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Orthodontics > Potential Questions > Flashcards

Potential Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What landmarks are used to construct the mandibular and Frankfort planes

A
  • Po to Or
  • Go to Me
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2
Q

What angle is used to determine the anteroposterior position of the mandible

A
  • ANB
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3
Q

What angle is used to determine vertical discrepancies

A
  • FMPA angle
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4
Q

Name 3 salivary glands

A
  • Parotid gland
  • Submandibular gland
  • Sublingual gland
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5
Q

What are the uses of saliva

A
  • chewing , lubrication, digestion,
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6
Q

What are the implications of saliva during orthodontic procedure?

A
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7
Q

Name the muscles of mastication

A
  • Masseter
  • Medial pterygoid
  • Lateral pterygoid
  • Temporalis
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8
Q

What muscle of mastication is used to open the mouth

A
  • Lateral Pterygoid
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9
Q

What nerve supplies muscle of mastication muscles ?

A
  • 5th Trigeminal nerve
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10
Q

Which of these muscles would ache when a functional appliance is worn

A

Lateral ptrygoid and masseter muscle

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11
Q

What are the effects on the dentition from a digit sucking habit

A
  • Open bite - Unilateral: bilateral displacement
  • Anterior open bite.
  • Proclined upper incisor
  • Retroclined lower incisors
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12
Q

What are the factors in the amount of effects that may occur

A

Skeletal factor - Increased lower face height
Soft tissue - forward tongue posture or atypical swallowing pattern
Habit - digit sucking
Combination of above

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13
Q

For a patient with a Class II div I type malocclusion, what makes trauma more likely

A

– 45% of 12 yrs old children with OJ > 9mm had visible damage to increased incisor

  • More effect of OJ in females than males
  • 50% children need tx following trauma.
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14
Q

For a patient who has had previous trauma what might you consider during treatment planning

A
  • No tx
  • Explained risk of trauma before tx
  • Involved pt and parent with decision
  • Shorter treatment length / aim
  • Monitoring during tx
  • light conts force
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15
Q

If a patient complained about you, what would you do.

A
  • Acknowledge mistake and apologise.
  • Listen carefully.
  • Explain them what went wrong and put things right quickly and effectively.
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16
Q

What are the effects of using too much force

A
  • If excessive force is applied for prolonged period, the blood flow cut off from PDL and sterile necrosis ( hyalinisation) will result and no osteoclastic stimulation occurs. Bone will remodelled by cells from adjacent undamaged areas this is known as undermining resorption.
    Results into : Pain for pt , Slow movement , Root resorption and Ankylosis.
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17
Q

What factors must you consider before you change an arch wire

A
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18
Q

What wire would you use for space closure

A
  • SS round wires for sliding mechanism.
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19
Q

What are the factors that decide the force in an aligning arch wire

A
  • less Stiffness
  • Modulus of resilience - Energy store capacity High in Niti
  • Less elasticity
  • Good range
  • Light Strength
  • Formability
  • Shape memory
  • Light continuous force
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20
Q

What is friction and how would you limit it

A
  • Friction is the force resisting relative motion.
    Law- Friction = Force x Coefficient of Friction.
  • Bracket - material ceramic > friction than metal
  • Wire- material - beta titanium > friction than NiTi > friction than SS
  • Type of Ligation - Elastomeric ligatures 60-70% more than SS.
  • ## Type of tooth movement - Tipping bodily movement
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21
Q

What is informed consent

A
  • A patient must be given full information about what treatment is involved including benefits,
    Risks, advantages and disadvantages. Alternatives
    to treatment including doing nothing.
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22
Q

How should it be documented

A
  • Signing a consent form with all option, benefit, advantages ,disadvantages given letting them know it’s inform decision.
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23
Q

Name another form of consent

A
  • Implied - Book and turn up for appointment
  • Expressed - Either Verbal or writing express they are happy for appt to go ahead with treatment prescribed.
  • Informed- Signing consent form with all options, risks, benefits, advantages and disadvantages given letting them know it’s an informed decision.
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24
Q

List 3 helpful aids that could be used when explaining orthodontic treatment to patients

A
  • Photos
  • Study model / Digital scan
  • Radiographs
  • appliances
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25
Q

What should all dental staff be immunised against

A
  • Tetnus
  • Hep B
    -Hep C
  • Diptheria
  • Polio
  • MMR
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26
Q

How many hours of CPD does an orthodontic therapist have to complete

A
  • 75 hours per cycle verifiable.
  • Unlimited non verifiable.
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27
Q

What is CPD and why is it necessary

A

Continuing professional development is defined as learning experiences which help you develop and improve your professional practice.

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28
Q

What 5 things should be documented on an OPT

A
  • Acceptable or non acceptable
  • Justification
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29
Q

List 5 things shown on an OPT

A
  • 3P- Position, presence and pathology of tooth
  • Bone level
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30
Q

Why do we need retention

A
  • Due to elastic recoil of gingival and PDL fibres.
  • For reorganisation of the periodontal gingival tissue.
  • PDL reorganises over 3months
  • Gingival (Collagenous fibres) reorganise over 6month
  • Gingival (Supercrestal fibres) reorganise over 1 yr.
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31
Q

Name 2 periodontal fibres and how long it takes them to reorganise

A
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32
Q

What would you do if you dropped etch:
On a patients lip
On a patients clothing
In a patients eye

A
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33
Q

What is the definition of relapse
Reasons for relapse
Types of retainers

A
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34
Q

What is iotrogenic damage
List 2 benefits of orthodontic treatment
List 3 risks of orthodontic treatment

A
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35
Q

What causes a splinter haemorrhage
Who would you consult with regarding this
What should healthcare workers be vaccinated against
Name 2 blood borne viruses
What virus could you catch with an ungloved hand
What is the most common metal allerg

A
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36
Q

What are the 3 fibres contributing to ortho relapse
How long does it take for the elastic fibres to remodel
What effect do 3rd molars have on stability
What 3 factors are important in stability

A
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37
Q

What causes an open bite
What treatment would you advise

A
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38
Q

Define anchorage
List 3 ways to increase anchorage in a fixed appliance system
What happens if excessive force is applied
How long does force need to be applied before movement
When headgear is used for anchorage what is the force and duration

A
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39
Q

What is meant by ‘Duty of Care’
What is informed consent
Who can give consent for a pt under the age of 16
Who can give consent to a handicapped pt over the age of 16
How long are we legally required to keep pt records

A
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40
Q

What is the risk of inducing cancer when taking a ceph
What is the effective dose of an OPT
What information can be obtained from a ceph
Name the usual planes drawn on a ceph tracing and what landmarks are needed to do so

A
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41
Q

Name the 4 components of a URA
What type of movement can be obtained with a URA
What functional appliance allows eruption of the buccal segments
Name 2 ways of transitioning from a functional to FA
What muscles are utilised during functional therapy
What proportion of the effects are dental and skeletal

A
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42
Q

Describe a Class I molar relationship
Name 2 common presenting features of a Class I malocclusion
Describe a Class II div I incisor relationship
What is the aetiology of a Class II div I malocclusion
Nmae Andrews 6 keys

A
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43
Q

What is COSHH
What are the 7 steps of hazardous substances

A
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44
Q

Give 3 examples of the effects of hazardous substances
What would you do if you dropped etch on a pts lip

A
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45
Q

Name 5 ways to isolate for a bond up
What type of etch is used
What 4 things does etch do

A
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46
Q

What chemical is unfilled resin
Why is resin used
What does the light do
List the advantages and disadvantages of direct and indirect bonding
What is the difference between the 2

A
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47
Q

What is meant by intra arch and gives examples
What is meant by inter arch and give examples

A
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48
Q

Where should a bracket be placed
What does a SWA provide
Where should a buccal tube be placed
What is the molar relationship if:
Upper first premolars have been extracted
Lower first molars have been extracted
All first premolars have been extracted
No premolars have been extracted

A
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49
Q

List 3 ways of treating a skeletal problem
What might happen to lip support if dental camouflage is used
What are the dental changes produced in functional therapy

A
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50
Q

What are the consequences of the following bracket position errors:
Bracket is not seated correctly (wedge of material)
Bracket is too high or too low on the tooth
Bracket is tipped on the tooth
Bracket is placed too mesially or too distally

A
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51
Q

How would you monitor anchorage

A
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52
Q

What 4 things does etch do

A
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53
Q

List 3 ways to create space

A
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54
Q

Who can consent to treatment for a pt who is handicapped and over the age of 16

A
55
Q

List three ways of increasing anchorage in a fixed appliance

A
56
Q

Briefly describe how a functional works

A
57
Q

What are the skeletal and dental effects

A
58
Q

Define anchorage

A
  • Source of resistance to forces generated in reaction to the active components of appliance. This is Newton third law for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
59
Q

What is meant by the term ‘Duty of Care’

A
60
Q

What is informed consent

A
61
Q

Name and define all ceph landmarks

A
62
Q

What are Andrews 6 Keys

A
63
Q

What is meant by 1st, 2nd, and 3rd order

A
64
Q

What are intra and inter arch relationships and give examples of each

A
65
Q

Name 3 standardised things on a ceph

A
66
Q

What information is obtained from a ceph

A
67
Q

Name the planes drawn on a ceph tracing

A
68
Q

Describe a Class I, II div I and II and Class III incisor class

A
69
Q

Why is it necessary to use more than optimal force during space closure

A
70
Q

How many hours of force is needed to move teeth

A
71
Q

How many hours of force is needed to move teeth

A
72
Q

What are harnessed when using a functional appliance

A
73
Q

Name 5 reasons for failure of space closure

A
74
Q

What radiographs are taken to determine the position of unerupted canines

A
75
Q

What information can be obtained from an OPT

A
76
Q

What does the term Gillick Competent mean

A
77
Q

How could you treat a patient who presented with a Class II division I malocclusion

A
78
Q

What is meant by the term ‘burning anchorage’

A
79
Q

What are the special investigations carried out during an orthodontic assessment and list the reasons why

A
80
Q

Instructions to a pt with a functional appliance

A
81
Q

What are the current ABC regs and where would you find them

A
82
Q

What would you do if a patient had an anaphylactic shock

A
83
Q

What do you do to imps before sending them to the lab

A
84
Q

What is a supernumerary tooth

A
85
Q

What are the effects of having a supernumerary tooth

A
86
Q

Name the different morphological types

A
87
Q

How would you clinically locate an unerupted canine tooth

A
88
Q

What would you do if you could not locate it clinically (excluding rads mentioned below)

A
89
Q

If the canine appears higher on the OPT than the SMO what would this tell you about the position of the canine

A
90
Q

What are the treatment options for an unerupted/impacted canine

A
91
Q

Describe a Class I molar relationship

A
92
Q

Give the definition of an incisor Class I, Class II div I and a Class II div II

A
93
Q

List 2 methods of providing space to relieve maxillary crowding

A
94
Q

If ANB is 0 what is the skeletal class

A
95
Q

What effect does trauma to a deciduous incisor have on the permanent successors

A
96
Q

What may cause retention of a primary molar 9 months after expected exfoliation

A
97
Q

What are the inter and intra arch effects/features of a patient with a digit sucking habit

A
98
Q

Name 4 ideal properties of alginate impression material

A
99
Q

What is the role of a facebow record and when is it considered in orthodontics

A
100
Q

What is glass polyalkenoate

A
101
Q

What factors contribute to lower incisor crowding

A
102
Q

Define the following:
Intercuspal position
Mandibular displacement
Mandibular deviation

A
103
Q

What is the incidence of hypodontia

A
104
Q

What problems can result from the early loss of a deciduous tooth

A
105
Q

If a lower deciduous first molar is lost unilaterally, what would you see clinically

A
106
Q

1 What cells are responsible for the craniofacial skeleton

A
107
Q

Define growth

A
108
Q

3 What is the relevance of growth to orthodontics

A
109
Q

What is ossification

A
110
Q

Ossification is formed in two ways, name them

A
111
Q

What phenomena is bone growth a function of

A
112
Q

Which pharyngeal arch is the mandible derived from

A
113
Q

In what direction does the maxilla grow

A
114
Q

Name two factors that influence growth

A
115
Q

Name the three stages of dental development

A
116
Q

11 Name three types of physiological tooth movement

A
117
Q

Name four theories of tooth eruption

A
118
Q

13What is a natal tooth

A
119
Q

When do deciduous teeth erupt

A
120
Q

What is leeway space

A
121
Q

Name two general and local causes for delayed eruption

A
122
Q

Name two general and local causes for delayed eruption

A
123
Q

What is ankyloglossa​

A
124
Q

List two ways of classifying a malocclusion

A
125
Q

What is mesial drift

A
126
Q

What is the incidence of supernumeraries

A
127
Q

Where do they most commonly occur

A
128
Q

List three type of supernumeraries

A
129
Q

List three type of supernumeraries

A
130
Q

What is infraocclusion

A
131
Q

What is dilaceration and how does it occur

A
132
Q

List two causes of disrupted mineralisation

A
133
Q

What difference between impeded and impacted tooth?

A
  • Impacted 5i: Space for unerupted tooth <= 4mm
  • Impeded- If tooth has erupted but is short of space so tips against neighbouring tooth scored as impeded. 4t

Orthodontics (51 decks)

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