PHI S-92 Oral; My Previous Experiences (2 of 3)

Question 1

What are the procedures for “smoke and fumes in the cockpit”?

Answer 1

1) Open side windows
2) ECS to vent
3) LASA Possible

Question 2

When does the Prime Pump supply fuel for engine start?

Answer 2

Only in DIRECT.
The why: When a fuel selector is placed in XFEED the fuel selector valve rotates to XFEED and the fuel source side Prime SOV is closed. Once the start button is activated, the Fuel Prime Pump tries but fails to prime the lines and the Engine Driven Boost pump becomes the sole source of fuel to the selected engine when in XFEED.

Question 3

10-minutes from an off-shore destination, in VMC conditions, a PSAS fault illuminates. However, the FCC is in secondary SAS. What should the crew do?

Answer 3

Continue to destination. After landing, MEL the appropriate FCC and continue flight (VFR). Airspeed is limited to 120 KIAS.
Note: Also, able to MEL a single PSAS by “securing hydraulic power to the SAS on the AFCS panel.” IAW MEL dtd 1OCT2014.

Question 4

Which items are “auto shed” under APU generator power only (Dual AC GEN FAIL)?

Answer 4

“WARM”

Windshield Anti-Ice, AVC, RIPS, #1 engine inlet Anti-ice Mat.

Question 5

In case both #1 and #2 hydraulic lines both get severed aft of the T/R shutoff valve, What is likely to happen?

Answer 5

Both RSVR LOW caution lights would illuminate and power would be lost to T/R servos (TR SVO 1/2 PRES). The utility system would remain in the LOW mode. Tail Rotor pedals will “Hydro-Lock” and T/R will effectively be ‘fixed Pitch’.

Question 6

If a #2 AHRS fails, what indications are lost?

Answer 6

Pilot side ADI and HSI displays. Center circles go black.

Question 7

For a rotor brake start, what is required?

Answer 7

Minimum press of 450 PSI, after releasing the rotor brake, run the engine at 50-55% for 1-minute before advancing to FLY.

Question 8

During shutdown, how do you identify a hung droop stop?

Answer 8

One or more blades are flying considerably lower at idle.

Question 9

With regards to the ECS system, what configurations are authorized for use in flight?

Answer 9

1) If neither heat or AC is used in flight, then vent MUST be on
2) Cabin MAX AC may be used
3) Cockpit MAX AC is only authorized on the ground.

Question 10

What does the engine use to draw fuel from the fuel tank?

Answer 10

Engine driven fuel boost pump

Question 11

In an aircraft equipped with MGB Auto Bypass, when is the bypass test done?

Answer 11

Automatically as Nr increases through 60%

Question 12

After engine shutdown at an off-shore locations, the TGT starts rising rapidly indicating a post shutdown fire. What are the appropriate actions?

Answer 12

Ensure the throttle is at STOP, press the starter button once and motor until below 150*C.

Question 13

What are the procedures to reset the ECS?

Answer 13

Ref: S92-AMM-000; “Start the sequence with both selectors in OFF position and make each of the following steps within 2-5 seconds from the completion of the previous one. Cockpit selector only: OFF-AC-OFF-AC-OFF” repeat with Cabin selector to complete ECS reset.

Question 14

IAW Chief Pilot Letter dtd 03Jan2018; Max baggage compartment weight was reduced from 908.5(412Kg) to what? for a bonus list both pounds and kilograms.

Answer 14

872.0 total pounds (395Kg), upper shelf limit is still 300 pounds (136Kg). This includes both chocks and aircraft tie-downs.

Question 15

If you are unsure of what you are required to look at on preflight, where in the RFM can you look for guidance?

Answer 15

PT-1, Sect 2, Normal Procedures

Question 16

How do you determine if the aircraft is WAAS certified?

Answer 16

Check RFM supplements in Part-2, Sect-3.

Question 17

What is Vmin IFR, IAW the RFM?

Answer 17

50 KIAS

Question 18

When is the FUEL 1/2 LOW Caution Light illuminated?

Answer 18

215 +/- 45 pounds

Question 19

When pressing the ARM button, during Engine Fire procedures, what happens?

Answer 19

It ARMs the fire extinguisher system and shuts off fuel to the selected engine, thereby shutting it down.

Question 20

What is minimum IFR altitude for non-mountainous areas?

Answer 20

1000ft above the highest obstacle within 4nm of course line. (2000ft for mountainous areas).

Question 21

How often is the VOR check required?

Answer 21

within 30 days

Question 22

What is required if you are departing an airport where weather is below landing minimum?

Answer 22

An IFR departure alternate airport must be available within 1-hour, at normal cruise speed, with weather above “alternate mins”: +200ft/ >1sm vis at ETA+/- 1 hr

Question 23

Flying offshore in GoMex, at what altitude do you need to maintain a minimum of 500ft below the clouds?

Answer 23

Above 1200AGL
GoMex Class E=above 1200AGL to 10k MSL
Class G= 1200AGL and below

Question 24

Quantity limits listed in column 9(a) and 9(b) of the HAZMAT program and acceptance guide tables are____?

Answer 24

Total quantity limit “per package”, unless noted as “gross”. May be able to break larger packages down to meet criteria.

Question 25

Some of the most significant weather offshore is: Thunderstorms, fronts, squall lines, hail and lightning, microbursts, water spouts and fog.

Answer 25

True

Don’t memorize conditions, just remember GoMex gets a little of everything.

Question 26

Flying an IFR OSAP that is 8nm from a weather station and with a SIC who has logged 6x OSAPs since training, what is your minimum weather for the OSAP?

Answer 26

300-1; because SIC has less than 10x OSAPs.
Notes: 1) No indications of RadAlt failure so no reason to increase MDA due to distance from WX station.
2) No indication of distance from OSAP to Rig, so no “continue VFR” requirement exists.

Question 27

According the the GOM, unescorted passengers may be permitted on the ramp IF briefed and authorized by the appropriate personnel.

Answer 27

TRUE

Question 28

How are HSAC areas along the gulf coast depicted on the WAC chart? (Where HSAC rules apply)

Answer 28

Blue Circles

Question 29

Although HSAC procedures are “recommended”, PHI and GoMex Operators expect you to follow them. Where are these procedures found?

Answer 29

AIM ch-10, sect-2

PHI treats them as MANDATORY because they increase safety and standardization.

Question 30

GoMex weather is 3000 OVC. What is the maximum VFR altitude and minimum VIS with round trip fuel?

Answer 30

2500AGL and 3sm VIS

Class E= “5-123”

Question 31

Why would an off-shore helideck be categorized as “restricted”?

Answer 31

If the ground effect area (solid decking) is less than 0.83DV. You may have to reduce weight to meet HOGE criteria.

Question 32

For the S92; list the following values: D-value, 0.83DV, M/R diameter?

Answer 32

D-value: 68’6” (21 meters)
0.83 DV: 56’10” (17.3 meters)
M/R dia: 56’4” (17.2 meters)

Question 33

Are EOC procedures mandatory for Medium and Heavy aircraft?

Answer 33

Short answer: Yes
Long answer: When conducting VFR operations. IFR aircraft on a IFR plan can fly in all EOC conditions within IFR and aircraft limits.
B-U-T, three key points to remember:
1)Winds>20kts triggers the 30/30 rule for ground ops
2)Wx radar is required for T-storms AND storm must be >15nm from destination.
3)Depending on variables along the route RED MIGHT shut us down for winds>60, wave>20, Icing, Water Temp<50 (req’d rafts).

Question 34

Procedures to recover from retreating blade stall?

Answer 34

PHI: “reduce pitch and aft cyclic”
Common Sense: SLOW DOWN
Induced by high relative airspeed. indications: increased vibrations, near Vne; exacerbated by High weight, lower Nr, High DA, turbulence and high speed turns.
At entry: nose will pitch up and roll into stalled blade(s)

Question 35

Where can you find information if you have not flown in a Ops area for 90+ days?

Answer 35

Base Directory, flight reference guided, NOTAMs, TFRs, Facility directory, WAC/sectional chart, call the base manager.

Question 36

What is required for “VFR over-the-top” flight?

Answer 36

1) Maintain VFR flight OEI
2) Dep and Dest MUST allow for VFR climb/decent at ETA+/- 1Hr.
3) Maintain VFR cloud clearances
note: Ground reference is NOT required, nor is VFR Auto.

Question 37

Describe the circular paradigm that is generally used to represent the Aeronautical Decision Making Process.

Answer 37

Depicts the systematic approach to the mental process pilots use to determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances.

Question 38

During ANY situation or emergency, what phrase is ALWAYS applicable?

Answer 38

“Aviate, Navigate, Communicate”

Question 39

Define a Cold Front.

Answer 39

At ground level, when a colder air mass replaces a warmer air mass.
A warm front is the opposite event.

Question 40

The forecast for the area you are flying in calls for an overcast layer at 2000ft, 4sm visibility with possible embedded thunderstorms. While flying VFR in light rain, it begins to intensify and visibility begins to drop. What would be a good course of action?

Answer 40

Begin a slow turn back to better weather. Avoid thunderstorms with the use of radar. For assistance, contact the Comm Ctr for help flying around storms.

Question 41

What will be the effect on the airspeed indicator if the pitot tube and drain hole ices up in flight, but the static system is clear?

Answer 41

Indicated airspeed will increase in a climb and decrease in a decent.

Question 42

How does PHI OPSPECS define the company with the FAA?

Answer 42

PHI’s OPSPECS defines PHI as an Air Carrier of “pax and cargo” and is a legally binding contract with the FAA?

Question 43

You are assigned an aircraft after another crew completes an operational check flight. What sign-offs must be present for you to accept this aircraft?

Answer 43

All 3 are required

1) Ops chk flight satisfactory and signed off
2) Return to service statement
3) “No defects noted” signed-off

Question 44

What is the proper procedures for dealing with a lost airman or medical Cert.?

Answer 44

A 60-day temporary cert. is available from the FAA website. If this is unavailable, the Chief Pilot office has a copy of both.

Question 45

What is the ceiling of the class-C airspace surrounding San Jose International Airport?

Answer 45

2500 MSL

Question 46

When is a limited amount of pilot performed maintenance allowed under FAR 135?

Answer 46

If the pilot has completed an approved training program AND you are in a remote area with no maintenance personnel available.

Question 47

According to the GOM, what are the approved methods of computing the Wt/Bal limits for an aircraft?

Answer 47

EFB’s, Long hand math, PHI issued Wt/Bal computer, aircraft computer system, RFM Load schedules.

Question 48

You are assigned a replacement aircraft. When you inspect the Engineering Logbook, you note another crew has flown the aircraft. A “no defects noted” is missing. Can you fly the aircraft without this write-up?

Answer 48

NO, a “No Defects Noted” is required anytime the aircraft changes from one PIC to another.

Question 49

When coupling 3-cue, what must be announced?

Answer 49

Announce each button pushed with either “ON-OFF”, accordingly.

Question 50

When are crews authorized to “hand fly” aircraft equipped with flight directors?

Answer 50

VMC or IMC IAW GOM 2.1.12.3.

OK during Take-off, Enroute and Approach before FAF; FAC –ONLY– if Wx is equal or better than 500-3.

Question 51

In IFR cruise flight while IMC, ATC instructs crew to fly heading 360. 2-minutes later, the PNF observes that the PF has executed an unauthorized slow turn to the right. What is one communication tool that the PNF should use to increase total SA?

Answer 51

Advocate that the PF needs to return to the original heading assigned by ATC. If PF is unresponsive or corrections are inappropriate, announce “I have controls”, make the appropriate corrections and maintain safe control of the aircraft.

Question 52

During the IFR approach brief in flight, you announce “the final approach course is 178”. What is the correct feedback you should receive before moving to the next item?

Answer 52

PF responds, “Course 178”

Question 53

What indication would be displayed on the MFD/EHSI if an obstruction were 200 feet below the aircraft?

Answer 53

“YELLOW” = +/- 500ft of aircraft.

50% yellow=Above; 25% yellow=below

Question 54

What action, if any, would you take if you heard the following aurel alert, “Caution Terrain”?

Answer 54

There is terrain obstructing the aircraft’s flight path, identify the terrain and maneuver accordingly.
Note: “Caution”=30 seconds to terrain impact, “Warning”=20 seconds of terrain impact

Question 55

What destination weather must be forecast for an alternate airport to not be required (refer to apch plates, as req’d)?

Answer 55

Alternate requires:
(at ETA +/-1 hour)
1)VIS: higher of 3sm or expected apch+2sm
2)CIG:Lowest circling +1500
OR, if N/A higher of 2000agl or lowest apch+1500ft.

Note: PHI considers a CTL maneuver to be a “circling apch”.

Question 56

How would you calculate the lowest forecast weather required for an IFR alternate airport?

Answer 56

Requirements:

1) VIS; greatest of 1sm or Apch mins
2) CIG: Apch mins +200ft AGL.

Notes:

1) Planning apch sys MUST be operation, but does not need to be the ‘expected’ apch (off duty rwy).
2) If using an RNAV apch, only LNAV mins can be used for alternate planning; never VNAV.

Question 57

When using the EFB for flight planning purposes, the following climb times must be used?

Answer 57

5-mins for cruise flights at or below 5000msl

10-mins for cruise flights above 5000msl

Question 58

During preflight the aircraft and rotors are covered with frost. Can the aircraft be flown?

Answer 58

NO FLIGHT with frost, snow, or ice on control surfaces. IAW GOM 2.1.10.5: The S92 can be turned up to remove frost only, but must be shutdown and inspected before flight.

Question 59

When conducting operations to a restricted category helideck, the PIC_____?

Answer 59

PIC must refer to HOGE chart as a guideline to determine appropriate Max Operation weight.
NOTE: Area Manager approval is only required if helideck surface is perforated like grating or expanded metal.

Question 60

According to the stabilized IFR approach concept found in the GOM, below what altitude or after what point is the crew required to execute a missed approach when the aircraft becomes unstable?

Answer 60

Anytime after FAF, IAW GOM 2.3.3.2

Question 61

What does a “suitable landing site” for VFR fuel planning purposes imply?

Answer 61

A helideck or landing site which is of sufficient size and weight bearing capacity for the aircraft (fuel available is not required).

Question 62

Except for a few customer requests, all PHI aircraft are designated as “_____”; IAW a DOT authorization and PHI OpSecs.

Answer 62

“Pax and Cargo”; IAW PHI OpSpec Para. A003.

Question 63

When reviewing the HAZMAT paperwork prior to flight you note that no “Pilot Notification” for was provided. What do you do?

Answer 63

Find, complete entirely and included a pilot notification form with the HazMat paperwork.

Question 64

Current METAR at Lakefront is 3/8sm, 100ft broken; you have a fully qualified and trained IFR crew with both having at least 100 hours in make and model. Can you depart IFR and if so, what are you required to have to be able to depart?

Answer 64

Answer: Yes
3/8sm is below both STD (1/2sm) and Landing Mins (3/4sm, Vis reduction n/a); BUT we can depart with Adq Vis Ref (1/4sm or 1200rvr) ONLY if we have an IFR alternate within 1-hour at cruise flight.

Question 65

Refer to lakefront (KNEW) plates: What is the lowest vis you can depart IFR with a SIC who has less than 100-hours in make and model?

Answer 65

STD=1/2sm

Note: this is below landing mins.

Question 66

What part/section of the RFM is the Weight and Balance, Chart (Form)-C found?

Answer 66

Part-2, Section-2, Loading Information

Question 67

When should the HISL (High Intensity Strobe Lights) be turned on?

Answer 67

Ref RFM supplement: From after take-off thru before landing checks; DAY only. Turn off in the vicinity of other aircraft or persons on the ground and during flight in clouds, fog or haze.

Question 68

What does selecting “activate approach” prior to intercepting final approach course do in the UNS?

Answer 68

Places the UNS in “Command Heading” and draws the course line from the MAP through the FAF and to infinity.

Question 69

If the UNS lost satellite coverage, how does the crew know and what mode does the UNS revert to?

Answer 69

On the UNS NAV page 1 or 2 an amber POS light will illuminate. Also, if the MSG page is reviewed, a “position uncertain” message will be displayed. The UNS will revert to “dead reckoning”.

Question 70

Can the FMS be used to fly a VOR approach?

Answer 70

Yes, but you must be able to monitor the VOR and if the VOR fails, a missed approach must be executed. Can not use FMS without an operational VOR.

Question 71

While flying an ILS approach, if the go-around mode is selected prior to crossing the MAP, will the FMS automatically sequence to the missed approach procedure?

Answer 71

Yes, BUT the NAV page will not look like it until the aircraft crosses the MAP. [use: GA–HDG–ALT PRE–CRUS–NAV]

Question 72

When will the Ng overspeed protection activate, thus shutting off fuel and flameout the engine?

Answer 72

108.5% Ng
Note: Misleading question. Overspeed protection for either Np (120%) or Ng (108.5%) is managed by the Overspeed Valve with in the Fuel Management Unit (FMU) and is activated by the FADEC. ONLY if Np exceeds Nr will the FADEC command a full engine shutdown. Otherwise Np will cycle between 118-120% as FMU cycles fuel on-off and a Ng overspeed ‘shutdown’ will be followed by an automatic restart by the FADEC. [RFM I-4-52D caution lights and PTM pg. 6-23; overspeed valve.

Question 73

What is the maximum airspeed permitted for APU operations?

Answer 73

150 KIAS

Question 74

If the engines are shut down prior to the two-minute cool down, the crew should ________?

Answer 74

Motor the engine until TGT is less than 150*. Restart engine within 5-minutes of shutdown and cool for two-minutes below 90% Ng prior to subsequent shutdown or if 5-minutes has elapsed the engine can not be restarted for 4-hours.

Question 75

With the fuel low lights illuminated, what should the pilot avoid?

Answer 75

Avoid sustained pitch attitudes in excess of 10* nose up and 5* nose down.

Question 76

What is the Vne for arming floats?

Answer 76

80 KIAS

Question 77

What is the minimum altitude for coupled operations?

Answer 77

Answer: At or below 120 KIAS at 50 AGL.

Actual parameters: Maximum of 120 KIAS between 50-200AGL. Above 200AGL=cruise airspeeds.

Question 78

What does the UTIL page on the MFD display?

Answer 78

pressing the UTIL button will INITIALLY bring up the Aircraft Gross Weight page.
Note: this is the default page. The last page viewed will remain until power is cycled off or another page is selected.

Question 79

At sea level, what is Vy for the S-92?

Bonus, what is Vx?

Answer 79

Vy (Vbroc)=80 KIAS

Vx (Vbac) =60KIAS

Question 80

For a PC2 landing to an offshore helideck, what/when is DP?

Answer 80

50ft above deck and 10 knots ground speed.

Question 81

When departing a heliport (like Morgan City), what is the climb performance you are required to maintain?

Answer 81

352 ft/nm dual engine to the lowest authorized IFR altitude for the route of flight. Note: no turns prior to 1000AGL.

Question 82

When departing offshore, in order to calculated 50 ft/min at 1500 AGL or MEA, what chart should be used?

Answer 82

Forward Climb performance, single engine(OEI), MCP, Vbroc, 100%Nr, Gear up

Question 83

When will the BATT HOT caution light segment illuminate?

Answer 83

Battery’s internal temp exceeds 70C/158F, LASA Practical.

RFM Note: plan for a site with external power available for subsequent APU starts, due to weak of N/A battery power.

Question 84

While flying coupled three cue, the cyclic drives hard left at a rapid rate (10*/Sec). What type of failure has occurred?

Answer 84

Cyclic BOOST hardover.
Note: key word is “Rapid”. A slow and accelerating movement to possible full control deflection would be a TRIM Hardover. Also, TRIM and BOOST can be easily over powered and TRIM can be eliminated by holding the trim button depressed. SAS hardover will NOT move the flight controls (+/-5% Authority).

Question 85

Would it be considered a secondary indication if the [1/2 ENG OIL PRESS] caution light and Engine Oil Pressure gauge for the same engine both indicate low pressure?

Answer 85

YES; They are two different pressure sensors.
System note: The oil pressure manifold on top of the engine has 1x pressure and 6x scavenge lines. Each scavenge line has a chip screen and a given sensor. The “low pressure sensor” and “pressure transmitter(gauge)” are on two different lines.

Question 86

When does the [ENG 1/2 A-ICE DGRD] caution light illuminate?

Answer 86

When the engine anti-ice switch is on and a problem exists with the bleed air portion of the inlet anti-ice system. Note: Bleed air=DGRD and Electric Mats=FAIL

Question 87

With a leak in the #2 hydraulic system prior to the tail rotor isolation valve, what will happen?

Answer 87

a)[HYD 2 RES LOW] light will illuminate when levels fall below 50%. b)The backup isolation and T/R isolation valve will close causing [TR SVO 2 PRES] will illuminate. c)As the leak continues, [HYD 2 PUMP FAIL], [MR SVO 2 PRES], [SAS 2 PRES] and [BOOST PRES] caution light will illuminate.
Note from twice experiencing a slow leak: The first indication was [TR SVO 2 PRES] flickering as #3 Hyd cycled between High/Low modes. No other caution lights illuminated for about 30-45 mins until landing/shutdown. One cause was a loose fitting near the reservoir and the other was a MR SVO leak.

Question 88

In flight the [TR QUAD] caution light illuminates. The PF checks his pedals and finds there is still full control of the T/R. What has occurred?

Answer 88

A single tail rotor cable failed/broke

Question 89

Selecting SAS 1 to SEC will ______?

Answer 89

Change the processor that controls the SAS. Airspeed will be restricted to 120 KIAS. (PSAS=Rate Gyros; SSAS=AHRS)

Question 90

IF a flight lands at a location other than the intended destination due to weather, including a return to the intended point of departure, an occurrence report is mandatory.

Answer 90

TRUE; an occurrence report must be completed anytime things DO NOT go as planned or depart from normal expectations (i.e. RTB, Missed Apch, ECS Failure in flight, etc)

Question 91

Since HSAC procedures enhance safety and standardization PHI treats these procedures as ____?

Answer 91

Although written as recommendations; PHI and other GoMex operators expect pilots to comply as Mandatory.

Question 92

You are flying VOR DME-11 at KLFT. Tower instructs you to “circle to land runway-22 left”. You decide to circle Northwest of the field. While turning towards Rwy-22L, you loose visual reference to the ground. What should you do?

Answer 92

Execute a climbing turn towards the runways and execute the missed approach for the VOR DME-11.
A planned checkride event

Question 93

What are the ceiling and visibility requirements for an offshore flight on a day VFR flight, if you do not have sufficient fuel for “beach+30”?

Answer 93

500ft/5sm

Question 94

What is required when the tower clears you to air taxi directly to a location on the airport?

Answer 94

hover taxi or fly to location. MUST remain BELOW 100ft AGL

Question 95

If a take-off in IMC becomes unstabilized for any reason, as the control tower tells you to contact approach, pilots should……?

Answer 95

The PM, upon recognizing the unstabilized situation, will take controls and say “I HAVE CONTROLS”.
NOTE: Aviate, Navigate, Communicate… Make aircraft safe before making radio calls.

Question 96

What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking on VOR against the other?

Answer 96

4-degrees, whether on the ground or in flight

Question 97

What is the minimum fuel requirements for an IFR flight if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have 1500/3 at planned ETA?

Answer 97

Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing, then fly to the alternate and then fly 30-minutes more at cruise airspeed. (Dest+Alt+30)

Question 98

Cargo and carry-on baggage can be stowed “under the passenger seat” in PHI aircraft. T/F

Answer 98

FALSE. “Under the seat” is not permitted.
NOTE: IAW FOPM 1.10.6.5; PHI is authorized to carry excess baggage/cargo in the passenger compartment if cargo area is full or piece does not fit AND excess baggage “does NOT block an exit window.” Secure in seats with seat belts or to floor, but NEVER under seats.

Question 99

When is an offshore Helideck categorized as a restricted deck?

Answer 99

If the ground effect area, defined by the solid shelf area, is less than 0.83 times the D-value; the pilot may have to reduce gross weight to operate safely.

Question 100

In GoMex, the weather is 3000 overcast. What is the maximum VFR altitude you could fly? What is the minimum visibility at that altitude required for a VFR flight under this condition with round trip fuel?

Answer 100

2500/3 (Note: Class E <10K MSL: “5-1,2,3” =500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal, 3sm Vis)

Question 101

If you have NOT flown over a route or into an airport or heliport within the last 90-days, What MUST happen prior to beginning such a flight?

Answer 101

All pilots should get a base briefing or self-briefing.

Question 102

The ultimate responsibility for PHI operational control rests with?

Answer 102

The DO or Chief Pilot.

Question 103

All the operations that PHI is authorized to conduct by the FAA can be found?

Answer 103

In the company’s Operations Specifications found online on the PHI intranet.

Question 104

What are the related TGT and TQ limits for AEO and OEI?

Answer 104

AEO:
Normal: 935/120TQ (or 200)
Take-off: 5-mins of 995C or 120TQ (sum=200%)

OEI:
MCP: 998C or TQ=120%
2-mins: 1006 or TQ =120%
30-secs: 1049*C or TQ=141%

Question 105

What are the basic VFR cloud clearances and visibility requirements by airspace class?

Answer 105

A= IFR only, no mins.
B=3sm, clear of clouds
C,D,E(<10K)= “5-123” [500=Below, 1000=Above, 2000=Horizontal, Vis>3sm
G= Clear of Clouds; Vis>0.5sm day or 1.0sm night

Question 106

Which Airspace requires 2-way comms and operational transponder?

Answer 106

2-way comms required in: A,B,C,D Airspace

X-ponder required in: A,B,C Airspace