Pharmacology; Patient care Flashcards

1
Q

Negative contrast

A

Air

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2
Q

Positive contrast

A

Barium or water soluble

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3
Q

water soluble=

A

gastrografin or omiupaque
-use this if a patient has a bowel perforation(loss of continuity of the bowel wall)

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4
Q

Ionic vs. Non ionic contrast

A

Ionic= higher osmolarity which means there could be a greater risk of reaction

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5
Q

A patients history is the best predictor of_____

A

a reaction
-5% of patients experience some reaction

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6
Q

appropriateness of contrast media of examination

A

look at the patient condition such as,
-perforation
-risk of barium impaction
-neonate (vizzypaque)
-weight
-age

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7
Q

Contrast reactions can be;

A

Mild, moderate or severe
-prior contrast reaction is primary indication of a possibility of reaction

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8
Q

Local effects

A

-Infiltration
-extravasation:in tissue
-phlebitis: inflammation of the vein
Air embolism: air in the vein

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9
Q

Systemic effects; Types of shocks. What are they?(hint there’s 5)

A
  1. Hypovolemic
    2.Septic
    3.Neurogenic
    4.Cardiogenic
    5.Allergic or anaphylaxis
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10
Q

hypovolemic shock

A

is an emergency condition in which severe blood or other fluid loss makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body. This type of shock can cause many organs to stop working.
-loss of blood from a gunshot wound or stabbing

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11
Q

septic shock

A

a life-threatening condition that happens when your blood pressure drops to a dangerously low level after an infection. Any type of bacteria can cause the infection. Fungi such as candida and viruses can also be a cause, although this is rare. At first the infection can lead to a reaction called sepsis

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12
Q

Neurogenic shock

A

is a condition in which you have trouble keeping your heart rate, blood pressure and temperature stable because of damage to your nervous system after a spinal cord injury. Like other types of shock, this is a serious condition that can be fatal because your blood flow is too low.

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13
Q

Cardiogenic shock

A

also known as cardiac shock, happens when your heart cannot pump enough blood and oxygen to the brain and other vital organs. This is a life-threatening emergency. It is treatable if diagnosed right away, so it’s important to know the warning signs.

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14
Q

Anaphylactic shock

A

causes the immune system to release a flood of chemicals that can cause you to go into shock — blood pressure drops suddenly and the airways narrow, blocking breathing. Signs and symptoms include a rapid, weak pulse; a skin rash; and nausea and vomiting.
-allergy

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15
Q

blood urea nitrogen test measures……

A

the amount of urea nitrogen that’s in your blood

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16
Q

what is the normal range of BUN

A

8-20 mg/dL

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17
Q

Creatine measures…..

A

how well your kidneys are performing their job filtering waste from your blood

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18
Q

Normal range for creatine levels

A

.7-1.2 mg/dL

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19
Q

eGFR

A

Helps healthcare providers spot problems with your kidneys, including kidney disease.
-Also called GFR

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20
Q

normal GFR rate

A

90-120 mL/min
-GFR score below 60 would suggest a kidney disease

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21
Q

Symptoms of contrast reactions

A

restlessness or sense of apprehension
increase in pulse rate
pallor accompanied by weakness and or change in thinking ability
cool clammy skin
fall in blood pressure(hypotension)
itching
flushing
shortness of breath

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22
Q

Mild reactions

A

-Nausea, vomiiting, hives, itching, sneezing, extraversion, vasovagal response, weakness, dizziness and fear

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23
Q

How to monitor a patient with a Mild reaction

A

-comfort the patient
-provide a warm towel for extravasation
-if vomiting occurs roll the patient on his or hers side
-document the patients reaction

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24
Q

Moderate reactions

A

Excessive hives, tachycardia, giant hives, excessive vomiting

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25
How to monitor a patient with a moderate reaction
-call for medical assistance -prepare administration of antihistamine medication -document the patients reaction
26
Severe reactions
Life threatening situation! -Very low blood pressure -cardiac or respiratory arrest -loss of consciousness -convulsions -laryngeal edema ( abnormal accumulation of fluid in the larynx) -cyanosis -difficulty in breathing
27
How to monitor a patient with a severe reaction
-prepare administration of antihistamine medication -prepare to assist with CPR -call for help -document!
28
Emergency medications that may be use for allergic reactions
-Benadryl -decadron
29
Emergency medications that may be used for arrhythmias
-lidocaine -xylocaine
30
Medication used for seizures
Dilantin
31
Medication used for edema
Lasix
32
Medication used for cardiac arrest or anaphylaxis
epinephrine
33
Anticoagulant medications
-Heparin -warfarin -coumadin
34
chest pain (angina) medication
Nitroglycerin
35
Medications to control high blood sugar
-Metformin -Glucophage
36
Spastic colon (abnormal colon contractions)
Glucagon
37
The 5 rights of venipuncture
1. Right patient 2. Right drug 3.Right amount 4.Right route 5.Right time
38
Check patient's pulse and blood pressure for procedures.....
1. before 2. multiple times during procedures 3. after
39
Intramuscular injection
90 degrees
40
Subcutaneous injection
45 degrees
41
Intravenous injection
25 degrees
42
Intradermal injection
10-15 degrees
43
A bolus injection is a
IV push
44
Infusion administration is a
IV drip
45
what veins are most commonly used venipuncture sites?
cephalic and basilic
46
The cantor and harris tubes are examples of
single-lumen nasoenteric tubes
47
The Miller-Abbott tube is an example of
double-lumen nasoenteric tub
48
what is the most common type of urniary catheter?
a foley catheter
49
a surgically formed passage from the large bowel to the exterior is termed a -the external opening of the bowel is termed a
-colostomy -stoma
50
At what level should urinary collection bags be kept?
below the level of the bladder
51
An audible alarm from an infusion/medication pump usually signals that
fluid is running low or its flow has been interrupted
52
what is the name of the catheter frequently used to measure cardiac output and right heart pressures?
swan-ganz
53
Anticholinergic drugs______ the blood pressure and _____ the heart rate
increase; increase
54
A vasovagal response is characterized by_____ heart rate and _____ blood pressure
decreased; decreased
55
What visual signs can the radiographer use to continually assess patient condition?
-changes in skin color -changes in temp -level of consciousness (LOC) -breathing rate -motor control
56
elevated creatine levels are most often seen in patients with compromised _______ function
renal
57
The normal ECG waveform is termed
sinus rhythm
58
The abnormal quivering of cardiac muscle fibers, instead of contraction, is termed ________
fibrillation
59
A drug specifically used to treat a toxic effect is termed a/an
antidote
60
cathartic
stimulate defecation
61
antipyretic
medicine used to reduce fever
62
example's of central venous catheters include
1. port a cath 2.raaf 3. PICC 4. Hickman
63
pacemakers are often use to treat
bradycardia
64
Treatment or medication introduced into the body, other than through the digestive system/orally, is termed_______.
parenteral
65
Especially during a disaster, the process of identifying victims, performing initial examinations, and assigning priorities for further care is called________.
Triage
66
In the standardized emergency code communication, to what do the following color codenames refer? Red; Silver; blue
Red: fire Silver: weapon or hostage situation Blue: cardiac or respiratory arrest
67
A pulmonary embolism (PE) is most often a complication of thrombus formation in one or both_______.
lower extremities
68
Episodes of chest pain occurring when coronary arteries are unable to supply the heart with sufficient oxygenated blood is termed_______.
angina pectoris
69
The device that is used to administer electric shock to correct ineffectual cardiac rhythm is termed_______
defibrillator
70
A severe blow to the head often results in injury on the opposite side. This called a _______ injury.
contercoup
71
An incision into the chest, with insertion of the tube to relieve pneumothorax or hemothorax is termed
Thoracotomy
72
CPR compressions should be delivered at rate of about _____.
100 compressions per minute
73
A non-ambulatory nauseous patient should be helped to the ____ position to avoid _______ of vomitus.
lateral decubitus: aspiration
74
What is the radiographer's most important task if the patient experiences a seizure?
To protect the patient from injury
75
Urticaris is medical term for ________, and its most common treatment is administration of ________.
Hives; antihistamine
76
The most serious type of contrast media reaction is ______ shock.
anaphylactic
77
Shock caused by loss of blood or tissue fluid is termed _______ shock.
hypovolemic
78
Nonionic contrast agents have a ______ osmolality than ionic contrast agents.
lower
79
Heating water-soluble iodinated contrast agents to _______ temperature reduces its viscosity and makes it easier to inject.
body
80
what drug is most often used to treat non-insulin-dependent diabetes?
Metformin glucophage
81
What term is used to describe a symptom or circumstance that makes a particular treatment unsafe or inappropriate?
Contradiction
82
what is the current recommendation for patients taking the medication metformin (glucophage) who also require a radiologic examination using iodinated contrast media
Discontinue the medication for 48 hours before and 48 hours following use of the contrast agent.
83
Latex allergy can be mainfested with mild reactions such as _________ or more severe reactions such as ________.
Mild: skin redness, hives, itching Severe: itchy eyes, running nose, sneezing, difficulty breathing and wheezing
84
diaphoresis(sweating), hypotension, and bradycardia are symptoms of a _______ type of allergic reaction to contrast media.
vasovagal (occurs when you faint because your body over reacts to certain triggers)
85
A diabetic patient who has taken insulin, but no food, may develop ________; some symptoms are _________; examples of quick treatment while the patient is still alert are_______
hypoglycemia; tremor, perpiration, weakness and hunger; providing sweetened fruit juice, candy, or a prepackaged dose of glucose gel
86
Epistaxis is the medical term for______. How should epistaxis be treated?
Nosebleed breath through mouth, keeping head level and pressing firmly against nasal spetum for about 10 mins.
87
bisacodyl and citrate of magnesia are examples of
cathartics helps you poop
88
what is the usual patient preparation for an upper GI series?
NPO for about 8 hours prior to the examination
89
Glucagon can be useful in radiologic examination of the GI tract because it slows
peristalsis
90
Radiologic examination of the small intesting via bibao or sellink rube through which barium sulfate is injected is termed______
enteroclysis (examination of the small bowel)
91
what is a aqueous iodine contrast agent
water-soluble, sterile, contrast agent 
92
what does it mean if something is non-ionic 
agents that do not ionizing to separate positive and negative charges 
93
diphenhydramine is what
used to prevent allergic reactions to contrast it’s typical referred to name is Benadryl 
94
what would be considered to be the safest most effective treatment for extravasasation for an IV injection
-cold packs
95
what liquid does a tech need to use to flush out the catheter? 
saline helps ensure the catheter is clean and free of any residue that could clog the tubing 
96
what does idiosyncratic mean
occurs through unknown mechanisms 
97
what term refers to an area that is microorganism free and that is used for sterile equipment 
sterile field 
98
if you have a patient that had COPD and needing oxygen, what is the maximum level of oxygen they should be given
3L/min
99
when starting an IV line, what is the most common being used in the arm? 
antecubital
100
an enteral route of administration for medication involves direct entry into which organ system? 
gastrointestinal -orally rectally or through a nasogastric tube