Physical examination in a psychiatric patient Flashcards

1
Q

Sign associated with neurosyphilis and diabetes

A

Argyll-Robertson pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Bilaterally small pupils which accommodate but do not react to bright light

A

Argyll-Robertson pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Sign where there are multiple surgical scars due to factitious disorder

A

Checker-board abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Drug intoxication associated with constricted pupils

A

Opiates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Conditions associated with dilated pupils

A

Stimulant abuse
Anxiety
Opiate withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Eye sign associated with Wilson’s Disease

A

Kayser Fleischer ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Neck sign associated with thyroid disease or rarely with lithium use

A

Goitre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Medical causes of gynaecomastia

A
Hyperprolactinaemia
Cirrhosis
Normal male puberty
Hypogonadism
Tumours including adrenal or testicular
Renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Medication associated causes of gynaecomastia

A
Oestrogen containing drugs e.g. goserelin
Spironolactone
Finasteride
Ketoconazole
Methadone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Recreational drugs causing gynaecomastia

A

Marijuana
Amphetamines
Heroin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Body hair seen in anorexia nervosa

A

Lanugo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Disease causing lemon stick appearance

A

Cushing’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Eye signs seen in hyperthyroidism

A

Exophthalmos
Lid retraction
Lid lag
Orbital fat prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Disease classically associated with a mask-like face

A

Parkinson’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Diseases associated with parotid swelling

A

Bulimia nervosa

Mumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Sign seen in bulimia nervosa where there are callouses at the knuckles

A

Russell’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Medication causing Sialorrhoea (hypersalivation)

A

Clozapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Signs in infective endocarditis

A

Splinter haemorrhages
Osler nodes
Janeway lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tender, red, raised lumps typically found on the fingers and toes in infective endocarditis

A

Osler nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Non-tender red lesions seen on the palms and soles of the feet in infective endocarditis

A

Janeway lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

More common side for a unilateral paraesthesia caused by hyperventilation

A

Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Usual distribution for paraesthesia caused by hyperventilation in a panic attack

A

Bilateral, upper limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Minor physical anomaly associated with developmental disorders where there is a skin tag in front of the ear

A

Preauricular skin tag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Syndrome occurring where there are lip pits and cleft lip/palate

A

Van der Woude syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Minor physical anomaly associated with developmental disorders where there are small white/grey spots in a ring around the pupil

A

Brushfield spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cranial nerve number I

A

Olfactory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cranial nerve number II

A

Optic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cranial nerve number III

A

Occulomotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cranial nerve number IV

A

Trochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cranial nerve number V

A

Trigeminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cranial nerve number VI

A

Abducens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cranial nerve number VII

A

Facial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cranial nerve number VIII

A

Vestibulocochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cranial nerve number IX

A

Glossopharyngeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cranial nerve number X

A

Vagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cranial nerve number XI

A

Accessory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cranial nerve number XII

A

Hypoglossal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Main clinical examination technique for the olfactory nerve

A

Check sense of smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Main clinical examination technique for the optic nerve

A

Visual acuity using Snellen charts
Colour sight using Ishihara charts
Visual fields
Pupillary reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Main clinical examination technique for the oculomotor nerve

A

Eye movements - elevation, adduction, depression in abduction
Eyelid elevation
Pupillary reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Main clinical examination technique for the oculomotor nerve

A

Eye movements - elevation, adduction, depression in abduction
Eyelid elevation
Pupillary reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Eye abnormality seen with a third cranial nerve lesion

A

Down and out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Main clinical examination technique for the trochlear nerve

A

Eye movements - depression in inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Eye abnormality seen in a fourth cranial nerve lesion

A

Upwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Main clinical examination technique for the facial nerve

A

Facial movement

Taste for front 2/3 of the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Main clinical examination technique for the trigeminal nerve

A

Sensation to the face

Chewing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Three branches of the trigeminal nerve

A

Ophthalmic
Maxillary
Mandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Main clinical examination technique for the abducens nerve

A

Eye movements - abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Eye abnormality seen in a sixth cranial nerve lesion

A

Eye turned inwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Main clinical examination technique for the vestibulocochlear nerve

A

Balance - Romberg test

Hearing - Rinne/Weber tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Main clinical examination technique for the glossopharyngeal nerve

A

Taste to the back 1/3 of the tongue

Sensation to the soft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Main clinical examination technique for the vagus nerve

A

Cough

Vocal cord movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Main clinical examination technique for the accessory cranial nerve

A

Head turning

Shoulder shrugging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Main clinical examination technique for the hypoglossal cranial nerve

A

Tongue movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Cranial nerve test where a vibrating tuning fork is held against the forehead in the middle of the face

A

Weber test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Cranial nerve test where a vibrating tuning fork is held at the mastoid bone, and then in front of the ear

A

Rinne test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Weber test result in normal hearing

A

Sound heard equally loudly bilaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Weber test result in conductive hearing loss

A

Sound louder in the abnormal ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Weber test result in sensorineural hearing loss

A

Sound louder in the normal ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Positive (normal) Rinne hearing test

A

Sound continues when the fork is moved from the bone to the air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Negative (abnormal) Rinne test

A

Sound does not continue when the tuning fork is moved from the mastoid to the air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Type of hearing loss associated with an abnormal Rinne test

A

Conductive hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Direction in which patients with poor vestibular function fall in a Romberg’s test

A

Forwards to the side of the poor vestibular function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Testing for poor vestibular function in which cold or warm water is poured into an ear to elicit nystagmus

A

Caloric testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Normal results in caloric testing in unilateral poor vestibular function

A

Cold water - nystagmus to the opposite side

Warm water - nystagmus to the same side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Test used to elicit ataxia

A

Heel toe walking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Cerebellar signs

A
Ataxia
Hypotonia
Intention tremor
Past pointing
Dysdiadokokinesis
Dysarthria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Sign of meningism where flexion of the neck causes flexion of the knees and hips

A

Brudzinski sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Sign of meningism where there is spasm if the knee is extended while the hip is flexed

A

Kernig sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Sign suggestive of lower lumber nerve root irritation where the passive flexing of the hip while in the supine position causes pain

A

Straight-leg raising sign/Lasègue sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Sign suggestive of upper lumbar nerve root irritation where there is pain on the passive hyper-extension of the hip while in the prone position

A

Reverse straight leg raise sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Neurological signs which do not point to a lesion in a specific area

A

Soft neurological signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Neurological sign where there are small quivering of the muscles

A

Fasciculations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Neurological sign where there are brief, jerky movements of the wrists on holding the arms out with the palms facing outwards

A

Asterixis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Slow, writhing spasms along the long axis of the limbs or the whole body

A

Athetosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Semi-purposeful movements of the limbs affecting multiple joints; more peripheral than central

A

Chorea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Violent flinging movements of half of the body

A

Hemiballismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Area of brain generally affected when primitive reflexes are seen in an adult

A

Diffuse cerebral damage, particularly in the frontal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Primitive reflex where the arms jerk out and the head and legs extend on a sudden change of position

A

Moro reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Primitive reflex where the baby’s head is turned to one side, and the arm on the side the head is turned straightens while the other arm bends at the elbow

A

Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Normal abdominal reflex

A

A line is drawn away from the umbilicus along a diagonal line, and the umbilicus is drawn towards the direction the line is drawn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Normal cremasteric reflex

A

Scratching the medial thigh in males causes elevation of the ipsilateral testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Normal plantar reflex

A

Plantar flexion of the great toe on drawling a line up the sole of the foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Positive Babinski sign

A

Dorsiflexion of the great toe on drawing a line up the sole of the foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Spinal root of the biceps reflex

A

C5, C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Spinal root of the brachioradialis reflex

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Spinal root of the triceps reflex

A

C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Spinal root of the patellar reflex

A

L2-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Spinal root of the Achilles reflex

A

S4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Lesions causing exaggerated tendon reflexes

A

UMN lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Lesions causing lack of tendon reflexes

A

LMN reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Condition associated with frontal baldness

A

Myotonic dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Condition associated with ash leaf spots

A

Tuberous sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Condition associated with moles and dimples along the spine

A

Spina bifida occulta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Condition associated with Coast of Maine hyperpigmented skin lesions

A

McCune-Albright syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Conditions associated with Café-au-lait spots

A

Neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Condition associated with axillary freckling

A

Neurofibromatosis

98
Q

Type of dysarthria characterised by a strained and hoarse voice with hypernasality, often with swallowing and drooling difficulties

A

Spastic dysarthria

99
Q

Type of dysarthria characterised by a small tongue

A

Hypotonic dysarthria

100
Q

Type of dysarthria characterised by loudness, tremor and irregularity

A

Ataxic dysarthria

101
Q

Lesions associated with spastic dysarthria

A

UMN lesions

102
Q

Lesions associated with hypotonic dysarthria

A

LMN lesions

103
Q

Lesions associated with ataxic dysarthria

A

Cerebellar lesions

104
Q

Type of dysarthria characterised by a quiet, breathy, monotone voice

A

Hypokinetic dysarthria

105
Q

Type of dysarthria characterised by strained hoarseness and speech arrests

A

Hyperkinetic dysarthria

106
Q

Lesions associated with hyperkinetic dysarthria

A

Basal ganglia lesions

107
Q

Type of dysarthria characterised by sudden loss of voice, normal vocal cord movement and normal examination

A

Hysterical aphonia

108
Q

Type of gait characterised by a paralysed leg which appears longer due to an extended knee, associated with a clenched hand on the ipsilateral side

A

Hemiparetic gait

109
Q

Condition associated with a hemiparetic gait

A

Stroke

110
Q

Type of gait characterised by a staggering, wide based gait

A

Ataxic gait

111
Q

Area of lesion associated with an ataxic gait

A

Cerebellar

112
Q

Type of gait characterised by very short steps

A

Shuffling gait

113
Q

Type of gait characterised by progressively shorter steps due to acceleration while walking

A

Festinating gait

114
Q

Condition associated with festinating gait

A

Parkinson’s disease

115
Q

Type of gait characterised by exaggerated steps, as if climbing stairs while walking on the flat

A

High stepping gait/neuropathic gait/equine gait

116
Q

Condition associated with a high stepping gait

A

Chronic peripheral neuropathies

117
Q

Type of gait characterised by a broad base, and the dropping of the pelvis on the side of the leg being raised, leading to a compensatory body swing forward

A

Waddling gait

118
Q

Conditions associated with waddling gait

A

Proximal myopathy
Congenital hip dislocation
Pregnancy at near term

119
Q

Type of gait characterised by over adduction and rigidity in the legs, causing the knees to rub together, as well as plantar flexion of the ankle causing forced tip toe walking

A

Scissoring gait

120
Q

Condition associated with a scissoring gait

A

Spastic paraplegia

121
Q

Type of gait characterised by the inability to lift the feet off the floor

A

Magnetic gait

122
Q

Condition associated with magnetic gait

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

123
Q

Conditions associated with absent ankle jerks and upgoing plantars

A

Subacute combined degeneration of the cord
Neurosyphilis
Friedrich’s ataxia

124
Q

Term for pupillary asymmetry

A

Anisocoria

125
Q

Term for the denial of illness

A

Anosognosia

126
Q

Lesion associated with anosognosia

A

Right frontoparietal lesion

127
Q

Sign characterised by the upward deviation of the umbilicus when an attempt is made to sit up from the supine position due to lower abdominal paralysis

A

Beevor sign

128
Q

Condition characterised by ipsilateral spastic paralysis and loss of position sense below the level of the lesion, hyperreflexia, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

A

Brown Sequard syndrome

129
Q

Electrolyte abnormality causing Chvostek sign

A

Hypocalcaemia

130
Q

Electrolyte abnormality causing Trousseau’s sign

A

Hypocalcaemia

131
Q

Sign characterised by facial spasm on the ipsilateral side when the cheekbone is tapped

A

Chvostek sign

132
Q

Sign characterised by carpal spasm when a blood pressure cuff is tightened

A

Trousseau sign

133
Q

Sign to test for brainstem integrity in a comatose patient where the head is moved quickly from side to side while the eyes are held open

A

Doll’s eye manoeuver

134
Q

Sign elicited in the doll’s eye manoeuver if the brainstem is intact

A

Both eyes deviate to the opposite side to the direction the head is being turned

135
Q

Condition associated with high foot arches, kyphoscoliosis, cerebellar signs, impaired joint position, cardiomyopathy and optic atrophy

A

Friedrich’s ataxia

136
Q

Sign associated with Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy, where someone attempts to stand up by climbing up their own legs with their arms

A

Gower sign

137
Q

Condition associated with a dilated pupil that reacts poorly to light, and absent patellar and Achilles reflexes

A

Holmes-Adie syndrome

138
Q

Signs of horner’s syndrome

A
Ptosis
Anhydrosis
Miosis
Enophthalmos
Loss of ciliospinal reflex
139
Q

Tumour causing horner’s syndrome

A

Pancoast tumour

140
Q

Sign where the abnormal pupil dilates as a swinging light moves towards it from the normal side

A

Marcus Gunn pupil

141
Q

Condition associated with a Marcus Gunn pupil

A

Afferent pupillary defect

142
Q

Painful, asymmetric peripheral neuropathy with damage to at least two separate nerve areas

A

Mononeuritis multiplex

143
Q

Causes of mononeuritis multiplex

A
Diabetes
Vasculitis
Amyloidosis
Tumours
Autoimmune disorders
Paraneoplastic syndromes
144
Q

Sign associated with chorea where someone cannot sustain a grip

A

Milkmaid’s grip

145
Q

Sign characterised by continued blinking with repeated glabellar taps (normally there is extinction of the reflex)

A

Myerson’s sign

146
Q

Condition associated with Myerson’s sign

A

Parkinson’s disease

147
Q

Triad of optic neuritis

A

Loss of vision
Eye pain
Dyschromatopsia (decrease in the perception of colours)

148
Q

Heat or exercise induced vision loss

A

Uhthoff sign

149
Q

Sign characterised by an unsteady tongue when it is protruded out of the mouth, associated with chorea

A

Trombone tongue

150
Q

Signs associated with an UMN lesion

A

Rigidity
Hypertonia
Hyperreflexia
Mild atrophy from disuse

151
Q

Signs associated with a LMN lesion

A

Atonia or hypotonia
Loss of tendon reflexes
Atrophy
Fasciculations

152
Q

Lesion causing a bulbar palsy

A

LMN lesion of cranial nerves IX - XII

153
Q

Lesion causing a pseudobulbar palsy

A

Bilateral UMN lesions of the lower cranial nerves

154
Q

Signs of a bulbar palsy

A

Wasted, fasciculating tongue
Nasal speech
Lack of jaw jerk
Lack of gag reflex

155
Q

Signs of a pseudobulbar palsy

A

Stiff tongue
Donald-duck speech
Exaggerated jaw jerk
Emotional lability

156
Q

Causes of a bulbar palsy

A
MND
Polio
Botulism
Myasthenia Gravis
Muscular dystrophy
157
Q

Causes of a pseudobulbar palsy

A

MND
MS
Multi-infarct dementia
Severe head injury

158
Q

Area of brain lesion suggested by anomic dysphasia

A

Dominant temporo-parietal lesion

159
Q

Failure to recognise an object despite normal visual input

A

Visual agnosia

160
Q

First sign to improve when thiamine is given to a patient with Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

Ophthalmoplegia

161
Q

Area of brain lesion suggested by poor visuospatial ability

A

Parietal lobe

162
Q

Inability to read

A

Alexia

163
Q

Area of brain lesion suggested in alexia without agraphia

A

Posterior cerebral territory (usually dominant)

164
Q

Test used to identify patients with conversion disorder, where the patient is unable to lift their affect limb, but when lifting their unaffected limb against resistance is able to push down with their affected limb

A

Hoover’s test

165
Q

Area of brain lesion suggested by poor categorisation

A

Frontal lobe

166
Q

Area of brain lesion suggested by poor error correction

A

Frontal lobe

167
Q

Area of brain lesion suggested by a spastic hemiparesis

A

Contralateral frontal lobe

168
Q

Hemisphere of brain lesion suggested by constructional apraxia

A

Right

169
Q

Signs seen in a senile pupil

A

Sluggish light and accommodation reflex

170
Q

Reductions in cognitive abilities seen in healthy aging

A

Motor speed
Visuospatial skills
Attention span
New learning ability

171
Q

Most common type of tremor

A

Benign essential tremor

172
Q

Type of tremor which can be improved by alcohol and beta blockers

A

Benign essential tremor

173
Q

Type of tremor which is not associated with pathology, which mostly affects the hands and which slowly progresses

A

Benign essential tremor

174
Q

Type of tremor described as a ‘pill-rolling tremor’

A

Parkinsonian

175
Q

Type of tremor which is slow and coarse, and gets worse with intentional movement

A

Cerebellar/intention tremor

176
Q

Type of tremor which is variable and improves with distraction

A

Psychogenic tremor

177
Q

Type of tremor which is present in all normal people when maintaining a posture

A

Physiologic

178
Q

Most coarse type of tremor

A

Cerebellar/intention tremor

179
Q

Finest type of tremor

A

Physiologic

180
Q

Features common in non-epileptic seizures compared to seizures

A
Longer duration
Gradual onset and fluctuating course
Eyes closed
Safe fall
Recall of the event
181
Q

Features common in epileptic seizures compared to non-epileptic seizures

A
Sudden onset
Incontinence (can occur in non-epileptic seizures too)
Automatisms
Biting of tongue or inside of mouth
Amnesia for the event
182
Q

Sustained muscle contractions which cause twisting movements or the maintenance of abnormal postures

A

Dystonia

183
Q

Sudden involuntary (and not suppressible) jerks of a muscle or group of muscles

A

Myoclonus

184
Q

Loss or absence of voluntary muscle movements

A

Akinesia

185
Q

Slowness of movement seen in Parkinson’s disease

A

Bradykinesia

186
Q

Subjective feeling of inner restlessness

A

Akathesia

187
Q

General term referring to problems with voluntary movements, or the presence of involuntary movements

A

Dyskinesia

188
Q

Triad of features present in Parkinsonism

A

Tremor
Rigidity
Bradykinesia

189
Q

Involuntary but somewhat suppressible stereotyped motor movement or vocalisation

A

Tic

190
Q

Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one or more body parts

A

Tremor

191
Q

Condition in which psychogenic polydipsia most commonly occurs

A

Schizophrenia

192
Q

Features of sleep associated with typical depression

A
Decreased total sleep time
Early morning wakening
Prolonged sleep onset latency
Increased wakening through the night
Increased REM time
Decreased slow wave sleep
193
Q

Most typical sleep effect of depression

A

Early morning wakening

194
Q

Dilation effect of mydriatic agents on Argyll Robertson pupils

A

Poor

195
Q

Sign seen in Wilson’s disease where there is a greenish central disc in the eye with spoke like yellow radiations

A

Sunflower cataract

196
Q

Test used to investigate the cause of ataxia

A

Romberg test

197
Q

Physical findings in hypothyroidism

A
Hair loss
Bradycardia
Periorbital puffiness
Dry skin
Coarse, brittle hair
Myxoedema
Hyporeflexia
Tremor
198
Q

Findings in hyperthyroidism

A

Hair loss
Tachycardia
Tremor
Brisk reflexes

199
Q

Test used during testing of visual fields where the patient’s visual field is compared with the examiner’s

A

Confrontation

200
Q

Clinical features of acute cocaine intoxication

A
Increased temperature
Labile BP and tachycardia
Behavioural changes - euphoria, anxiety, agitation, paranoia
Teeth grinding
Dry mouth
Dilated pupils
201
Q

Clinical features of cocaine overdose

A
As for intoxication
Rigidity and myoclonus
Seizures
Arrhythmias and ACS
Hyperthermia induced rhabdomyolysis, renal failure or cerebral oedema
202
Q

Clinical features of cocaine withdrawal

A
Vivid and unpleasant dreams
Hypersomnia or insomnia
Increased desire for sleep
Irritability and anxiety
Increased appetite
Cravings
203
Q

Clinical features of opiate overdose

A

Decreased level of consciousness
Pinprick pupils
Reduced respiratory rate

204
Q

Clinical features of opiate withdrawal

A
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
Abdominal cramps
Restless legs and muscle aches
Anxiety
Yawning
Piloerection
Coryzal symptoms and eye watering
Pupillary dilation
Tachycardia, hypertension
205
Q

Clinical features of benzodiazepine overdose

A

Sleepiness
Slurred speech
Impaired balance and motor function
Diplopia
Paradoxical agitation, anxiety, hallucinations
In severe cases coma, respiratory depression, hypotension, hypothermia, bradycardia

206
Q

Clinical features of benzodiazepine withdrawal

A
Multiple features including:
Anxiety, irritability and panic attacks
Confusion
Insomnia
Weight loss
Diarrhoea, nausea and retching
Muscle twitching
Photophobia
Dilated pupils
Tachycardia
207
Q

Clinical features of cannabis intoxication

A
Euphoria
Altered sense of time and mind
Poor concentration and short term memory
Increased appetite
Anxiety, hallucinations, paranoia, psychosis
Red eyes and sometimes dilated pupils
208
Q

Clinical features of cannabis withdrawal

A
Irritability
Anxiety
Insomnia
Decreased appetite
Low mood
Abdominal pain
Tremors
Sweating
Headache
Fever
209
Q

Clinical features of alcohol withdrawal

A
Tremor
Insomnia
Agitation
Seizures
Hallucinations
Sweating
Disorientation
Autonomic instability
Nausea and vomiting
210
Q

Clinical features of ecstasy intoxication

A
Euphoria
Dilated pupils
Dehydration
Hyperthermia
Tachycardia and hypertension
Nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea
Clenching of jaw
211
Q

Clinical features of ecstasy overdose

A
Labile BP
Hyperreflexia
Confusion, paranoia, agitation
Muscle rigidity
Hyperpyrexia
212
Q

Sign where the pupils constrict and then widely dilate due to raised intracranial pressure

A

Hutchinson pupil

213
Q

Gait seen in hip dysplasia or other strucural abnormalities

A

Pigeon gait

214
Q

Gait seen in Friedreich’s ataxia

A

Stomping gait

215
Q

Clinical features of amphetamine intoxication

A
Tachycardia or bradycardia
Labile BP
Pupillary dilation
Sweating or chills
Nausea and vomiting
Euphoria, anxiety, paranoia (in amphetamine induced psychosis)
216
Q

Clinical features of amphetamine withdrawal

A
Cravings
Low mood
Increased appetite
Increased or decreased movement
Change in sleep patterns
Lucid dreams
217
Q

Type of lesion which causes pronator drift

A

Upper motor neurone lesion

218
Q

Type of gait characterised by a long swing phase and short stance phase on one side

A

Antalgic gait

219
Q

Symptom associated with an antalgic gait

A

Pain on weight bearing

220
Q

Percentage of patients with autism who also have macrocephaly

A

20%

221
Q

Features of a lower motor neurone lesion

A
Weakness
Marked atrophy
Fasciculations
Decreased tone
Decreased reflexes
222
Q

Features of an upper motor neuron lesion

A
Weakness
Mild atrophy only
Increased tone
Increased reflexes
Upgoing plantars (Babinski)
Clonus
223
Q

Weakness of one side of the body

A

Hemiparesis

224
Q

Paralysis of one side of the body

A

Hemiplegia

225
Q

Apraxia where there is an inability to plan and complete motor tasks, and to convert an idea into action. May have retained ability to complete the task if not consciously thinking about it or may do the wrong thing e.g. try to brush their hair with a razor.

A

Ideomotor apraxia

226
Q

Type of apraxia where someone is unable to brush their teeth when asked to. If handed a toothbrush with toothpaste on they may try to perform the wrong action.

A

Ideomotor apraxia

227
Q

Type of apraxia where there is an inability to conceptualise and complete multistep tasks. May complete tasks in the wrong order e.g. putting on shoes before socks

A

Ideational apraxia

228
Q

Type of apraxia where someone is unable to make a slice of buttered toast, even though they can repeat each single step when shown by others

A

Ideational apraxia

229
Q

Type of apraxia where there is an inability to make fine or delicate movements

A

Limb kinetic apraxia

230
Q

Type of apraxia where there is an inability to copy a picture or combine parts of something to form something whole

A

Constructional apraxia

231
Q

Type of apraxia where there is an inability to control eye movements properly

A

Oculomotor apraxia

232
Q

Psychiatric condition where there is a deficit in smooth eye tracking

A

Schizophrenia

233
Q

Percentage of patients with Wernicke’s who have the classic triad of symptoms

A

10%

234
Q

Physical signs that can point towards a metabolic or toxic cause of altered mental state

A

Asterixis
Tremor
Myoclonic jerks

235
Q

Eye sign which is pathognomic of multiple sclerosis

A

Bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia

236
Q

Features of internuclear ophthalmoplegia

A

Impaired adduction

Abducting nystagmus

237
Q

Length of time post traumatic amnesia should last with a mild head injury

A

Less than one hour

238
Q

Length of time post traumatic amnesia should last with a moderate head injury

A

1 hour to 24 hours

239
Q

Length of time post traumatic amnesia should last with a severe head injury

A

More than 24 hours

240
Q

Level of lesion associated with pronator drift

A

UMN lesion