- hepatotoxicity

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9
Q

Xanax

A

Alprazolam

benzodiazepine, CIV
pregnancy - crosses placenta

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10
Q

Entereg

A

Alvimopan
Gut motility stimulator - for hospitalized surgery patients to decrease risk of post-op ileus
Opioid antagonist

  • Max doses: 15
  • CI: therapeutic doses of opioids for > 7 days
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11
Q

Pacerone (PO)
Nexterone (IV)

A

Amiodarone

Class 3 anti-arrhythmic = K channel
- boxed warnings: pulmonary toxicity, hepatotoxicity, must be hospitalized for IV LD
- CI: iodine HS
- thyroid (iodine + conversion inhibition), photosensitivity (slate blue skin), optic and peripheral neuropathy, hypotension, bradycardia, corneal microdeposits
- GAL PLAT
- LATTIN
- t1/2 ~60 days

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12
Q

Elavil

A

Amitriptyline

Tricyclic Antidepressant - tertiary amines
- CI: w/ MAO, methylene blue, linezolid
- QT prolongation/fatal arrhythmias, anticholinergic (> with tertiary)

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13
Q

Norvasc

A

Amlodipine

DHP CCB
- peripheral edema/HA/flushing/palpitations/reflex tachycardia, gingival hyperplasia (more with non-DHPs)

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14
Q

Lotrel

A

Amlodipine/Benazepril

DHP-CCB/ ACEi

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15
Q

Amoxicillin/Clavulanate

A

Augmentin

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16
Q

Adderall

A

Amphetamine/Dextroamphetamine

CNS stimulant
- misuse can cause sudden death/serious CV events

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17
Q

Arimidex

A

Anastrozole

Aromatase Inhibitor for postmenopausal breast cancer
- ONLY POSTmenopausal women unless using GnRH agonist as well
- higher risk of CVD compared to SERMs
- higher risk of osteoporosis
- hot flashes/night sweats, arthralgia/myalgia

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18
Q

Eliquis

A

Apixaban

DOAC

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19
Q

Emend

A

Aprepitant (PO), fosaprepitant (IV)

Substance P NK-1 Antagonist
for CINV
- decrease dexamethasone dose - 3A4 inhibitors

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20
Q

Abilify

A

Aripiprazole

SGA - blocks D2 and 5HT2A receptors
- the 2 A’s: activating and akathisia

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21
Q

Reyataz

A

Atazanavir

Protease Inhibitor (stage 7)
- “A” for acidic environment required!
- Take with food (all PIs)

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22
Q

Tenormin

A

Atenolol

Beta Blocker
- Selective for B1 (AMEBBA)
- do NOT d/c abruptly

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23
Q

Tenoretic

A

Atenolol/Chlorthalidone

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24
Q

Strattera

A

Atomoxetine

Selective NE reuptake inhibitor for ADHD
- boxed warning: suicidal ideation
- CI: MAO within 14 days
- SE: decr appetite, insomnia, somnolence, dry mouth, HTN, tachycardia
- DO NOT OPEN CAPSULE - ocular irritant

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25
Q

Lipitor

A

Atorvastatin

HMG-CoA inhibitor

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26
Q

Astepro

A

Azelastine (nasal)
Antihistamine H-1 receptor for allergy

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27
Q

Azithromycin

A

Zithromax

Macrolides 50s ribosubunit (CLiMS)

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28
Q

Cortisporin

A

Bacitracin/Neomycin/Polymyxin B/ Hydrocortisone

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29
Q

Lioresal

A

Baclofen (intrathecal)

skeletal muscle relaxant

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30
Q

QVAR RediHaler

A

Beclomethasone

inhaled corticosteroids

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31
Q

Lotensin

A

Benazepril

ACE inhibitors

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32
Q

Tessalon Perles

A

Benzonatate

antitussive anesthesia of vagal sensory nerve fibers that mediate cough

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33
Q

Cogentin

A

Benztropine

Anticholinergic for Parkinson’s and symptoms of antipsychotics (EPS) – Primarily for TREMORS
- anticholinergic SEs

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34
Q

Diprolene Cream

A

Betamethasone diprionate

High potency corticosteroid 0.6

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35
Q

Lotrisone

A

Betamethasone / Clotrimazole

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36
Q

Bictarvy

A

Bictegravir / Emtricitabine / TAF

INSTI / NRTI
(BETA)
- don’t use CrCl < 30
- separate cations - take INSTI 2 hours before or 6 hours after
- all INTIs: weight gain, HA, insomnia

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37
Q

Lumigan

A

Bimatoprost

decreases IOP for open angle gluacoma
- another version for eyelash growth (Latisse)
- 1 drop QHS

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38
Q

Bromfed DM

A

Brompheniramine / Psuedoephedrine / Dextromethorphan

Antihistamine / anticongestant / Antitussive

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39
Q

Pulmicort

A

Budesonide

ICS
- only neb option of ICS - jet neb only
- DOC for asthma maintenance in pregnancy

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40
Q

Symbicort

A

Budesonide/ Formoterol

(symBUFort)
- can be used prn as a rescue inhaler in asthma (reduces exacerbations compared to albuterol alone)

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41
Q

Bumex

A

Bumetanide

Loop diuretic
Furosemide 40 mg = Bume 1 mg = Torsemide 20 mg

ototoxicity

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42
Q

Belbuca (buccal)
Butrans (patch)

A

Buprenorphine
Opioid partial agonist

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43
Q

Zyban

A

Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

Serotonin and NE reuptake inhibitor ?? used for depression and smoking cessation

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44
Q

Miacalcin

A

Calcitonin
for severe hypercalcemia (last line)

  • nasal spray or injection (one nostril daily)
  • hypocalcemia, MALIGNANCY risk, HSR to salmon derived products
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45
Q

Invokana

A

Canagliflozin

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46
Q

Invokamet

A

Canagliflozin/Metformin

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47
Q

Xeloda

A

Capecitabine

Prodrug of fluorouracil
Antimetabolite Pyrimidine analog chemotherapy
- DPD deficiency incr risk of toxicity
- hand-foot syndrome, diarrhea, mucositis
- leucovorin incr efficacy of 5-FU

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48
Q

Tegretol

A

Carbamazepine

AED, bipolar, trigeminal neuralgia
- HLA-B*1502
- therapeutic range: 4-12 mcg/mL
- boxed warnings: SJS/TEN, aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis
- CI: myelosuppression
- hyponatremia/SIADH
- fetal harm
- autoinducer

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49
Q

Sinemet

A

Carbidopa/Levodopa

  • CI: non-selective MAOi within 14 days
  • SE: dizziness, orthostasis, hallucinations, psychosis, dyskinesias, brown/black discoloration of urine, hemolysis risk (+ coombs test)
  • do not d/c abruptly
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50
Q

Soma

A

Carisoprodol

CIV, antispasmodic
- poor 2C19 metabolizers wil have incr carisoprodol concentrations

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51
Q

Coreg

A

Carvedilol

  • non-selective BB + alpha-1 blockers
  • 1/3 options for HF
  • TAKE WITH FOOD
  • conversions to and from ER/IR are NOT 1:1
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52
Q

Celebrex

A

Celecoxib

COX-2 selective NSAID
- CI: sulfonamide allergy
- highest COX-2 selectivity (greatest risk of MI/stroke)

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53
Q

Keflex

A

Cephalexin

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54
Q

TussiCaps

A

Chlorpheniramine / Hydrocodone

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55
Q

Sensipar

A

Cinacalcet

ESRD hypercalemia or in hyperparathyroidism
- decreases PTH, Ca and PO4

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56
Q

Cipro

A

Ciprofloxacin

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57
Q

Celexa

A

Citalopram

SSRI
- max dose: 40 mg/day (QTc prolongation)
max 20 mg/day age > 60
- bleeding, hyponatremia

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58
Q

Cleocin (PO, injection)

A

Clindamycin

50S (CLiMS), mostly gram + coverage, some anaerobes
- no renal dose dose adjustment!
- boxed warning for C. diff colitis
- induction D-test performed on S. aureus - flattened zone indicates resistance (covers some CA-MRSA)

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59
Q

Clobex

A

Clobetasol
topical glucocorticoid, very high potency

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60
Q

Klonopin

A

Clonazepam

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61
Q

Catapres

A

Clonidine

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62
Q

Plavix

A

Clopidogrel 75 mg QD

  • prodrug - 2C19
  • DDI: omeprazole and esomeprazole decrease efficacy (2C19 inhibitors)
  • TTP
  • stop 5 days prior to elective surgery
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63
Q

Clozaril

A

Clozapine

Antipsychotic “last line”
- REMS severe neutropenia (to start ANC ≥ 1500, stop if ANC < 1000)
- neutropenia/agranulocytosis, myocarditis and cardiomyopathy, seizures

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64
Q

Tybost

A

Cobicistat

CYP3A4 inhibitor to enhance PI for HIV
- with food
- lots of DDIs - 3A4 and pgp inhibitor

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65
Q

Colcrys

A

Colchicine
treat or prevent gout flares
- CI: with pgp or strong 3A4 inhibitor
- warnings: myelosuppression
- max dose: 1.8 mg/day, start within 36 hours of symptom onset for flare
- SE: N, D, muscle damage

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66
Q

Welchol

A

Colesevelam
treats high cholesterol, approved for glycemic control in diabetes
- SE: increased TG, constipation, cramping
- take WITH meal
- colesevelam is option in pregnant patients

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67
Q

Amrix

A

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

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68
Q

Gengraf

A

Cyclosporine

Neoral, GenGraf (modified) – great F
Sandimmune (non-modified)
Restasis (optic)

  • not interchangeable, greater F with modified
  • SE: incr BP, nephropathy, hyperkalemia, hypomagnesia, hirsuitism, gingival hyperplasia, edema, incr BG, neurotoxicity, QT prolongation
  • trough levels, many DDIs
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69
Q

Pradaxa

A

Dabigatran

Direct thrombin inhibitor (factor IIa)
- missed dose: take unless within 6 hours of next dose
- antidote: idarcizumab (praxbind)
- swallow capsule whole; do NOT administer via NG
- CI: mechanical heart valves
- SE: dyspepsia

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70
Q

Farxiga

A

Dapagliflozin

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71
Q

Prezista

A

Darunavir

Protease inhibitor (stage 7)
- caution with sulfa allergy
- take WITH food (PIs)

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72
Q

Pristiq

A

Desvenlafaxine
SNRI

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73
Q

DexPak
Decadron

A

Dexamethasone

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74
Q

Dexilant

A

Dexlansoprazole

PPI
- take withOUT regards to meals
- capsules can be opened - no chewing

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75
Q

Valium

A

Diazepam

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76
Q

Voltaren

A

Diclofenac

NSAID COX nonselective

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77
Q

Bentyl

A

Dicyclomine

treats GI spasms from IBS (antispasmodic)
- used for diarrhea
- anticholinergic

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78
Q

Lanoxin

A

Digoxin (Digox)

therapeutic ranges:
1. afib: 0.8 - 2 mcg/mL
2. HF: 0.5 - 0.9 mcg/mL
- oral to IV –> decr dose 25-50%
- digoxin level drawn 12-24h after dose
- with inhibitors –> decr dose 50%
- hypo - kalemia, magnesemia, hypercalcemia increase the risk of digoxin toxicity

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79
Q

Cardizem

A

Diltiazem (Tiazac)

non-DHP CCB
- May worsen HF!!
- constipation, edema, bradycardia, increased LFTs

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80
Q

Benadryl

A

Diphenhydramine

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81
Q

Lomotil

A

Diphenoxylate/ Atropine
CV

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82
Q

Aggrenox

A

Dipyridamole / ASA

dipyridamole MOA: inhibits the uptake of adenosine into plts –> inhibit plt aggregation
- hypotension
- not interchangeable with the two products separated

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83
Q

Tivicay

A

Dolutegravir

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84
Q

Triumeq

A

Dolugravir / Abcavir / Lamivudine

(TALD)
- HLA-B*5701

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85
Q

Dovato

A

Dolutegravir / Lamivudine

  • don’t use if viral load > 500,000 copies in tx naive pt, +HBV, or no genotyping testing
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86
Q

Aricept

A

Donepezil
acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
- QHS dosing to decr nausea
- cardiac effects –> bradycardia

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87
Q

Pulmozyme

A

Dornase alfa
treats cystic fibrosis

Order of CF drugs:
1. bronchodilator - albuterol (open airway)
2. hypertonic saline (mobilize mucus)
3. dornase alpha (decrease viscosity to promote airway clearance)
4. chest physiotherapy (mobilize mucus to improve airway clearance)
5. Inhaled antibiotics

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88
Q

Cardura

A

Doxazosin

non-selective alpha blocker, BPH
- itraoperative floppy iris syndrome (IFIS)
- bedtime dosing
- XL version = OROS (ghost tablet)

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89
Q

Vibramycin

A

Doxycycline

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90
Q

Marinol

A

Dronabinol

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91
Q

Cymbalta

A

Duloxetine

SNRI

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92
Q

Atripla

A

Efavirenz / Emtracitabine / TDF

(a triple E and Td)
- empty stomach qhs (neuropsych symp with efavirenz)

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93
Q

Genvoya

A

Elvitegravir / Cobistat / Emtricibine / TAF

(GEETAC)

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94
Q

Stribild

A

Elvitegravir / Cobistat / Emtricibtabine / TDF

(SCEnTED)

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95
Q

Jardiance

A

Empagliflozin

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96
Q

Descovy

A

Emtricitabine / TAF

(Dis the ETA or DETA)

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97
Q

Truvada

A

Emtricitabine / TDF

(TETd)

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98
Q

Vasotec

A

Enalapril

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99
Q

Baraclude

A

Entecavir

NRTI treatment for Hep B
- E –> empty stomach

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100
Q

Calciferol

A

Ergocalciferol
vitamin D2

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101
Q

Lexapro

A

Escitalopram

SSRI, S enantiomer of citalopram
- Max dose: 20 mg/day (QTc prolongation)
- hyponatremia/SIADH
- increased bleeding risk

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102
Q

Nexium

A

Esomeprazole

PPI, PO and injection (IV - panto, esomep)
- avoid with clopidogrel
- capsule can be opened - dont chew

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103
Q

Premarin

A

Estrogen

used in post-menopausal women for vasomotor symptoms
- unopposed estrogen (with uterus) can increase risk of endometrial cancer
- increased risk of breast cancer, VTE, stroke

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104
Q

Lunesta

A

Eszopiclone
for insomnia
CIV

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105
Q

Yasmin / Yaze

A

Ethinyl estradiol / drospirenone

drospirenone: increased K, increased risk of clotting, decreases bloating

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106
Q

Nuvaring

A

Ethinyl estridiol / etonogesterol

  • inserted x 3 weeks, removed for week 4
  • if left in > 4 weeks, confirm not pregnant, put new ring in and use backup x 7days
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107
Q

Seasonique

A

Ethinyl estradiol / levonorgestrel

  • extended, only 4 periods per year/ q3mo
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108
Q

Junel
Leostrein
Microgestin

A

Ethinyl estradiol / norethindrone

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109
Q

Ortho Tri-Cyclen
Tri-Sprintec

A

Ethinyl estradiol / norgestimate

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110
Q

Zarontin

A

Ethosuximide

for absence seizures
- SJS/TEN, blood dyscrasias

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111
Q

Zetia

A

Ezetimibe

inhibits absorption of cholesterol in small intestine
- myalgias
- main effect on decr LDL

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112
Q

Pepcid

A

Famotidine
antihistime H2 receptor for GERD

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113
Q

Tricor
Trilipix
Antara

A

Fenofibrate

PPARa activators –> increases catabolism of VLDL –> decr TGs
- CI: severe liver disease, including primary biliary cirrhosis
- do NOT give gemfibrozil with ezetimibe or statins
- can incr LDL when TGs are high, increased LFTs
- myalgias (increase risk when coadministered with statins)

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114
Q

Duragesic

A

Fentanyl

  • can start when ≥ 60 mg morphine equivalence per day for ≥ 7 days
  • CYP3A4 substrate (MORFH = methadone, oxycodone, remifentanil, fentanyl, hydrocodone)
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115
Q

Dificid

A

Fidaxomicin

cdiff infection

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116
Q

Proscar
Propecia

A

Finasteride
5-alpha reductase for urinary retention, alopecia

  • CI: women of childbearing age
  • sexual side effects, breast enlargement
  • 6 months of tx may be required for max benefit
  • should shrink prostate/ decr PSA levels
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117
Q

Diflucan

A

Fluconazole

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118
Q

Prozac

A

Fluoxetine

SSRI
- long t1/2, wait 5 weeks before starting MAOi, no taper required
- activating, take in AM
- Sarafem - for PMDD (Sara has PMDD so thats why she needs Sarafem)

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119
Q

Flovent
Arnuity Ellipta

A

Fluticasone

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120
Q

Advair Diskus

A

Fluticasone / salmeterol

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121
Q

Breo Ellipta

A

Fluticasone / vilanterol

(FVeo)

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122
Q

Lasix

A

Furosemide

IV:PO 1:2

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123
Q

Neurontin

A

Gabapentin

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124
Q

Lopid

A

Gemfibrozil

do not use with statins or ezetimibe (myopathy risk)

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125
Q

Mavyret

A

Glecaprevir / Pibrentasvir

126
Q

Amaryl

A

Glimepiride

127
Q

Glucotrol

A

Glipizide

sulfonylurea
- CI: sulfa allergy
- Glucotrol XL = OROS ghost tablet

128
Q

Glynase

A

Glyburide

129
Q

Intuniv

A

Guanfacine
alpha-2 agonist for ADHD or HTN

130
Q

Haldol

A

Haloperidol

1st gen antipsychotic
EPS symptoms, QTc prolongation

131
Q

BiDil

A

Hydralazine / Isosorbide dinitrate

  • improved mortality in HF - indicated for black individuals with HF
  • DILE
    (My Pretty Malar Marking Probably Has A TransIent Quality = minocycline, procainamide, methimazole, methyldopa, PTU, Hydralazine, anti-TNF agents, Terbinafine, Isoniazid, Quinidine)
132
Q

Lortab

A

Hydrocodone/ APAP (Norco or Vicodin)

133
Q

Solu-Cortef (injection)

A

Hydrocortisone

  • steroid equivalence
134
Q

Diluadid

A

Hydromorphone

135
Q

Plaquenil

A

Hydroxychloroquine

treatment for lupus, RA
- irreversible retinopathy

136
Q

Vistaril

A

Hydroxyzine
antihistamine for allergies, short-term use in anxiety

137
Q

Boniva

A

Ibandronate

oral q month
IV q3 months

138
Q

Advil
Motrin

A

Ibuprofen

139
Q

Vascepa

A

Icosapent ethyl
(fish oil)

140
Q

Gleevec

A

Imatinib
CML or ALL for philadelphia chromosone - BCR-ABL

141
Q

Indocin

A

Indomethacin

NSAID (nonselective - NIKI)

142
Q

Atrovent

A

Iprotropium bromide

143
Q

Avapro

A

Irbesartan

(Ava is a pro herbist/irbist)

144
Q

Marplan

A

Isocarbaxazid

MAOi

145
Q

Vimpat

A

Lacosamide

warning: arrthymias (prolongs PR)
- CV
- IV:PO 1:1

146
Q

Epivir

A

Lamivudine

147
Q

Lamictal

A

Lamotrigine

Starter kits: BOG
- blue = lower dose, use with valproate
- orange = normal dose
- green = higher dose, use with inducers (PS PORCS)

  • SJS/TEN, alopecia (selenium and zinc)
148
Q

Prevacid

A

Lansoprazole

PPI

149
Q

Xalatan

A

Latanoprost

refrigerate before opening
- 1 drop QHS

150
Q

Keppra

A

Levetiracetam

  • psychiatric reactions, no significant DDIs
  • IV:PO 1:1
151
Q

Levaquin

A

Levofloxacin

152
Q

Synthroid

A

Levothyroxine

153
Q

Linzess

A

Linaclotide

chronic idopathic constipation

154
Q

Tradjenta

A

Linagliptin

155
Q

Zyvox

A

Linezolid

IV:PO 1:1
no renal dose adjustment
- do not use within 2 weeks MAOi
- myelosuppression (duration-related, thrombocytopenia), optic neuropathy, serotonin syndrome
- do NOT SHAKE SUSPENSION

156
Q

Cytomel

A

Liothyronine (T3)

  • shorter t/12 causes fluctuations in T3 levels
157
Q

Vvyanse

A

Lisdexamfetamine

muted “high” - less abuse potential

158
Q

Prinivil

A

Lisinopril (Zestril)

159
Q

Zestoretic

A

Lisinopril / HCTZ

160
Q

Lithobid

A

Lithium

glutamate
- therapeutic range: 0.6 - 1.2 mEq/L (trough)
- serotonin syndrome
- GI, cognitive effects, fine tremor, thirst, polyuria, weight gain, hypothyroidism
- renally cleared

  • levels increase with: decr salt intake, ACEi, ARBs, NSAIDs
  • levels decrease wiht: incr salt intake, caffeine

5mL lithium citrate syrup = 300 mg lithium cap/tabs = 8 mEq lithium ion

161
Q

Ativan

A

Lorazepam

162
Q

Cozaar

A

Losartan

163
Q

Hyzaar

A

Losartan / HCTZ

164
Q

Altoprev

A

Lovastatin

  • max dose with amiodarone: 40mg/day
  • max dose with non-DHP CCB: 20 mg/day
  • take with evening meal (love to eat in the evening)
  • don’t use most inhibitors (G PACM) - follow lower doses for (AN)
165
Q

Amitiza

A

Lubiprostone

treats certain types of constipation

166
Q

Latuda

A

Lurasidone

SGA
- somnolence, EPS, nausea
- metabolic syndrome (minimal)

167
Q

Provera

A

Medroxyprogesterone
Depa-Provera

  • osteoporosis/ lowered BMD
168
Q

Mobic

A

Meloxicam
Selective COX-2 inhibitor (CDE,MN)

169
Q

Namenda

A

Memantine

NMDA receptor antagonist for Alzheimers
- combo with donepezil (Namzaric)

170
Q

Demerol

A

Meperidine

opioid antagonist

171
Q

Asacol
Pentasa
Canasa

A

Mesalamine (5-ASA)

treatment for UC
- Canasa (suppository)
- CI: HSR to salicylates or aminosalicylates
- rectal more effective in distal/proctitis UC

172
Q

Fortamet

A

Metformin (Glucophage)

173
Q

Actoplus Met

A

Metformin/Pioglitazone

174
Q

Janumet

A

Metformin/Sitagliptin

175
Q

Dolophine

A

Methadone

opioid agonist for dependence
- QT prolongation
- variable t1/2, can decrease testosterone
- major 3A4 substrate (MORFH)

176
Q

Robaxin

A

Methocarbamol
Muscle relaxant

177
Q

Trexall (PO)

A

Methotrexate
Otrexup, Rasuvo (injection)

178
Q

Relistor

A

Methylnatrexone

treats constipation from opioids

179
Q

Ritalin
Concerta

A

Methylphenidate ER and IR (Ritalin only)

Daytrana (Patch) - daily on hips, alternate, 2h prior to need and remove after 9 hours
- concerta = OROS
- Journay PM - give at bedtime

180
Q

Reglan

A

Metoclopramide

DA antagonist
- boxed warning for tardive dyskinesia
- avoid in PD
- CrCl < 60 mL/min, use 50% dose
- taken before meals and at bedtime

181
Q

Toprol XL

A

Metoprolol succinate

182
Q

Lopressor

A

Metoprolol tartrate

IV:PO –> 1:2.5

183
Q

Flagyl

A

Metronidazole

184
Q

Solodyn

A

Minocycline

185
Q

Remeron

A

Mirtazapine

Antidepressant

186
Q

Dulera inhaler

A

Mometasone / Formoterol

(Du it For Mom)

187
Q

Singulair

A

Montelukast
Antagonist of leukotriene D4

188
Q

MS Contin

A

Morphine
Kadian

189
Q

Avelox (PO)

A

Moxifloxacin

Not for UTIs (doesn’t concentrate in urine)
Does not cover PsA

190
Q

Bactroban

A

Mupirocin

for impetigo

191
Q

CellCept

A

Mycophenolate mofetil

  • CellCept and Myfortic are not interchangeable
  • CellCept is only stable in D5W (with BOAS)
  • Diarrhea, GI upset
192
Q

Myfortic

A

Mycophenolic acid

diarrhea

193
Q

Cesamet

A

Nabilone

Cannabinoid for CINV

194
Q

Corgard

A

Nadolol

195
Q

Narcan

A

Naloxone

196
Q

Aleve

A

Naproxen

197
Q

Bystolic

A

Nebivolol
B1 selective with NO

198
Q

Maxitrol

A

Neomycin/Polymoxin B / Dexamethasone

199
Q

Niaspan

A

Niacin

HLD and TG

200
Q

Procardia XL

A

Nifedipine ER
Adalat CC

201
Q

Macrobid

A

Nitrofurantoin

202
Q

Nitro-BID

A

Nitroglycerin
Nitrostat (SL)

203
Q

Errin
Camila
Nore-BE

A

Norethindrone

204
Q

Pamelor

A

Nortriptyline

205
Q

Ocuflox

A

Ofloxacin

206
Q

Zyprexa

A

Olanzapine

207
Q

Benicar

A

Olmesartan

208
Q

Benicar HCT

A

Olmesartan/ HTCZ

209
Q

Pataday

A

Olopatadine

antihistimine h1 receptor for allergies
eye drops

210
Q

Lovaza

A

Omega-3 fatty acid

211
Q

Prilosec

A

Omeprazole

212
Q

Zofran

A

Ondansetron

213
Q

Xenical
Alli

A

Orlistat

Weight loss: prevents absorption of some fat

214
Q

Tamiflu

A

Oseltamivir

215
Q

Trileptal

A

Oxcarbazepine

216
Q

Ditropan XL

A

Oxybutynin

treat overactive bladder by relaxing the muscles of the bladder wall helping it to expand

217
Q

Oxycontin

A

Oxycodone

218
Q

Percocet
Endocet

A

Oxycodone/ APAP

219
Q

Invega

A

Paliperidone

Atypical antipsychotic

220
Q

Creon
Viokace
Zenpep

A

Pancrelipase for cystic fibrosis

**pancreas enzymes
- viokace is only tablet ** must take with PPI
- take before each meal/snack; take 50% of dose with snacks
- high-fat meals may require higher doses
- MAX DOSE: ≤ 10,000 units/KG/day
- avoid food with high pH like dairy

221
Q

Protonix

A

Pantoprazole

  • PO or Injection (pant and esomeprazole)
  • oral suspension: take 30 min before a meal
222
Q

Paxil

A

Paroxetine

  • SSRI
  • big risk of withdrawal - MUST taper
  • Brisdelle - formulation for vasomotor symptoms due to menopause
  • 2D6 inhibitor (w/ fluoxetine) -> AVOID WITH TAMOXIFEN (venlafaxine preferred)
223
Q

Pyridium

A

Phenazopyridine (Azo)

urinary pain/burning relief
- OTC and Rx
- MAX: 2 days
- take with 8 ox water - with food to minimize upset stomach
- red-orange color change of body fluid, urine, clothes
- hemolytic anemia with G6PD deficiency

224
Q

Nardil

A

Phenelzine

MAO inhibitor
- remember washout period usually 2 weeks

225
Q

Adipex-P

A

Phentermine

w/ topiramate = Qsymia

increases satiety and decreases appetite
- REMS -> TERATOGENIC
- sympathomimetic (stimulant) so SEs from that: tachycardia, insomnia, vision problems
- CI: glaucoma, pregnancy
- taper off – d/t seizure risk

226
Q

Dilantin

A

Phenytoin

CYP inducer!

227
Q

Actos

A

Pioglitazone

228
Q

MiraLax

A

Polyethylene glycol 3350

osmotic
- Onset of action: 30 min - 96 hours

229
Q

Colyte
GoLytely
NuLytely

A

Polyethylene glycol electrolyte soln

230
Q

Polytrim

A

Polymyxin / Trimethoprim

231
Q

Noxafil

A

Posaconazole

232
Q

Klor-Con

A

Potassium chloride

233
Q

Mirapex

A

Pramipexole

Parkinson’s
Restless Leg Syndrome

234
Q

Effient

A

Prasugrel

235
Q

Pravachol

A

Pravastatin

  • statin equivalence: pras lPf –> prava is 40 mg
  • CI: pregnancy, breastfeeding
  • Can take at ANY time during day
  • Rosuva and prava has the LEAST drug interactions
236
Q

Millipred
Orapred

A

Prednisolone

237
Q

Deltasone

A

Prednisone

  • Steroid equivalence: Cute, Hot Pharmacists and Physicians Marry Together and Deliver Babies (25, 20, 5, 5, 4, 4, 0.75, 0.6)
  • prednisone is a prodrug of prednisolone
  • taper if > 14 days
238
Q

Lyrica

A

Pregabalin

  • CV
  • approved for fibromyalgia, PHN, and neuropathic pain
  • SE: peripheral edema, weight gain, somnolence
239
Q

Prometrium

A

Micronized Progesterone

for post-menopause - primarily fore vasomotor symptoms, vaginal atrophy

240
Q

Compazine

A

Prochlorperazine

antiemetic
- increased mortality in elderly
- decrease seizure threshold

241
Q

Inderal

A

Propranolol

non-selective BB

242
Q

Seroquel

A

Quetiapine

  • low risk of EPS, preferred for psychosis in PD patients
  • sedation, orthostasis, weight gain, incr lipids and glucose (large metabolic risk like olanzapine)
243
Q

Accupril

A

Quinapril

244
Q

Isentress

A

Raltegravir

245
Q

Altace

A

Ramipril

246
Q

Xifaxan

A

Rifaximin

247
Q

Odefsey

A

Rilpivirine / Emtricitabine / TAF

(ORETA)
- Do not use if viral load > 100,000 copies or CD4 count <200
- do not use with PPIs, separate from H2RAs and antacids
-depression, incr Scr w/ no effect on GFR, 3A4 substrate

248
Q

Complera

A

Rilpivirine / Emtricitabine / TDF

(Completely CERTifieD)

  • rilpivirine: no PPI, take WITH food, do not use with viral load >100,000 copies or CD4 count < 200
  • TDF: avoid CrCl < 50
249
Q

Risperdal

A

Risperidone

SGA
- Consta: IM q2 weeks
- EPS, metabolic, increased prolactin

250
Q

Norvir

A

Ritonavir

251
Q

Xarelto

A

Rivaroxaban

  • doses ≥ 15 mg must take WITH food
  • special: can take both dose of 15 mg at same time if missed dose
  • antidote: andexanet alpha
  • DVT/PE treatment: 15 mg PO BID x 21 days, then 20 mg PO QD
252
Q

Exelon

A

Rivastigmine (patch and capsule)

acetylcholinesterase inhibitor to treat confusion in Alzheimers
- new patch DAILY

253
Q

Requip XL

A

Ropinirole
PD drug

254
Q

Avandia

A

Rosiglitazone

TZD - PPARgamma agonists
- boxed warning: HF, risk of MI
- SE: peripheral edema, weight gain

255
Q

Crestor

A

Rosuvastatin

256
Q

Entresto

A

Sacubitril / Valsartan

  • boxed warning: death to developing fetus
  • 36h washout after before ACEi, no washout for ARB
  • do not use with hx angioedema, ACEi, or ARB
257
Q

Serevent Diskus

A

Salmeterol

258
Q

Transderm

A

Scopolamine

  • anticholinergic
  • 1 patch q72h prn
  • CI: hypersensitivity to belladonna, closed angle glaucoma
  • remove prior to MRI
259
Q

Selsun

A

Selenium sulfide

danruff

260
Q

Zoloft

A

Sertraline

SSRI
- preferred SSRI in pts with cardiac risk
- bleeding, hyponatremia/SIADH

261
Q

Ranagel

A

Sevelamer HCl

Phosphate binder
- use WITH meals

262
Q

Viagra

A

Sildenafil

PDE5i
- CI with nitrates
- color discrimination, hearing loss, vision loss, hypotension, priapism, CVD
- avoid with high-fat or large meal (both sildenafil and varden)
- dose adjustment if:
1. age ≥ 65
2. using alpha blocker
3. using 3A4 inhibitor
4. severe renal or liver dysfunction

263
Q

Zocor

A

Simvastatin

  • max dose: 40 mg/day, 80 mg increases myalgias
  • max dose with amiodarone: 20 mg/day
  • max dose with non-DHP CCBs: 10 mg/day
264
Q

Januvia

A

Sitagliptin

DPP4i
- pancreatitis, arthralgias, renal failure, risk of HFs

265
Q

OsmoPrep

A

Sodium phosphates

266
Q

Kayexalate

A

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate

Hyperkalemia

267
Q

Suprep Bowel Prep Kit

A

Sodium / Potassium / Magnesium sulfate

268
Q

Epclusa

A

Sofosbivur/ Velpatasvir

  • avoid or minimize acid suppressive therapy (Velpat)
  • approved for all 6 HCV genotypes!! (With Mavyret)
  • avoid amiodarone (sofosbuvir) due to symptomatic bradycardia
269
Q

Vesicare

A

Solifenacin

M3 anticholinergic for overactive bladder

270
Q

Aldactone

A

Spironolactone

271
Q

Carafate

A

Sucralfate

Aluminium complex creating a coating around intestines to prevent and treat uclers

272
Q

Bactrim DS

A

Sulfamethoxazole / Trimethoprim

inhibit the folic acid pathway
- SMX: TMP in 5:1 ratio, dosed based on TMP
- SJS/TEN, TTP
- G6PD deficiency - hemolytic anemia (+ coombs test)
- crystalluria (8oz water), photosensitivity, incr K

uncomplicated UTI = 1 DS x 3 days

273
Q

Imitrex

A

Sumatriptan

5HT1 receptor agonists
- CI: CVA/TIA hx, uncontrolled HTN, ischemic heart disease
- incr BP, serotonin syndrome, parathesias, triptan sensations (pressure/heaviness)

Imitrex: tablet, nasal spray, SC injection
Onzetra Xsail: nasal powder
STATdose: SC injection

274
Q

Treximet

A

Sumatriptan / Naproxen

(trexi might have a migraine)

275
Q

Prograf

A

Tacrolimus

CNI
- trough level
- increased BP, BG, K, lipids, nephrotox, QT prolongation, alopecia
- IV must be in non-PVC (laTtin)
- 3A4 and pgp susbtrate

276
Q

Cialis
Adcirca

A

Tadalafil

277
Q

Flomax

A

Tamsulosin

278
Q

Restoril

A

Temazepam

Benzo for insomnia

279
Q

Vemlidy

A

Tenofovir alafenamide

280
Q

Viread

A

Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate

(read dis)

281
Q

AndrolGel

A

Testosterone

risk of virilization in children
- increased appetite, acne, edema, hepatotoxicity, reduced sperm count, increases HEMATOCRIT

Gels: in AM
Androderm Patch: remove before MRI

282
Q

Armour Thyroid

A

Thyroid, desiccated

283
Q

Brillinta

A

Ticagrelor

P2Y12 inhibitor
- dose: 90 mg PO BID x 1 year, then 60 mg BID
- TTP risk, bleeding, dyspepsia
- DNE ASA 100 mg with Brilinta
- MAJOR 3A4 substrate!!

284
Q

Timoptic, Istalol

A

Timolol

  • preferred in glaucoma when only 1 eye involved (otherwise PG preferred)
  • non selective BB
  • daily or BID
285
Q

Spiriva

A

Tiotropium

LAMA used in COPD Stage C or D
- anticholinergic SE
- respimat - TOP counseling, 2 inhalations QD
- handihaler - do not swallow capsule, inhale TWICE form 1 capsule

286
Q

Detrol

A

Tolterodine

muscarinic receptor agonist for urinary incontence

like Vesicare and Ditroban XL
- CI: uncontrolled narrow angle glaucoma

287
Q

Samsca

A

Tolvaptan

SIADH treatment

288
Q

Topamax

A

Topiramate

AED, weight loss, migraine ppx
- metabolic acidosis (decr bicarb), nephrolithiasis, angle-closure glaucoma, hyperammonemia, visual problems, fetal harm
- levels decreased by PS PORCS + valproate
- can decrease INR

289
Q

Ultram

A

Tramadol

CIV
- prodrug - 2D6
- serotonin syndrome, hypoglycemia

290
Q

Cyklokapron
Lysteda

A

Tranexamic Acid

hemostatic agent
- Lysteda approved for heavy menstrual bleeding

291
Q

Parnate

A

Tranylcypromine

MAO inhibitor

292
Q

Travatan Z

A

Travoprost

prostaglandin analog - increased OUTFLOW of aqueous humor to decrease IOP in glaucoma

  • darkening of iris
    -PG analogues are the most effective drugs for glaucoma
293
Q

Atralin
Renova
Retin-A

A

Tretinoin (topical)

  • avoid in pregnancy, tazarotene CI in pregnancy
  • apply daily 20 minutes after washing face
  • takes 4-12 weeks to see response
294
Q

Kenalog

A

Triamcinolone

295
Q

Dyazide
Maxzide

A

Triamterene / HTCZ

296
Q

Valtrex

A

Valacyclovir

297
Q

Valcyte

A

Valganciclovir

CMV
- prodrug of ganciclovir
- boxed warning for myelosuppression

298
Q

Depakote

A

Valprioc acid
Divalproex

increases GABA for seizure control, also migraine ppx, bipolar disorder
- therapeutic range: 50-100 mcg/mL
- boxed warnings: hepatic failure, fetal harm (neural tube defects)
- hyperammonemia (carnitine), thrombocytopenia
- SE: alopecia (selenium and zinc), weight gain

299
Q

Diovan

A

Valsartan

300
Q

Exforge

A

Valsartan / Amlodipine

301
Q

Diovan HCT

A

Valsartan / HCTZ

302
Q

Vancocin

A

Vancomycin

303
Q

Chantix

A

Varenicline

smoking cessation
- start 1 week before quit date
- serious neuropsychiatric events, seizures,
- take after eating with full glass of water

304
Q

Effexor XR

A

Venlafaxine

SNRI - depression, GAD, panic disorder, SAD
- big risk of withdrawal - MUST taper
- Max dose: 375mg/day (IR)
- HYPONATREMIA/SIADH, bleeding risk
- NE SEs

305
Q

Calan SR

A

Verapamil

non-DHP CCB
- may exacerbate HF!
- constipation, gingival hyperplasia, bradycardia, edema
- moderate inhibitor 3A4 (g pacmaN)

306
Q

Vfend

A

Voriconazole

decreases ergosterol synthesis - antifungal
- very empty –> take on empty stomach
- vori and posa CrCl < 50–> oral (SBECD vehicle accumulates)
- visual changes (avoid driving at night), hepatotoxicity, CNS toxicity (hallucinations)

307
Q

Coumadin
Jantoven

A

Warfarin

308
Q

Retrovir

A

Zidovudine

NRTI
- IV during labor and delivery to protect the baby

309
Q

Geodon

A

Ziprasidone

SGA
- Zip past the pantry –> take with food
- IM option
- very high risk of QTc prolongation

310
Q

Ambien
Edluar
Intermezzo

A

Zolpidem

NAPLEX 2023 (88 decks)

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