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NAPLEX 2023 > Chapter 23: ID II - Bacterial Infections > Flashcards

Chapter 23: ID II - Bacterial Infections Flashcards

1
Q

If antibiotics are needed post-op, when should they be d/c

A

within 24 hrs

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2
Q

Which antibiotic is preferred for perioperative cardiac or vascular surgeries to prevent MSSA and streptococci infections. What is the alternative if the patient has an allergy

Include timing

A

Cefazolin - infuse 60 min before incision

Clindamycin or vanco if BL allergy - infuse 120 min before incision

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3
Q

The prophylactic antibiotic regimen in colorectal surgeries needs to cover skin flora plus broad gram-____ and ____ organisms found in the gut

Which drugs are used

A

Broad gram-negative
Anaerobic

Cefotetan, cefoxitin, ampicillin/sulbactam, ertapenem
OR
metronidazole + (cefazolin or ceftriaxone)

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4
Q

Which antibiotic is preferred for perioperative hip fracture repairs or total joint replacement surgeries to prevent MSSA and streptococci infections. What is the alternative if the patient has an allergy

A

Cefazolin

Clindamycin or vanco if BL allergy

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5
Q

Classic symptoms of meningitis

How is it diagnosed

A

fever, HA, nuchal rigidity (stiff neck), and altered mental status

lumbar puncture

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6
Q

The risk of meningitis is caused by which bacteria

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis and H. infuenzae

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7
Q

Which pathogen is prevalent in select patient groups that puts them at risk for meningitis and what additional treatment is required for it

A

Listeria monocytogenes

ampicillin

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8
Q

Which drug can be given 15-20 minutes prior to or with the first antibiotic dose for meningitis to prevent neurological complications

A

Dexamethasone

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9
Q

Which groups should receive ampicillin for Listeria monocytogenes in meningitis

A

neonates
Age > 50 years
Immunocompromised

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10
Q

Meningitis treatment for neonates (< 1 month old)

A

Ampicillin (for Listeria coverage)
+
CefoTAXime or Gentamicin
(no ceftriaxone) - can cause biliary sludging & kernicterus

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11
Q

Meningitis treatment age 1 month to 50 years

A

Ceftriaxone or cefotaxime
+
Vanco

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12
Q

Meningitis treatment for age > 50 years or immunocompromised

A 
Ampicillin (for Listeria coverage)
\+
Ceftriaxone or cefotaxime
\+ 
Vanco
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13
Q

Observation of non-severe acute otitis media without antibiotics for __-__ hours (mild otalgia < 48 hours or temp < 102.2F) and what other factors can be considered

A

48-72 hrs and

  • Age 6-23 months: symptoms in one ear only
  • Age >/= 2 years: symptoms in one or both ears
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14
Q

After 48-72 hours of observation, what is the first line treatment option for acute otitis media, including the dose

ALTERNATIVE if patient has a non-severe PCN allergy

A

-High-dose amoxicillin (80-90 mg/kg/day) in 2 divided doses
OR
-Augmentin 90 mg/kg/day of amoxicillin in 2 divided doses (can be considered in pts who have received amoxicillin in the past 30 days)
-Remember to use the formulation with the LEAST amount of clavulanate to decrease the risk of diarrhea (Augmentin ES-600 is a common formulation)
OR
-Ceftriaxone IM for 1-3 days (if vomiting or unable to tolerate oral)

NON-SEVERE PCN ALLERGY: Cephalosporin (first or second generation; Cefdinir, Cefuroxime, Cefpodoxime, Ceftriaxone)

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15
Q

Which bug causes pharyngitis

A

S. pyogenes

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16
Q

Criteria for anti-infective treatment of influenza

Treatment options and duration

A

< 48 hours since symptom onset

  • Oseltamivir x 5 days
  • Baloxavir x 1 dose
  • Zanamivir inhalation x 5 days
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17
Q

Criteria for anti-infective treatment of pharyngitis

A

Positive rapid antigen diagnostic test

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18
Q

Criteria for anti-infective treatment of sinusitis

A

> 10 days of symptoms
OR
/= 3 days of severe symptoms

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19
Q

Which bug is responsible for causing whooping cough

A

Bordetella Pertussis

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20
Q

Bronchitis caused by bordatella pertussis is treated with

A

A macrolide

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21
Q

Antibiotics for 5-7 days should be used in COPD exacerbations if which criteria are met & what is the preferred antibiotic

A

-All 3 of the following: ↑ dyspnea, ↑ sputum volume and ↑ sputum purulence
-↑ sputum purulence + 1 additional symptom
-Mechanically ventilated
Preferred abx: Augmentin

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22
Q

Most bacterial cases of pneumonia are caused by which bugs

A

S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. pneumoniae

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23
Q

Duration of treatment for CAP

A

5-7 days

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24
Q

If patient does NOT have comorbidities (chronic heart, lung, liver or renal disease; DM; alcoholism; malignancy or asplenia) & has no RF for MRSA or PsA (prior resp isolation of either pathogen or hospitalization with receipt of parenteral abx in the past 90 days), what is the empiric regimen for CAP

A 
-Amoxicillin 1 gram TID
OR
-Doxycycline
OR
-Macrolide (azithromycin or clarithromycin) if local pneumococcal resistance is < 25%
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25
If patient DOES have comorbidities (chronic heart, lung, liver or renal disease; DM; alcoholism; malignancy or asplenia) & has no RF for MRSA or PsA (prior resp isolation of either pathogen or hospitalization with receipt of parenteral abx in the past 90 days), what is the empiric regimen for CAP
-BL + macrolide + doxy (Augmentin or cephalosporin (e.g., cefpodoxime, cefdinir, cefuroxime) PLUS -Macrolide or doxycycline -respiratory quinolone monotherapy (moxi, levo, gemi)
26
Non-severe (typically non-ICU care required) treatment of inpatient CAP
BL (ceftriaxone or cefotaxime) + macrolide or Unasyn OR Respiratory quinolone monotherapy (moxi, levo, gemi)
27
Severe (typically ICU care required) treatment of inpatient CAP
BL + macrolide OR BL + resp quinolone (do NOT use quinolone monotherapy)
28
In CAP treatment, if there are RF for MRSA, add coverage with: In CAP treatment, if there are RF for PsA, add coverage with:
vanco or linezolid Zosyn, cefepime, meropenem or aztreonam
29
HAP has an onset < __ hours after hospital admission VAP occurs > __ hours after the start of mechanical ventillation
48 hours 48 hours
30
Which pathogens are common in HAP & VAP
nosocomial | The risk for MRSA and MDR Gram-negative rods, including PsA is increased in select cases
31
How to select empiric regimen for HAP/VAP
- Choose 1 abx to cover PsA and MSSA if low risk for MRSA or MDR pathogens (cefepime or Zosyn) - Choose 2 abx, one for MRSA and one for PsA if risk for MRSA but low risk for MDR pathogens (cefepime + vanco or meropenem + linezolid) - Choose 3 antibiotics, one for MRSA and 2 for PsA if risk for both MRSA and MDR pathogens (e.g., IV antibiotics within the past 90 days (Zosyn + cipro + vanco or cefepime + gentamycin + linezolid)
32
What is latent TB & how is it diagnosed What is active pulmonary TB
The immune system contains the infection and the patient lacks symptoms Diagnosed: tuberculin skin test (TST) aka PPD test It is transmitted by aerosolized droplets and is highly contagious. Presents with cough/hemoptysis, fever and night sweats Hospitalized pts are isolated in a single negative-pressure room
33
A false positive TB test can occur in those who have received which vaccine
BCG vaccine
34
What is a positive TST result in patients with no risk factors What is a positive TST result in patients who reside in "high-risk" congregate settings (e.g., prison inmates, healthcare workers) What is a positive TST result in patients with significant immunosuppression
>/= 15 mm induration >/= 10 mm induration >/= 5 mm induration
35
How is latent TB treated
- INH or rifapentine weekly x 12 weeks via directly observed therapy (DOT) - DO NOT USE THIS REGIMEN IN PREGNANT WOMEN - Rifampin x 4 months (children and HIV-neg adults) - Isoniazid with rifampin x 3 months (all ages and HIV+) - Alternative: INH x 6 mo or 9 mo - treatment of choice for pregnant women
36
A positive TST is likely with active TB, but the diagnosis must be confirmed with
sputum culture
37
M. tuberculosis (MTB) is an acid-fast bacilli and can be detected using a(n)
AFB stain (note: MTB is a slow-growing organism)
38
The preferred intensive phase treatment for active TB consists of which drugs and how long is therapy In the continuation phase of active TB, what are the drugs used and how long is treatment
``` RIPE: -Rifampin -Isoniazid -Pyrazinamide -Ethambutol 2 months ``` Rifampin and Isoniazid x 4 months
39
Rifampin SE
↑ LFTs, hemolytic anemia (positive Coombs test), flu-like sx, Orange-red discoloration of sputum, urine, sweat, tears, teeth, can stain contact lenses and clothing -Rifabutin can replace rifampin in some cases d/t DDI
40
What can be used to decrease the risk of isoniazid-associated peripheral neuropathy (include dose)
Pyridoxine 25-50 mg
41
Isoniazid BW
Hepatitis
42
Isoniazid SE
↑ LFTs, hemolytic anemia (positive Coombs test), DILE
43
Pyrazinamide CI
acute gout
44
Pyrazinamide SE
↑ LFTs, hyperuricemia/gout
45
Ethambutol SE
↑ LFTs, optic neuritis (dose-related), confusion, hallucinations
46
Major drug interactions with rifampin
Potent PgP and 3A4 inducer -Protease inhibitors -Warfarin (very large ↓ in INR) -Oral contraceptives (decreases efficacy) DO NOT USE RIFAMPIN WITH apixaban and rivaroxaban
47
What are the 3 most common bugs that can cause infective endocarditis
Staphylococci, Streptococci, and Enterococci
48
Which drug is added to infective endocarditis treatment for synergy, when the infection is more difficult to eradicate
Gentamicin
49
When gentamicin is used for synergy in infective endocarditis, traditional dosing is typically used to target peak levels of __-__ mcg/mL and trough levels of < __ mcg/mL
3-4 | <1
50
Adult ppx regimens for infective endocarditis after dental procedures if no PCN allergy and in PCN allergy (including dose)
No PCN allergy: -Amoxicillin 2 grams 30-60 min before dental procedure PCN allergy: -Clindamycin 600 mg or azithromycin or clarithromycin 500 mg
51
DOC for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) and duration of treatment
Ceftriaxone for 5-7 days
52
What are the most likely pathogens of secondary peritonitis
Streptococci, enteric Gram-negatives and anaerobes (B. fragilis)
53
Purulent SSTIs include Superficial SSTIs include Subcutaneous tissue SSTIs include
abcesses impetigo (honey-colored crusts), furuncles, and carbuncles Cellulitis
54
Treatment of impetigo
``` Topical mupirocin (Bactroban) If numerous lesions, use Keflex to cover MSSA ```
55
Treatment of folliculitis/furuncles/carbuncles
- Cephalexin | - If non-responsive, change to a drug with CA-MSSA coverage (Doxy or Bactrim)
56
Mild cellulitis treatment
Keflex
57
Mild to moderate purulent abscess treatment Severe purulent SSTI treatment
Bactrim or doxy (commonly caused by CA-MRSA) Severe: Need MRSA coverage: vanco, linezolid or dapto
58
Necrotizing fasciitis treatment
vanco + BL
59
UTIs that occur in the lower urinary tract are called Symptoms? UTIs that occur in the kidneys are called Symptoms?
cystitis - Urgency and frequency including nocturia - Dysuria - Suprapubic heaviness - Hematuria pyelonephritis -Flank pain
60
Drugs of choice for acute uncomplicated cystitis with dose
Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) 100 mg PO BID with food x 5 days (CI if CrCl < 60 mL/min) OR Bactrim DS 1 tab PO BID x 3 days Can add phenazopyridine (Pyridium) to relieve dysuria for max 2 days
61
Drugs of choice for acute uncomplicated cystitis for pregnant women
Keflex, Amoxicillin | Treat asymptomatic pregnant women!!!
62
Treatment for acute uncomplicated pyelonephritis
- If local quinolone resistance is < / = 10%: cipro or levo | - If local quinolone resistance is > 10%: ceftriaxone, Bactrim, or BL
63
Complicated UTI treatment
Use a carbapenem if ESBL-producing
64
How should Pyridium be taken
with 8 oz of water with or immediately following food to minimize stomach upset
65
Pyridium can cause
red-orange coloring of urine and other body fluids; contact lenses/clothes can be stained
66
Which bugs can cause traveler's diarrhea
Bacterial - E. coli, Campylobacter jejuni, Shigella spp, and Salmonella Viral - rotavirus
67
Treatment of choice in TD if dysentery is present Treatment of choice in TD if dysentery is not present
Azithromycin - DO NOT USE LOPERAMIDE IN DYSENTERY Quinolones or rifaximin
68
How is the first episode of C. diff treated (non-severe or severe)
VAN 125 mg PO QID x 10 days OR FDX 200 mg PO BID x 10 days if above tx are not available and episode is non-severe use Metronidazole 500 mg PO TID x 10 days
69
How is fulminant/complicated C. diff treated
VAN 500 mg PO/NG/PR QID + metronidazole 500 mg IV Q8H
70
How is the 1st recurrence (or 2nd episode) of C. diff treated if metronidazole was used for the initial episode What about if vanco was used in the initial episode?
VAN 125 mg PO QID x 10 days FDX 200 mg PO BID x 10 days
71
How are subsequent episodes (more than 2) of C. diff treated
``` VAN tapered and pulsed regimen OR VAN 125 mg PO QID x 10 days then rifaximin 400 mg TID x 20 days OR FDX 200 mg PO BID x 10 days OR fecal microbiota transplant ```
72
Symptoms of chlamydia & gonorrhea
genital discharge or no symptoms
73
Syphilis symptoms & DOC for primary, secondary or early latent syphilis and dose & alternative
Painless, smooth genital sores (chancre) Penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin L-A) 2.4 million units IM x 1 Alternative: doxy
74
HPV symptoms
genital warts or no symptoms
75
Pregnant patients with syphilis who are allergic to PCN should be treated with
Desensitize and treat with DOC (Bicillin L-A) | This is also recommended in HIV+ pts
76
DOC for late latent syphilis and dose
Penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin L-A) 2.4 million units IM weekly x 3 weeks
77
Gonorrhea treatment and dose
UPDATED PER CDC: Ceftriaxone (higher dose) < 150 kg: 500 mg IM x 1 ≥ 150 kg: 1 gram IM x 1 Old guideline (per book): Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x 1 plus Azithromycin 1 g PO x 1 or doxy Note: monotherapy is not recommended for treatment
78
Chlamydia DOC and dose
Azithromycin 1 gram PO x 1 or doxy
79
Bacterial vaginosis symptoms Trichomoniasis symptoms
clear, white or gray vaginal discharge that has a fishy odor and pH > 4.5 with little to no pain yellow/green frothy vaginal discharge, soreness, and pain with intercourse
80
DOC for Bacterial vaginosis DOC for Trichomoniasis & dose
Metronidazole or Metronidazole 0.75% gel Metronidazole 2 g PO x 1
81
Genital warts (HPV) DOC
Imiquimod cream (also approved for superficial basal cell carcinoma)
82
Treatment for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Doxycycline (also DOC for peds)
83
Treatment for Lyme disease & how does disease present Which bugs are responsible
Doxycycline Bullseye rash (round, red), achy joints, fever Borella burgdorferi and Borrelia mayonii, spread by ticks
84
How to diagnose Lyme disease
EIA
85
Which tests are done to diagnose syphilis
RPR and VDLR

NAPLEX 2023 (88 decks)

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