Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NAPLEX 2023 > Brand/Generic > Flashcards

Brand/Generic Flashcards

1
Q

Epzicom

A

Abacavir/Lamivudine
NRTI for HIV

(EAL)
abacavir: HLA-B*5701, potential MI risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acetaminophen/Codeine

A

Tylenol #3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Zovirax

A

Acyclovir
Tx for Herpes (HSV, Varicella, Zoster)

  • dosed on IBW
  • herpes labialis - 5x daily x 4 days
  • herpes zoster - 5x daily for 7 days (start within 72 hours)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Differin

A

Adapalene
Retinoid for acne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Abuterol

A

ProAir
Proventil
Ventolin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Albuterol/Ipratropium

A

Combivent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Fosamax

A

Alendronate

Bisphoshonate for osteoporosis
- ONJ, femur fracture, esophagitis, hypocalcemia, renal impairment
- separate from antacids at least 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Zyloprim

A

Allopurinol

xanthane oxidase inhibitor for gout
- MUST use with colchicine or NSAID for initial 3-6 months due to high rate of gout attacks
- HLA-B*5801 - SJS/TEN, don’t use if +
- hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Xanax

A

Alprazolam

benzodiazepine, CIV
pregnancy - crosses placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Entereg

A

Alvimopan
Gut motility stimulator - for hospitalized surgery patients to decrease risk of post-op ileus
Opioid antagonist

  • Max doses: 15
  • CI: therapeutic doses of opioids for > 7 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pacerone (PO)
Nexterone (IV)

A

Amiodarone

Class 3 anti-arrhythmic = K channel
- boxed warnings: pulmonary toxicity, hepatotoxicity, must be hospitalized for IV LD
- CI: iodine HS
- thyroid (iodine + conversion inhibition), photosensitivity (slate blue skin), optic and peripheral neuropathy, hypotension, bradycardia, corneal microdeposits
- GAL PLAT
- LATTIN
- t1/2 ~60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Elavil

A

Amitriptyline

Tricyclic Antidepressant - tertiary amines
- CI: w/ MAO, methylene blue, linezolid
- QT prolongation/fatal arrhythmias, anticholinergic (> with tertiary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Norvasc

A

Amlodipine

DHP CCB
- peripheral edema/HA/flushing/palpitations/reflex tachycardia, gingival hyperplasia (more with non-DHPs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lotrel

A

Amlodipine/Benazepril

DHP-CCB/ ACEi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Amoxicillin/Clavulanate

A

Augmentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Adderall

A

Amphetamine/Dextroamphetamine

CNS stimulant
- misuse can cause sudden death/serious CV events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Arimidex

A

Anastrozole

Aromatase Inhibitor for postmenopausal breast cancer
- ONLY POSTmenopausal women unless using GnRH agonist as well
- higher risk of CVD compared to SERMs
- higher risk of osteoporosis
- hot flashes/night sweats, arthralgia/myalgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Eliquis

A

Apixaban

DOAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Emend

A

Aprepitant (PO), fosaprepitant (IV)

Substance P NK-1 Antagonist
for CINV
- decrease dexamethasone dose - 3A4 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Abilify

A

Aripiprazole

SGA - blocks D2 and 5HT2A receptors
- the 2 A’s: activating and akathisia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Reyataz

A

Atazanavir

Protease Inhibitor (stage 7)
- “A” for acidic environment required!
- Take with food (all PIs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tenormin

A

Atenolol

Beta Blocker
- Selective for B1 (AMEBBA)
- do NOT d/c abruptly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tenoretic

A

Atenolol/Chlorthalidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Strattera

A

Atomoxetine

Selective NE reuptake inhibitor for ADHD
- boxed warning: suicidal ideation
- CI: MAO within 14 days
- SE: decr appetite, insomnia, somnolence, dry mouth, HTN, tachycardia
- DO NOT OPEN CAPSULE - ocular irritant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Lipitor

A

Atorvastatin

HMG-CoA inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Astepro

A

Azelastine (nasal)
Antihistamine H-1 receptor for allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Azithromycin

A

Zithromax

Macrolides 50s ribosubunit (CLiMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cortisporin

A

Bacitracin/Neomycin/Polymyxin B/ Hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Lioresal

A

Baclofen (intrathecal)

skeletal muscle relaxant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

QVAR RediHaler

A

Beclomethasone

inhaled corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Lotensin

A

Benazepril

ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Tessalon Perles

A

Benzonatate

antitussive anesthesia of vagal sensory nerve fibers that mediate cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cogentin

A

Benztropine

Anticholinergic for Parkinson’s and symptoms of antipsychotics (EPS) – Primarily for TREMORS
- anticholinergic SEs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Diprolene Cream

A

Betamethasone diprionate

High potency corticosteroid 0.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Lotrisone

A

Betamethasone / Clotrimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Bictarvy

A

Bictegravir / Emtricitabine / TAF

INSTI / NRTI
(BETA)
- don’t use CrCl < 30
- separate cations - take INSTI 2 hours before or 6 hours after
- all INTIs: weight gain, HA, insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Lumigan

A

Bimatoprost

decreases IOP for open angle gluacoma
- another version for eyelash growth (Latisse)
- 1 drop QHS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Bromfed DM

A

Brompheniramine / Psuedoephedrine / Dextromethorphan

Antihistamine / anticongestant / Antitussive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Pulmicort

A

Budesonide

ICS
- only neb option of ICS - jet neb only
- DOC for asthma maintenance in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Symbicort

A

Budesonide/ Formoterol

(symBUFort)
- can be used prn as a rescue inhaler in asthma (reduces exacerbations compared to albuterol alone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Bumex

A

Bumetanide

Loop diuretic
Furosemide 40 mg = Bume 1 mg = Torsemide 20 mg

ototoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Belbuca (buccal)
Butrans (patch)

A

Buprenorphine
Opioid partial agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Zyban

A

Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

Serotonin and NE reuptake inhibitor ?? used for depression and smoking cessation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Miacalcin

A

Calcitonin
for severe hypercalcemia (last line)

  • nasal spray or injection (one nostril daily)
  • hypocalcemia, MALIGNANCY risk, HSR to salmon derived products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Invokana

A

Canagliflozin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Invokamet

A

Canagliflozin/Metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Xeloda

A

Capecitabine

Prodrug of fluorouracil
Antimetabolite Pyrimidine analog chemotherapy
- DPD deficiency incr risk of toxicity
- hand-foot syndrome, diarrhea, mucositis
- leucovorin incr efficacy of 5-FU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Tegretol

A

Carbamazepine

AED, bipolar, trigeminal neuralgia
- HLA-B*1502
- therapeutic range: 4-12 mcg/mL
- boxed warnings: SJS/TEN, aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis
- CI: myelosuppression
- hyponatremia/SIADH
- fetal harm
- autoinducer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Sinemet

A

Carbidopa/Levodopa

  • CI: non-selective MAOi within 14 days
  • SE: dizziness, orthostasis, hallucinations, psychosis, dyskinesias, brown/black discoloration of urine, hemolysis risk (+ coombs test)
  • do not d/c abruptly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Soma

A

Carisoprodol

CIV, antispasmodic
- poor 2C19 metabolizers wil have incr carisoprodol concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Coreg

A

Carvedilol

  • non-selective BB + alpha-1 blockers
  • 1/3 options for HF
  • TAKE WITH FOOD
  • conversions to and from ER/IR are NOT 1:1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Celebrex

A

Celecoxib

COX-2 selective NSAID
- CI: sulfonamide allergy
- highest COX-2 selectivity (greatest risk of MI/stroke)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Keflex

A

Cephalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

TussiCaps

A

Chlorpheniramine / Hydrocodone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Sensipar

A

Cinacalcet

ESRD hypercalemia or in hyperparathyroidism
- decreases PTH, Ca and PO4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Cipro

A

Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Celexa

A

Citalopram

SSRI
- max dose: 40 mg/day (QTc prolongation)
max 20 mg/day age > 60
- bleeding, hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Cleocin (PO, injection)

A

Clindamycin

50S (CLiMS), mostly gram + coverage, some anaerobes
- no renal dose dose adjustment!
- boxed warning for C. diff colitis
- induction D-test performed on S. aureus - flattened zone indicates resistance (covers some CA-MRSA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Clobex

A

Clobetasol
topical glucocorticoid, very high potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Klonopin

A

Clonazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Catapres

A

Clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Plavix

A

Clopidogrel 75 mg QD

  • prodrug - 2C19
  • DDI: omeprazole and esomeprazole decrease efficacy (2C19 inhibitors)
  • TTP
  • stop 5 days prior to elective surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Clozaril

A

Clozapine

Antipsychotic “last line”
- REMS severe neutropenia (to start ANC ≥ 1500, stop if ANC < 1000)
- neutropenia/agranulocytosis, myocarditis and cardiomyopathy, seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Tybost

A

Cobicistat

CYP3A4 inhibitor to enhance PI for HIV
- with food
- lots of DDIs - 3A4 and pgp inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Colcrys

A

Colchicine
treat or prevent gout flares
- CI: with pgp or strong 3A4 inhibitor
- warnings: myelosuppression
- max dose: 1.8 mg/day, start within 36 hours of symptom onset for flare
- SE: N, D, muscle damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Welchol

A

Colesevelam
treats high cholesterol, approved for glycemic control in diabetes
- SE: increased TG, constipation, cramping
- take WITH meal
- colesevelam is option in pregnant patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Amrix

A

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Gengraf

A

Cyclosporine

Neoral, GenGraf (modified) – great F
Sandimmune (non-modified)
Restasis (optic)

  • not interchangeable, greater F with modified
  • SE: incr BP, nephropathy, hyperkalemia, hypomagnesia, hirsuitism, gingival hyperplasia, edema, incr BG, neurotoxicity, QT prolongation
  • trough levels, many DDIs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Pradaxa

A

Dabigatran

Direct thrombin inhibitor (factor IIa)
- missed dose: take unless within 6 hours of next dose
- antidote: idarcizumab (praxbind)
- swallow capsule whole; do NOT administer via NG
- CI: mechanical heart valves
- SE: dyspepsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Farxiga

A

Dapagliflozin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Prezista

A

Darunavir

Protease inhibitor (stage 7)
- caution with sulfa allergy
- take WITH food (PIs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Pristiq

A

Desvenlafaxine
SNRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

DexPak
Decadron

A

Dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Dexilant

A

Dexlansoprazole

PPI
- take withOUT regards to meals
- capsules can be opened - no chewing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Valium

A

Diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Voltaren

A

Diclofenac

NSAID COX nonselective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Bentyl

A

Dicyclomine

treats GI spasms from IBS (antispasmodic)
- used for diarrhea
- anticholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Lanoxin

A

Digoxin (Digox)

therapeutic ranges:
1. afib: 0.8 - 2 mcg/mL
2. HF: 0.5 - 0.9 mcg/mL
- oral to IV –> decr dose 25-50%
- digoxin level drawn 12-24h after dose
- with inhibitors –> decr dose 50%
- hypo - kalemia, magnesemia, hypercalcemia increase the risk of digoxin toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Cardizem

A

Diltiazem (Tiazac)

non-DHP CCB
- May worsen HF!!
- constipation, edema, bradycardia, increased LFTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Benadryl

A

Diphenhydramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Lomotil

A

Diphenoxylate/ Atropine
CV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Aggrenox

A

Dipyridamole / ASA

dipyridamole MOA: inhibits the uptake of adenosine into plts –> inhibit plt aggregation
- hypotension
- not interchangeable with the two products separated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Tivicay

A

Dolutegravir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Triumeq

A

Dolugravir / Abcavir / Lamivudine

(TALD)
- HLA-B*5701

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Dovato

A

Dolutegravir / Lamivudine

  • don’t use if viral load > 500,000 copies in tx naive pt, +HBV, or no genotyping testing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Aricept

A

Donepezil
acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
- QHS dosing to decr nausea
- cardiac effects –> bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Pulmozyme

A

Dornase alfa
treats cystic fibrosis

Order of CF drugs:
1. bronchodilator - albuterol (open airway)
2. hypertonic saline (mobilize mucus)
3. dornase alpha (decrease viscosity to promote airway clearance)
4. chest physiotherapy (mobilize mucus to improve airway clearance)
5. Inhaled antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Cardura

A

Doxazosin

non-selective alpha blocker, BPH
- itraoperative floppy iris syndrome (IFIS)
- bedtime dosing
- XL version = OROS (ghost tablet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Vibramycin

A

Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Marinol

A

Dronabinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Cymbalta

A

Duloxetine

SNRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Atripla

A

Efavirenz / Emtracitabine / TDF

(a triple E and Td)
- empty stomach qhs (neuropsych symp with efavirenz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Genvoya

A

Elvitegravir / Cobistat / Emtricibine / TAF

(GEETAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Stribild

A

Elvitegravir / Cobistat / Emtricibtabine / TDF

(SCEnTED)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Jardiance

A

Empagliflozin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Descovy

A

Emtricitabine / TAF

(Dis the ETA or DETA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Truvada

A

Emtricitabine / TDF

(TETd)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Vasotec

A

Enalapril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Baraclude

A

Entecavir

NRTI treatment for Hep B
- E –> empty stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Calciferol

A

Ergocalciferol
vitamin D2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Lexapro

A

Escitalopram

SSRI, S enantiomer of citalopram
- Max dose: 20 mg/day (QTc prolongation)
- hyponatremia/SIADH
- increased bleeding risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Nexium

A

Esomeprazole

PPI, PO and injection (IV - panto, esomep)
- avoid with clopidogrel
- capsule can be opened - dont chew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Premarin

A

Estrogen

used in post-menopausal women for vasomotor symptoms
- unopposed estrogen (with uterus) can increase risk of endometrial cancer
- increased risk of breast cancer, VTE, stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Lunesta

A

Eszopiclone
for insomnia
CIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Yasmin / Yaze

A

Ethinyl estradiol / drospirenone

drospirenone: increased K, increased risk of clotting, decreases bloating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Nuvaring

A

Ethinyl estridiol / etonogesterol

  • inserted x 3 weeks, removed for week 4
  • if left in > 4 weeks, confirm not pregnant, put new ring in and use backup x 7days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Seasonique

A

Ethinyl estradiol / levonorgestrel

  • extended, only 4 periods per year/ q3mo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Junel
Leostrein
Microgestin

A

Ethinyl estradiol / norethindrone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Ortho Tri-Cyclen
Tri-Sprintec

A

Ethinyl estradiol / norgestimate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Zarontin

A

Ethosuximide

for absence seizures
- SJS/TEN, blood dyscrasias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Zetia

A

Ezetimibe

inhibits absorption of cholesterol in small intestine
- myalgias
- main effect on decr LDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Pepcid

A

Famotidine
antihistime H2 receptor for GERD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Tricor
Trilipix
Antara

A

Fenofibrate

PPARa activators –> increases catabolism of VLDL –> decr TGs
- CI: severe liver disease, including primary biliary cirrhosis
- do NOT give gemfibrozil with ezetimibe or statins
- can incr LDL when TGs are high, increased LFTs
- myalgias (increase risk when coadministered with statins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Duragesic

A

Fentanyl

  • can start when ≥ 60 mg morphine equivalence per day for ≥ 7 days
  • CYP3A4 substrate (MORFH = methadone, oxycodone, remifentanil, fentanyl, hydrocodone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Dificid

A

Fidaxomicin

cdiff infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Proscar
Propecia

A

Finasteride
5-alpha reductase for urinary retention, alopecia

  • CI: women of childbearing age
  • sexual side effects, breast enlargement
  • 6 months of tx may be required for max benefit
  • should shrink prostate/ decr PSA levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Diflucan

A

Fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Prozac

A

Fluoxetine

SSRI
- long t1/2, wait 5 weeks before starting MAOi, no taper required
- activating, take in AM
- Sarafem - for PMDD (Sara has PMDD so thats why she needs Sarafem)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Flovent
Arnuity Ellipta

A

Fluticasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Advair Diskus

A

Fluticasone / salmeterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Breo Ellipta

A

Fluticasone / vilanterol

(FVeo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Lasix

A

Furosemide

IV:PO 1:2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Neurontin

A

Gabapentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Lopid

A

Gemfibrozil

do not use with statins or ezetimibe (myopathy risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Mavyret

A

Glecaprevir / Pibrentasvir

126
Q

Amaryl

A

Glimepiride

127
Q

Glucotrol

A

Glipizide

sulfonylurea
- CI: sulfa allergy
- Glucotrol XL = OROS ghost tablet

128
Q

Glynase

129
Q

Intuniv

A

Guanfacine
alpha-2 agonist for ADHD or HTN

130
Q

Haldol

A

Haloperidol

1st gen antipsychotic
EPS symptoms, QTc prolongation

131
Q

BiDil

A

Hydralazine / Isosorbide dinitrate

  • improved mortality in HF - indicated for black individuals with HF
  • DILE
    (My Pretty Malar Marking Probably Has A TransIent Quality = minocycline, procainamide, methimazole, methyldopa, PTU, Hydralazine, anti-TNF agents, Terbinafine, Isoniazid, Quinidine)
132
Q

Lortab

A

Hydrocodone/ APAP (Norco or Vicodin)

133
Q

Solu-Cortef (injection)

A

Hydrocortisone

  • steroid equivalence
134
Q

Diluadid

A

Hydromorphone

135
Q

Plaquenil

A

Hydroxychloroquine

treatment for lupus, RA
- irreversible retinopathy

136
Q

Vistaril

A

Hydroxyzine
antihistamine for allergies, short-term use in anxiety

137
Q

Boniva

A

Ibandronate

oral q month
IV q3 months

138
Q

Advil
Motrin

139
Q

Vascepa

A

Icosapent ethyl
(fish oil)

140
Q

Gleevec

A

Imatinib
CML or ALL for philadelphia chromosone - BCR-ABL

141
Q

Indocin

A

Indomethacin

NSAID (nonselective - NIKI)

142
Q

Atrovent

A

Iprotropium bromide

143
Q

Avapro

A

Irbesartan

(Ava is a pro herbist/irbist)

144
Q

Marplan

A

Isocarbaxazid

MAOi

145
Q

Vimpat

A

Lacosamide

warning: arrthymias (prolongs PR)
- CV
- IV:PO 1:1

146
Q

Epivir

A

Lamivudine

147
Q

Lamictal

A

Lamotrigine

Starter kits: BOG
- blue = lower dose, use with valproate
- orange = normal dose
- green = higher dose, use with inducers (PS PORCS)

  • SJS/TEN, alopecia (selenium and zinc)
148
Q

Prevacid

A

Lansoprazole

PPI

149
Q

Xalatan

A

Latanoprost

refrigerate before opening
- 1 drop QHS

150
Q

Keppra

A

Levetiracetam

  • psychiatric reactions, no significant DDIs
  • IV:PO 1:1
151
Q

Levaquin

A

Levofloxacin

152
Q

Synthroid

A

Levothyroxine

153
Q

Linzess

A

Linaclotide

chronic idopathic constipation

154
Q

Tradjenta

A

Linagliptin

155
Q

Zyvox

A

Linezolid

IV:PO 1:1
no renal dose adjustment
- do not use within 2 weeks MAOi
- myelosuppression (duration-related, thrombocytopenia), optic neuropathy, serotonin syndrome
- do NOT SHAKE SUSPENSION

156
Q

Cytomel

A

Liothyronine (T3)

  • shorter t/12 causes fluctuations in T3 levels
157
Q

Vvyanse

A

Lisdexamfetamine

muted “high” - less abuse potential

158
Q

Prinivil

A

Lisinopril (Zestril)

159
Q

Zestoretic

A

Lisinopril / HCTZ

160
Q

Lithobid

A

Lithium

glutamate
- therapeutic range: 0.6 - 1.2 mEq/L (trough)
- serotonin syndrome
- GI, cognitive effects, fine tremor, thirst, polyuria, weight gain, hypothyroidism
- renally cleared

  • levels increase with: decr salt intake, ACEi, ARBs, NSAIDs
  • levels decrease wiht: incr salt intake, caffeine

5mL lithium citrate syrup = 300 mg lithium cap/tabs = 8 mEq lithium ion

161
Q

Ativan

162
Q

Cozaar

163
Q

Hyzaar

A

Losartan / HCTZ

164
Q

Altoprev

A

Lovastatin

  • max dose with amiodarone: 40mg/day
  • max dose with non-DHP CCB: 20 mg/day
  • take with evening meal (love to eat in the evening)
  • don’t use most inhibitors (G PACM) - follow lower doses for (AN)
165
Q

Amitiza

A

Lubiprostone

treats certain types of constipation

166
Q

Latuda

A

Lurasidone

SGA
- somnolence, EPS, nausea
- metabolic syndrome (minimal)

167
Q

Provera

A

Medroxyprogesterone
Depa-Provera

  • osteoporosis/ lowered BMD
168
Q

Mobic

A

Meloxicam
Selective COX-2 inhibitor (CDE,MN)

169
Q

Namenda

A

Memantine

NMDA receptor antagonist for Alzheimers
- combo with donepezil (Namzaric)

170
Q

Demerol

A

Meperidine

opioid antagonist

171
Q

Asacol
Pentasa
Canasa

A

Mesalamine (5-ASA)

treatment for UC
- Canasa (suppository)
- CI: HSR to salicylates or aminosalicylates
- rectal more effective in distal/proctitis UC

172
Q

Fortamet

A

Metformin (Glucophage)

173
Q

Actoplus Met

A

Metformin/Pioglitazone

174
Q

Janumet

A

Metformin/Sitagliptin

175
Q

Dolophine

A

Methadone

opioid agonist for dependence
- QT prolongation
- variable t1/2, can decrease testosterone
- major 3A4 substrate (MORFH)

176
Q

Robaxin

A

Methocarbamol
Muscle relaxant

177
Q

Trexall (PO)

A

Methotrexate
Otrexup, Rasuvo (injection)

178
Q

Relistor

A

Methylnatrexone

treats constipation from opioids

179
Q

Ritalin
Concerta

A

Methylphenidate ER and IR (Ritalin only)

Daytrana (Patch) - daily on hips, alternate, 2h prior to need and remove after 9 hours
- concerta = OROS
- Journay PM - give at bedtime

180
Q

Reglan

A

Metoclopramide

DA antagonist
- boxed warning for tardive dyskinesia
- avoid in PD
- CrCl < 60 mL/min, use 50% dose
- taken before meals and at bedtime

181
Q

Toprol XL

A

Metoprolol succinate

182
Q

Lopressor

A

Metoprolol tartrate

IV:PO –> 1:2.5

183
Q

Flagyl

A

Metronidazole

184
Q

Solodyn

A

Minocycline

185
Q

Remeron

A

Mirtazapine

Antidepressant

186
Q

Dulera inhaler

A

Mometasone / Formoterol

(Du it For Mom)

187
Q

Singulair

A

Montelukast
Antagonist of leukotriene D4

188
Q

MS Contin

A

Morphine
Kadian

189
Q

Avelox (PO)

A

Moxifloxacin

Not for UTIs (doesn’t concentrate in urine)
Does not cover PsA

190
Q

Bactroban

A

Mupirocin

for impetigo

191
Q

CellCept

A

Mycophenolate mofetil

  • CellCept and Myfortic are not interchangeable
  • CellCept is only stable in D5W (with BOAS)
  • Diarrhea, GI upset
192
Q

Myfortic

A

Mycophenolic acid

diarrhea

193
Q

Cesamet

A

Nabilone

Cannabinoid for CINV

194
Q

Corgard

195
Q

Narcan

196
Q

Aleve

197
Q

Bystolic

A

Nebivolol
B1 selective with NO

198
Q

Maxitrol

A

Neomycin/Polymoxin B / Dexamethasone

199
Q

Niaspan

A

Niacin

HLD and TG

200
Q

Procardia XL

A

Nifedipine ER
Adalat CC

201
Q

Macrobid

A

Nitrofurantoin

202
Q

Nitro-BID

A

Nitroglycerin
Nitrostat (SL)

203
Q

Errin
Camila
Nore-BE

A

Norethindrone

204
Q

Pamelor

A

Nortriptyline

205
Q

Ocuflox

206
Q

Zyprexa

A

Olanzapine

207
Q

Benicar

A

Olmesartan

208
Q

Benicar HCT

A

Olmesartan/ HTCZ

209
Q

Pataday

A

Olopatadine

antihistimine h1 receptor for allergies
eye drops

210
Q

Lovaza

A

Omega-3 fatty acid

211
Q

Prilosec

A

Omeprazole

212
Q

Zofran

A

Ondansetron

213
Q

Xenical
Alli

A

Orlistat

Weight loss: prevents absorption of some fat

214
Q

Tamiflu

A

Oseltamivir

215
Q

Trileptal

A

Oxcarbazepine

216
Q

Ditropan XL

A

Oxybutynin

treat overactive bladder by relaxing the muscles of the bladder wall helping it to expand

217
Q

Oxycontin

218
Q

Percocet
Endocet

A

Oxycodone/ APAP

219
Q

Invega

A

Paliperidone

Atypical antipsychotic

220
Q

Creon
Viokace
Zenpep

A

Pancrelipase for cystic fibrosis

**pancreas enzymes
- viokace is only tablet ** must take with PPI
- take before each meal/snack; take 50% of dose with snacks
- high-fat meals may require higher doses
- MAX DOSE: ≤ 10,000 units/KG/day
- avoid food with high pH like dairy

221
Q

Protonix

A

Pantoprazole

  • PO or Injection (pant and esomeprazole)
  • oral suspension: take 30 min before a meal
222
Q

Paxil

A

Paroxetine

  • SSRI
  • big risk of withdrawal - MUST taper
  • Brisdelle - formulation for vasomotor symptoms due to menopause
  • 2D6 inhibitor (w/ fluoxetine) -> AVOID WITH TAMOXIFEN (venlafaxine preferred)
223
Q

Pyridium

A

Phenazopyridine (Azo)

urinary pain/burning relief
- OTC and Rx
- MAX: 2 days
- take with 8 ox water - with food to minimize upset stomach
- red-orange color change of body fluid, urine, clothes
- hemolytic anemia with G6PD deficiency

224
Q

Nardil

A

Phenelzine

MAO inhibitor
- remember washout period usually 2 weeks

225
Q

Adipex-P

A

Phentermine

w/ topiramate = Qsymia

increases satiety and decreases appetite
- REMS -> TERATOGENIC
- sympathomimetic (stimulant) so SEs from that: tachycardia, insomnia, vision problems
- CI: glaucoma, pregnancy
- taper off – d/t seizure risk

226
Q

Dilantin

A

Phenytoin

CYP inducer!

227
Q

Actos

A

Pioglitazone

228
Q

MiraLax

A

Polyethylene glycol 3350

osmotic
- Onset of action: 30 min - 96 hours

229
Q

Colyte
GoLytely
NuLytely

A

Polyethylene glycol electrolyte soln

230
Q

Polytrim

A

Polymyxin / Trimethoprim

231
Q

Noxafil

A

Posaconazole

232
Q

Klor-Con

A

Potassium chloride

233
Q

Mirapex

A

Pramipexole

Parkinson’s
Restless Leg Syndrome

234
Q

Effient

235
Q

Pravachol

A

Pravastatin

  • statin equivalence: pras lPf –> prava is 40 mg
  • CI: pregnancy, breastfeeding
  • Can take at ANY time during day
  • Rosuva and prava has the LEAST drug interactions
236
Q

Millipred
Orapred

A

Prednisolone

237
Q

Deltasone

A

Prednisone

  • Steroid equivalence: Cute, Hot Pharmacists and Physicians Marry Together and Deliver Babies (25, 20, 5, 5, 4, 4, 0.75, 0.6)
  • prednisone is a prodrug of prednisolone
  • taper if > 14 days
238
Q

Lyrica

A

Pregabalin

  • CV
  • approved for fibromyalgia, PHN, and neuropathic pain
  • SE: peripheral edema, weight gain, somnolence
239
Q

Prometrium

A

Micronized Progesterone

for post-menopause - primarily fore vasomotor symptoms, vaginal atrophy

240
Q

Compazine

A

Prochlorperazine

antiemetic
- increased mortality in elderly
- decrease seizure threshold

241
Q

Inderal

A

Propranolol

non-selective BB

242
Q

Seroquel

A

Quetiapine

  • low risk of EPS, preferred for psychosis in PD patients
  • sedation, orthostasis, weight gain, incr lipids and glucose (large metabolic risk like olanzapine)
243
Q

Accupril

244
Q

Isentress

A

Raltegravir

245
Q

Altace

246
Q

Xifaxan

247
Q

Odefsey

A

Rilpivirine / Emtricitabine / TAF

(ORETA)
- Do not use if viral load > 100,000 copies or CD4 count <200
- do not use with PPIs, separate from H2RAs and antacids
-depression, incr Scr w/ no effect on GFR, 3A4 substrate

248
Q

Complera

A

Rilpivirine / Emtricitabine / TDF

(Completely CERTifieD)

  • rilpivirine: no PPI, take WITH food, do not use with viral load >100,000 copies or CD4 count < 200
  • TDF: avoid CrCl < 50
249
Q

Risperdal

A

Risperidone

SGA
- Consta: IM q2 weeks
- EPS, metabolic, increased prolactin

250
Q

Norvir

251
Q

Xarelto

A

Rivaroxaban

  • doses ≥ 15 mg must take WITH food
  • special: can take both dose of 15 mg at same time if missed dose
  • antidote: andexanet alpha
  • DVT/PE treatment: 15 mg PO BID x 21 days, then 20 mg PO QD
252
Q

Exelon

A

Rivastigmine (patch and capsule)

acetylcholinesterase inhibitor to treat confusion in Alzheimers
- new patch DAILY

253
Q

Requip XL

A

Ropinirole
PD drug

254
Q

Avandia

A

Rosiglitazone

TZD - PPARgamma agonists
- boxed warning: HF, risk of MI
- SE: peripheral edema, weight gain

255
Q

Crestor

A

Rosuvastatin

256
Q

Entresto

A

Sacubitril / Valsartan

  • boxed warning: death to developing fetus
  • 36h washout after before ACEi, no washout for ARB
  • do not use with hx angioedema, ACEi, or ARB
257
Q

Serevent Diskus

A

Salmeterol

258
Q

Transderm

A

Scopolamine

  • anticholinergic
  • 1 patch q72h prn
  • CI: hypersensitivity to belladonna, closed angle glaucoma
  • remove prior to MRI
259
Q

Selsun

A

Selenium sulfide

danruff

260
Q

Zoloft

A

Sertraline

SSRI
- preferred SSRI in pts with cardiac risk
- bleeding, hyponatremia/SIADH

261
Q

Ranagel

A

Sevelamer HCl

Phosphate binder
- use WITH meals

262
Q

Viagra

A

Sildenafil

PDE5i
- CI with nitrates
- color discrimination, hearing loss, vision loss, hypotension, priapism, CVD
- avoid with high-fat or large meal (both sildenafil and varden)
- dose adjustment if:
1. age ≥ 65
2. using alpha blocker
3. using 3A4 inhibitor
4. severe renal or liver dysfunction

263
Q

Zocor

A

Simvastatin

  • max dose: 40 mg/day, 80 mg increases myalgias
  • max dose with amiodarone: 20 mg/day
  • max dose with non-DHP CCBs: 10 mg/day
264
Q

Januvia

A

Sitagliptin

DPP4i
- pancreatitis, arthralgias, renal failure, risk of HFs

265
Q

OsmoPrep

A

Sodium phosphates

266
Q

Kayexalate

A

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate

Hyperkalemia

267
Q

Suprep Bowel Prep Kit

A

Sodium / Potassium / Magnesium sulfate

268
Q

Epclusa

A

Sofosbivur/ Velpatasvir

  • avoid or minimize acid suppressive therapy (Velpat)
  • approved for all 6 HCV genotypes!! (With Mavyret)
  • avoid amiodarone (sofosbuvir) due to symptomatic bradycardia
269
Q

Vesicare

A

Solifenacin

M3 anticholinergic for overactive bladder

270
Q

Aldactone

A

Spironolactone

271
Q

Carafate

A

Sucralfate

Aluminium complex creating a coating around intestines to prevent and treat uclers

272
Q

Bactrim DS

A

Sulfamethoxazole / Trimethoprim

inhibit the folic acid pathway
- SMX: TMP in 5:1 ratio, dosed based on TMP
- SJS/TEN, TTP
- G6PD deficiency - hemolytic anemia (+ coombs test)
- crystalluria (8oz water), photosensitivity, incr K

uncomplicated UTI = 1 DS x 3 days

273
Q

Imitrex

A

Sumatriptan

5HT1 receptor agonists
- CI: CVA/TIA hx, uncontrolled HTN, ischemic heart disease
- incr BP, serotonin syndrome, parathesias, triptan sensations (pressure/heaviness)

Imitrex: tablet, nasal spray, SC injection
Onzetra Xsail: nasal powder
STATdose: SC injection

274
Q

Treximet

A

Sumatriptan / Naproxen

(trexi might have a migraine)

275
Q

Prograf

A

Tacrolimus

CNI
- trough level
- increased BP, BG, K, lipids, nephrotox, QT prolongation, alopecia
- IV must be in non-PVC (laTtin)
- 3A4 and pgp susbtrate

276
Q

Cialis
Adcirca

277
Q

Flomax

A

Tamsulosin

278
Q

Restoril

A

Temazepam

Benzo for insomnia

279
Q

Vemlidy

A

Tenofovir alafenamide

280
Q

Viread

A

Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate

(read dis)

281
Q

AndrolGel

A

Testosterone

risk of virilization in children
- increased appetite, acne, edema, hepatotoxicity, reduced sperm count, increases HEMATOCRIT

Gels: in AM
Androderm Patch: remove before MRI

282
Q

Armour Thyroid

A

Thyroid, desiccated

283
Q

Brillinta

A

Ticagrelor

P2Y12 inhibitor
- dose: 90 mg PO BID x 1 year, then 60 mg BID
- TTP risk, bleeding, dyspepsia
- DNE ASA 100 mg with Brilinta
- MAJOR 3A4 substrate!!

284
Q

Timoptic, Istalol

A

Timolol

  • preferred in glaucoma when only 1 eye involved (otherwise PG preferred)
  • non selective BB
  • daily or BID
285
Q

Spiriva

A

Tiotropium

LAMA used in COPD Stage C or D
- anticholinergic SE
- respimat - TOP counseling, 2 inhalations QD
- handihaler - do not swallow capsule, inhale TWICE form 1 capsule

286
Q

Detrol

A

Tolterodine

muscarinic receptor agonist for urinary incontence

like Vesicare and Ditroban XL
- CI: uncontrolled narrow angle glaucoma

287
Q

Samsca

A

Tolvaptan

SIADH treatment

288
Q

Topamax

A

Topiramate

AED, weight loss, migraine ppx
- metabolic acidosis (decr bicarb), nephrolithiasis, angle-closure glaucoma, hyperammonemia, visual problems, fetal harm
- levels decreased by PS PORCS + valproate
- can decrease INR

289
Q

Ultram

A

Tramadol

CIV
- prodrug - 2D6
- serotonin syndrome, hypoglycemia

290
Q

Cyklokapron
Lysteda

A

Tranexamic Acid

hemostatic agent
- Lysteda approved for heavy menstrual bleeding

291
Q

Parnate

A

Tranylcypromine

MAO inhibitor

292
Q

Travatan Z

A

Travoprost

prostaglandin analog - increased OUTFLOW of aqueous humor to decrease IOP in glaucoma

  • darkening of iris
    -PG analogues are the most effective drugs for glaucoma
293
Q

Atralin
Renova
Retin-A

A

Tretinoin (topical)

  • avoid in pregnancy, tazarotene CI in pregnancy
  • apply daily 20 minutes after washing face
  • takes 4-12 weeks to see response
294
Q

Kenalog

A

Triamcinolone

295
Q

Dyazide
Maxzide

A

Triamterene / HTCZ

296
Q

Valtrex

A

Valacyclovir

297
Q

Valcyte

A

Valganciclovir

CMV
- prodrug of ganciclovir
- boxed warning for myelosuppression

298
Q

Depakote

A

Valprioc acid
Divalproex

increases GABA for seizure control, also migraine ppx, bipolar disorder
- therapeutic range: 50-100 mcg/mL
- boxed warnings: hepatic failure, fetal harm (neural tube defects)
- hyperammonemia (carnitine), thrombocytopenia
- SE: alopecia (selenium and zinc), weight gain

299
Q

Diovan

300
Q

Exforge

A

Valsartan / Amlodipine

301
Q

Diovan HCT

A

Valsartan / HCTZ

302
Q

Vancocin

A

Vancomycin

303
Q

Chantix

A

Varenicline

smoking cessation
- start 1 week before quit date
- serious neuropsychiatric events, seizures,
- take after eating with full glass of water

304
Q

Effexor XR

A

Venlafaxine

SNRI - depression, GAD, panic disorder, SAD
- big risk of withdrawal - MUST taper
- Max dose: 375mg/day (IR)
- HYPONATREMIA/SIADH, bleeding risk
- NE SEs

305
Q

Calan SR

A

Verapamil

non-DHP CCB
- may exacerbate HF!
- constipation, gingival hyperplasia, bradycardia, edema
- moderate inhibitor 3A4 (g pacmaN)

306
Q

Vfend

A

Voriconazole

decreases ergosterol synthesis - antifungal
- very empty –> take on empty stomach
- vori and posa CrCl < 50–> oral (SBECD vehicle accumulates)
- visual changes (avoid driving at night), hepatotoxicity, CNS toxicity (hallucinations)

307
Q

Coumadin
Jantoven

308
Q

Retrovir

A

Zidovudine

NRTI
- IV during labor and delivery to protect the baby

309
Q

Geodon

A

Ziprasidone

SGA
- Zip past the pantry –> take with food
- IM option
- very high risk of QTc prolongation

310
Q

Ambien
Edluar
Intermezzo

NAPLEX 2023 (88 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions