Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

My S-92 stuff with PHI > PHI S-92 Oral; My Previous Experiences (1 of 3) > Flashcards

PHI S-92 Oral; My Previous Experiences (1 of 3) Flashcards

0
Q

In regards to HAZMAT, how are PHI aircraft classified?

A

Passenger and Cargo Aircraft; except for a few customer agreements. IAW PHI OpSpec Para. A003 and FAA LOA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What is the immediate action if you have a loss of tail rotor thrust?

A

Enter autorotation by lowering the collective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If you receive unexpected HAZMAT, what must you do as the pilot?

A

Refer to, and complete the HAZMAT acceptance checklist/acceptance guide to ensure the paperwork, quantity limits, placards, and storage are all correct. Mark “Accepted by PHI” on the HAZMAT sheet, then complete and sign the pilot notification form. File this paperwork with your manifests at the end of the day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do the quantity limits in column 9a and 9b of the HAZMAT acceptance guide refer to?

A

The quantity limit is per package, unless specifically noted as “gross”. If needed, suggest shipper make smaller packages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If an SIC has only completed 5 approaches within the preceding 6 calendar months, is he/she grounded from flight?

A

No. They are only restricted from flying IFR with passengers. Based on a rolling 66-HIT.
UNLESS, a 135.297 was completed within the preceding 6-months. The 135.297 supersedes 66-HIT.

FAR 61.57, 135.297

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a procedure that PHI has implemented to reduce the risk of dynamic rollover.

A

After landing, the pilot flying will reduce the collective to the full down position. The pilot not flying will confirm the collective is full down prior to initiating taxi. When taxiing, maintain a level aircraft attitude and ensure the aircraft is properly slowed prior to entering a turn. Also, adhere to the ground wind azimuth chart restrictions. (GOM Air Taxi [arrival])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the factors associated with dynamic rollover?

Rotorcraft Flying Handbook

A

A pivot point, rolling/lateral motion, and exceeding the critical angle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How can you reduce the risk of dynamic rollover during taxiing turns?

A

Use the cyclic to maintain a level aircraft attitude, slow prior to entering a turn, and reduce power by lowering the collective if necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the conditions conducive to loss of tail rotor effectiveness?

Rotorcraft Flying Handbook and Advanced Aerodynamics Textbook

A

Hovering with a left quartering headwind, left crosswind, or tail wind.
LTE Conditions: Think Mirror images!
Weather Vaning (10-2)
Increased AOA (1-5; worst at 3)
Weather Cocking (4-8)
T/R Vortex Ring State (7-11; worst at 9)
M/R Vortices interference (1030-1130) *Req’s the T/R to be level or below MR center of mass.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If you are making an approach at low airspeed, and your rate of descent increases as you apply power, what could be occurring?

A

Settling with Power
PHI’s Default: 40kts or less AND 800fpm or more
(M/R Vortex Ring State; Rate of descent is near rate of down wash and lift is lost)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Are items found on the status report mandatory?

A

No, only items found on the due list are mandatory. updated every 14-days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What would be the corrective action to recover from settling with power (MR-VRS)?

A

Forward or lateral cyclic to regain airspeed and ‘clean’ air; lower the collective if possible to reduce vortices (reduce power).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of thunderstorms are typically associated with fast moving cold fronts?

A

Squall Lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many emergency exits are located in the S-92?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

3 Type III emergency exits, 1 Type IV (upper air stair door), as well as 10 jettisonable passenger windows and 2 pilot windows.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where can a pilot find information specific to IFR conditions?

A

Airmet S (for Storms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where can a pilot find information specific to turbulence?

A

Airmet T (for turbulence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where can a pilot find information specific to icing?

A

Airmet Z (for freeZing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is necessary for icing to form?

A

Visible moisture and the collecting surface must be at or below freezing. Suitable conditions exist when OAT in 4*C or less.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When do the prime pumps supply fuel to the engines?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

Only, during a start with the fuel selectors in direct.
During X-feed starts valves close that prevent prime pumps from supplying fuel and ONLY the engine driven fuel boost pump provides fuel via suction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a TAA?

AIM 5-4-5 d

A

A terminal arrival area is a designated area on an RNAV approach plate that advises the pilot of the correct altitude and procedure turn applicability for that sector. If cleared for that approach the pilot shall adhere to what is published in the TAA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does a cruise clearance authorize you to do?

A

A cruise clearance provides a block altitude between the clearance altitude and the MEA, and clears you for the approach and Missed procedures. (Note: If you call “Leaving” your cruise altitude, you can NOT return to it without ATC approval.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the requirements for a visual approach clearance?

AIM 5-4-3

A

You must have 1000’ ceilings and 3SM visibility at the airfield.
The landing area and/or the preceding aircraft in sight.
Even on an IFR flight plan and must remain clear of clouds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the transient dual engine torque limit?

s-92 RFM, PTM

A

101% - 120% for 10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the 30 second OEI TGT limit?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

1049 degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

During an engine restart with the air source switch in the ENG position, what supplies bleed air to the engine starter?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

Either the APU or the opposite engine will supply bleed air, whichever is stronger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

During takeoff, the TGT gauge turns yellow. Have you exceeded a limit?

A

No. This is a precautionary range; No limit has been exceeded. Continue flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the appropriate procedure if you shut down the engine prior to a 2 minute cool down?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

Motor the engine for 1 minute and until TGT is below 150 degrees Celsius, start the engine within 5 minutes and operate the engine at idle for 2 minutes, then perform shutdown. If this procedure is not performed, do not restart the engine for 4 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In regards to fire protection, to which engine is the APU compartment connected?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

The #2 engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What occurs when the FIRE ARM button is pushed?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

The fuel to that engine is shut off (via the fuel selector valve), and the respective main and reserve fire bottles are armed for the appropriate engine compartment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the minimum visibility for departing KPTN if you are crew qualified and the approach lights are out of service?

A

Adequate visibility reference all runways, 1/4 SM or 1200 RVR if reported

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How many oil pumps are located in the main gearbox?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

2; Both pull from the same sump line and feed the same pressure line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of rotor system is the S92 main rotor head?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

Fully articulated rotor head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the minimum visibility for departing KPTN if you are crew qualified and the approach lights are out of service?

A

Adequate visibility reference all runways, 1/4sm or 1200 RVR if reported. If crew is not qualified, STD=1/2sm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What causes the rotor brake light to illuminate?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

a. On the ground: when the PSI is greater than 8 +/- 2 PSI, OR one or more pucks are engaged
b. In flight: when the PSI is 8 +/- 2 PSI, AND one or more pucks are engaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the different types of flight control mixing in the S92?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

Collective to pitch
Collective to roll
Collective to yaw
Yaw to pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If you have a TR QUAD caution light, what has happened?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

At least one of the tail rotor cables have broken.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What happens if you have a dual tail rotor cable failure?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

The helicopter will not respond to pedal inputs with yaw (the nose will pitch up and down slightly due to coupling), and the tail rotor centering spring will set a tail rotor thrust setting that corresponds to trimmed flight at approximately 30 KIAS and 150 KIAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What type of landing would you accomplish with a TR QUAD caution light?

A

A running or roll on landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where does the AP computer receive its flight information inputs?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

AHRS, ADC, accelerometers, radar altimeter, navigation radios, FMS, rotor brake, and the FADECs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How do the AP computers monitor flight control position?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

Through the use of rotary variable differential transducer (RVDT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Do trim actuators move the flight controls?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

Yes

Outer Loop. Trim actuators have 100% authority (stop to stop) at a rate of 10% per second.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the normal hydraulic pressure range of the 2 main systems?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

3500 PSI - 4200 PSI

700 PSID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What happens when you switch from PSAS to SEC SAS?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

You are switching from using Rate Gyro information and Primary SAS processing to using the AP processing and AHRS information for the selected SAS system.

44
Q

Does the pressure side hydraulic filter have bypass capability?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

No. If the pressure side filter becomes clogged, hydraulic power on that system will fail.

45
Q

Does the return side hydraulic filter have bypass capability?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

Yes.
This is equipped in order to prevent hydrostatic lock of the controls. Effectively, the pressure side would continue to pressurized against the stoppage and “lock” the controls in the failed position.

46
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for the S92 windshield wipers that are NOT reinforced?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

40 KIAS

46
Q

What part/section of the RFM is the Weight and Balance Form C located?

A

RFM Part 2, Section II - Loading Information

47
Q

What is the difference between an ANTI-ICE DEGRADE and ANTI-ICE FAIL lights?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

ANTI-ICE FAIL indicates that the MATS ANTI-ICE system has failed. (Electrical can only be on or off)
ANTI-ICE DGRD indicates that the AISBV does not match the command position with the ANTI-ICE switch turned on.

48
Q

What is the VNE for the S92 high speed windshield wipers?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

100 KIAS

49
Q

Can you file an airport as an alternate with RNAV minimums?

GOM 5.11.2 NOTE

A

Yes. As long as the RNAV approach is an approved alternate, AND there is another approach not requiring GPS expected to be operational.
This does not apply to WAAS equipped aircraft.

50
Q

How do you know if the aircraft is equipped with the high speed windshield wipers?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

When viewed from inside the cockpit, the interior of the wiper arm will NOT be exposed (full square tubing).

51
Q

What is the purpose of the variable geometry inlet guide vanes in the S92 engine?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

The IGVs in the S92 provide increased performance capability. They close at low power setting to prevent compressor stall, and open at high power settings to allow maximum power generation.

52
Q

What moves the variable guide vanes in the S92 engine?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

Fuel pressure provides a signal to the VG torque motor and actuator

53
Q

If the engine is shut down from a dual FADEC channel failure, will you receive the engine out audio and red X on the EICAS?

S-92 RFM, PTM

A

No. The FADEC cannot supply this information because it has failed.

54
Q

Can you use the EFB to receive an IFR clearance?

A

You may request your IFR clearance through the EFB, however you must verbally receive your clearance and void time prior to entering IMC conditions.

56
Q

What is the appropriate routing offshore for a NON ADSB aircraft?

GOM 5.8

A

Route segments must be either a 90 or 45 degree course between designated waypoints; i.e. TBDRC to TBDRD or TBDCD.

57
Q

What is required to use an RNAV direct off airway route other than offshore?

A

ATC radar coverage

57
Q

What is the engine matching and limiting logic in the S92?

A

Torque matched and TGT limited

58
Q

If you are running at idle, and the APU generator was to fail, how would you know, and what must the pilot do?

A

If the APU generator was to fail while the engines were at idle, the 3x MFD screens on the co-pilots side would go blank and the collective would begin to rise to the center position. The pilot must guard the collective.

59
Q

When may you descend below the MDA or DA?

FAR 91.175

A

a. The aircraft is continuously in a position to land using normal maneuvers and normal rates of descents to allow landing in the touchdown zone
b. The flight visibility is not less than what is prescribed
c. A visual reference such as the threshold markings, approach lighting, REIL, VASI, TDZ markings or lights, and runway markings or lights.

60
Q

What if you see the approach lights only, with none of the other markings or lights?

FAR 91.175

A

You may descend visually using the approach lights as a reference, but not less than 100 feet above the touchdown zone unless the red terminating bars or red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.

61
Q

What are the approved weather reporting services?

A

ASOS, AWOS 3, individually approved AWOS 2, SAWRS, and LAWRS (as approved by the FAA director).

63
Q

Can pilots sign the daily inspection?

A

Yes. However, if there are any Airworthiness Directives or Service Bulletins that must be complied with in the daily, pilots who are not trained and documented for complying with those ADs or SBs cannot sign off the daily inspection.

64
Q

How do you know if an aircraft is currently under an MEL restrictions?

A

Check the deferred maintenance log in the front of the logbook to ensure there are no open MELs.

64
Q

When would you require a special VFR clearance?

FAR 91.157

A

Any time the weather is reported to be below VFR conditions (1000’ ceilings, or 3sm) in controlled airspace to the surface.

65
Q

Where does class E begin in the Gulf of Mexico?

A

1200’ AGL

66
Q

If there is an open MEL, how can you find out what the flight restriction is?

A

Check the original discrepancy write up, as well as the MEL list in the aircraft or EFB.

68
Q

If you obtain a special VFR clearance, what are your weather minimums?

FAR 91.157

A

IFR aircraft AND crew: 300’ ceilings and 2sm, or within 10nm of a base 300’ ceilings and 1sm. (FAA only requires see and avoid)
VFR aricraft OR crew: 500/3 reducible to 300/2 under EOC procedures.

69
Q

What is the cloud clearance requirement for operating in class E below 10,000’ MSL?

FAR 91.155

A

500’ below the clouds, 1000’ above the clouds, 2000’ horizontally from clouds and 3sm visibility
(5-123)

69
Q

How can you avoid settling with power situations?

A

Do not slow below effective translational lift with a descent greater than 500 fpm.

70
Q

What situations are conducive to settling with power?

A

Slow/steep approaches, landing with a tail wind, high descent rates with low airspeeds.

71
Q

How often are the Jeppeson Charts revised?

A

Every 14 days

72
Q

If you don’t receive a revision, how can you tell that the approach plate you are using is current?

A

You must check the FDC NOTAMs and ensure the amendment number for that approach is correct.

73
Q

What are the documents that you are required to have accessible or on your person?

A

Pilot certificate, medical certificate, and a government issued photo ID

FAR 61.3

74
Q

When is it appropriate to be authoritarian?

A

When faced with a time critical emergency.

75
Q

How do you know if there has been any change to an approach between the revision periods?

A

You must check the NOTAMs for changes to the approaches, cancellations, or outages for all airports and routes in which you will be operating.

76
Q

What is the purpose of CRM?

A

Effective Error Management

77
Q

What is the APU fuel burn rates with no-load vs with a full load?

A

57pph and 188 pph.

Ref: FSI PTM Table 7-1 and S92 FCF manual

78
Q

Describe the SAS actuators effect on flight controls and flight surfaces?

A

SAS is inner loop and does NOT move the controls. SAS provides rapid adjustments to improve stability, but is limited to a total of 10% (+/-5% of center).

79
Q

What is the purpose of the Boost Actuators?

How many are there?

A

Boost actuators are the ‘power steering’ to reduce the required force to move the flight controls and mixing unit, while reducing feedback to the pilots. There are 4-boost servos, one ‘attached’ to each SAS servo unit.

80
Q

If required to land near HAZMAT, where can you find a “how to” guide?

A

“ERG”; HAZMAT Emergency Response Guide

81
Q

What is the recommended position to activate the RIG APCH?

A

Recommended: 1500 AGL and 120 KIAS or less.
Note: It is possible to activate up to VNE below 10,000ft.

82
Q

What is the maximum altitude for “Air Taxi”?

A

100 AGL

83
Q

What are the 4-aural alerts and which has the highest priority?

A

“Low Rotor” is highest priority; others are (E-F-G) “Engine Out” “Fire” and “Gear”

84
Q

During EOC Amber with winds over 20-kts, what is the 1-way fuel required for a VFR aircraft?

A

(+45) mins.

See GOM

85
Q

You’re having a bad day and just extinguished an engine fire when the APU FIRE is indicated. What is your best use of the fire bottles?

A

Begin with the MAIN (count to 10) then use RESV.

This is a PHI IP favorite in the sim. The 10-seconds is just to ensure any fire bottle has a chance to work.

86
Q

You are off-shore and executing the Before Landing Checklist when the APU FIRE light Illuminates for a few seconds, then goes out. What is the suspected problem and should you return to base without landing off-shore?

A

No problem exists. Continue Ops Normal.
“ It is possible to have a momentary FIRE warning light and APU FIRE push button illuminated when starting the APU in some flight regimes.” See RFM P1-S3-pg3-2.

87
Q

Briefly describe ground resonance and what type of rotor head is the most susceptible?

Ref: Advanced Aerodynamics Textbook

A

Fully articulated rotor heads are the most susceptible. Ground resonance is when the rotor frequency and fuselage frequency get out of sequence and generate destructive vibrations (aircraft begins to ‘dance’). The better flapping and lead/lag capabilities increase M/R efficiency and probability of resonance.

88
Q

What are the three (3) best methods to reduce the probability of Ground Resonance (GR)?

A

1) Minimize control inputs at full Nr
2) Either full compress landing gear or take-off. Minimize time when gear is extended and still touching the ground.
3) If GR is suspected, either secure engine and set flat pitch -OR- Take-off to a hover.

89
Q

We are flying 1-way fuel off-shore, at our destination we are asked to make an ‘extra stop’ before continuing to our fuel stop. What are our new weather mins?

A

500/5

Hit the “I believe” button. It’s a hold over from 76’s.

90
Q

When 20nm from MCY, you check ATIS/AWOS but none is reporting. What is your plan?

A

Tell ATC you must discontinue and divert to alternate.

91
Q

You are flying off-shore and encounter a line of thunderstorms, what should you do?

A

Test Answer: Turn Around

Aircraft with WX Radar are conditionally authorized. Don’t be stupid, if it’s too bad just RTB.

92
Q

We have the [ENG 1/2 OIL PRESS] caution light and the Oil Pressure gauge reads -0-. Is this a singular or secondary indication and why?

A

Secondary.
RFM , is too ‘simplified’. Maint. Trng. manual Ch. 79; shows both an Oil Press Transmitter(OPT) and a Low Oil Indicator(LOI). Both transmit pressure deltas from the Lube/Scavenge Pump manifold. Both sense deltas from circulating engine oil and scavenge B pressures. OPT is used for EICAS oil gauge and LOI is used for Caution light.

93
Q

What is the basic autorotation profile?

A 
Nr: 100-105%
Airspeed: 90KIAS (+/-10)
Flare: at 150 AGL (hold about 4-secs)
Level: at 50 AGL set 10* nose up
Cushion Landing
94
Q

What is the SIM gouge for steep turns?

A

1) set 120 KIAS (about 50%TQ) and think “Up and Left, Down and RIght”; begin recovery 25* from tgt hdg.
2) LEFT: Trim full left, add 8-10% TQ, set nose about 1-degree above horizon.
3) RIGHT: Trim full right, add 8-10% TQ, set nose on horizon.
4) Fine tune and reverse to recover.

95
Q

While receiving RVFAC’s for an ILS, you decide to use another NAV source for better SA. What must you ensure happens?

A

Once directed to intercept the FAC/FAF, ensure the active NAV source is the ILS and the APCH is ARMED. Also required when using Preview.

96
Q

What is the difference between a [FAIL] and a [FAULT] within the APU system?

A

[APU FAULT]= Non-safety loss of protection logic. The APU will run “normally” in flight, BUT will shut down once the WOW is compressed.
Any [FAIL] is a safety shut down and the APU is either off or otherwise unusable. 3x possible [FAIL]’s are: APU Fail, APU Gen Fail and APU GCU Fail.

97
Q

What are the five components of CRM?

A

“C-SLED”

Communication, Situational Awareness, Leadership, Error detection, Decision making

98
Q

How does PHI classify and use LPV approaches? What is the MDA/DH minimums?

A

LPV’s are Non-precision approaches. The NP Lighting Table limits MDA/DH to 250-AGL with MALSR vs. listed LPV mins.

99
Q

What WX sources can be used to determine Alternate Wx Mins?

A

TAF’s, METAR’s, Area Forecasts (AF), and PHIX20.

100
Q

When is it necessary to check the HLTH page?

A

As required, to view and reset the status of an operating system and to inspect/check various systems.

101
Q

While executing an approach to landing/hover, what should the crew consider regarding the use of the Weather Radar?

A

Ensure no person is within 100ft of the forward 270* arc or place the radar to STBY or OFF.

102
Q

Explain procedures for a max performance takeoff.

A

1) Hand fly like an ITO. Helo/Sim are unable to maintain HDG at these power settings.
2) Stabilize in low hover
3) Pull 95-100% TQ
4) Begin rotation 50-feet above obstacle(s)
5) Continue climb and accelerate to Vy.

103
Q

During flight the FADEC 1A FAIL and FADEC 1B FAIL cautions lights illuminate. What are the other indications of a dual FADEC failure?

A

1) Since both FADEC channels have failed the engine will shut down
2) there will be NO red “X” over the EICAS engine pod
3) 30s power will be armed on operating engine
4) there will be no ENGINE FAIL light
5) no Engine Fail Audible warning

104
Q

What does selecting the [#2 ENG FIRE ARM] switch do?

A

Shuts off the fuel selector valve and arms the appropriate Main/Resv squib on the fire bottle for the engine tha has the [FIRE ARM] button pressed.

105
Q

List the topic of each section of RFM Part-1:

A

Sect-1: Limits
Sect-2: Normal Procedures
Sect-3: Emergency Procedures
Sect-4: Performance Data

106
Q

List the topic of each section of RFM Part-2:

A

Sect-1: Systems
Sect-2: Weight and Balance
Sect-3: Supplemental Performance Data
Sect-4: Fly Nice

My S-92 stuff with PHI (46 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions