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Dentistry Module 3 > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

is the study/science of chemicals (drugs) that interact with the human body, is defined as what

A

pharmacology

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2
Q

what a drug does to the body (biological effects and mechanism of action) is defined as

A

pharmacodynamics

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3
Q

what the body does to a drug (absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs and their metabolites), is defined as

A

pharmacokinetics

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4
Q

the science and technique of preparing, dispensing and reviewing of medical drugs) , is defined as

A

pharmacy

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5
Q

What is a drug:

A

any single synthetic, or natural, substance of known structure used in treatment, prevention or diagnosis of disease.

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6
Q

what is a medicine

A

a chemical preparation, containing one or more drugs used with the intention of causing a therapeutic effect

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7
Q

do drugs work by acting on target molecules

yes or no

A

yes

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8
Q

what s a ligand

A

In biochemistry and pharmacology, a ligand is a substance that forms a complex with a biomolecule to serve a biological purpose.

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9
Q

drugs acting or receptors can either be what

A

agonist or antagonists

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10
Q

is a drug/chemical that activates a receptor and causes a response (acetylcholine), is an example of what

A

agonist

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11
Q

is a type of drug which combines with a receptor but does not activate it. Thus blocking the action of the agonist by binding to the same receptor.

is an example of what

A

antagonists

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12
Q

what must there be, for the binding between the receptor and agonist

A

affinity

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13
Q

define affinity

A

Affinity is the strength of association between ligand and receptor.

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14
Q

once the agonist has combined the receptor is activated, what is the next response

A

efficacy response

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15
Q

what is efficacy

A

Efficacy is the ability of an agonist to evoke a cellular response

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16
Q

Affinity is ‘strength of association’ between ligand and receptor

how would low affinity affect the dissociation rate

A

Low affinity = fast dissociation rate

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17
Q

Affinity is ‘strength of association’ between ligand and receptor

how would moderate affinity affect the dissociation rate

A

Medium affinity = moderate dissociation rate

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18
Q

Affinity is ‘strength of association’ between ligand and receptor

how would high affinity affect the dissociation rate

A

High affinity = slow dissociation rate

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19
Q

efficacy is the ability of an agonist to evoke a cellular response

if there is a low affinity, how will that affect the cellular response (efficacy)

A

If there is a low affinity, then there will be small cellular response

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20
Q

efficacy is the ability of an agonist to evoke a cellular response

if there is a high affinity, how will that affect the cellular response (efficacy)

A

If there is a high affinity, then there will be a greater cellular response

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21
Q

what do antagonists possess and lack

A

possess affinity and lack efficacy

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22
Q

the process by which a drug enters the body from its site of administration and enters the general circulation: is defined as what

A

Absorption

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23
Q

the transport of drug by the general circulation: is defined as what

A

distribution

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24
Q

the process by which tissue enzymes (principally in the liver – hepatic metabolism) catalyze the chemical conversion of a frequently lipid soluble drug to an often less active and more polar form that is more readily excreted from the body: is defined as what

A

metabolism

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25
Q

the processes that remove the drug, or its metabolites, from the body (principally the kidneys – renal excretion): is defined as what

A

excretion

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26
Q

the drug must dissolve (dissolution) in an aqueous environment order to be absorbed: is defined as what

A

solubility

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27
Q

some drugs are destroyed by acid in the stomach, or enzymes in the gastrointestinal tract. in a few instances, a compound is modified within the gut to release the active drug: is defined as

A

chemical stability

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28
Q

the ratio of the drug concentration in the membrane and concentration in water at equilibrium: is defined as what

A

partition coefficient

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29
Q

what does an acid donate

proton or electron

A

protons

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30
Q

what does a base do

A

accepts a proton (decreases pH)

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31
Q

Factors affecting gastrointestinal absorption

Gastrointestinal mobility:

A

the rate at which the stomach is emptying and movement through the intestines, this is modified by some drugs, disease states and the presence of food.

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32
Q

Factors affecting gastrointestinal absorption

pH:

A

at the absorption site (varies along the gastrointestinal tract).

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33
Q

Factors affecting gastrointestinal absorption

Blood flow:

A

blood flow to the stomach and intestines (increased by food intake). Certain drugs are manufactured so that they can release drugs at different rates and sites.

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34
Q

Factors affecting gastrointestinal absorption

Physicochemical interactions:

A

the rate of absorption of drugs is modified by calcium rich-rich foods

The presence of transporters in the membranes of epithelial cells of the g.i tract can facilitate drug absorption

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35
Q

what is oral availability of a drug

A

is the fraction of drug that reaches the systemic circulation after oral ingestion

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36
Q

what is the Systemic availability of a drug

A

is the fraction that reaches the systemic circulation after absorption

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37
Q

when would use the rectum to delive drugs

A

when oral route is compromised

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38
Q

what is the disadvantage of taking medication via the oral route

A

inactivation by some enzymes/acids

food binding

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39
Q

what are the advantages of taking medication via the sublingual/buccal route

A

rapid absorption

by-passes the portal system

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40
Q

what are the advantages of intravenous route for drugs

A

rapid onset

continuous infusion

complete availability of drugs that cause local tissue damage

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41
Q

what are the disadvantages of taking intravenous route

A

sterile preparation required

risk of sepsis

embolism

high drug levels at the heart

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42
Q

what is the advantage of taking intramuscular drugs

A

rapid onset of lipid soluble drugs

43
Q

A symptom that suggests a certain medical treatment is necessary, is defined as

A

Indication:

44
Q

A specific situation in which a drug, procedure or surgery should not be used because it may be harmful to the person, is defined as

A

Contraindication:

45
Q

acceptable if benefits outweigh risk, is defined as

A

Relative contraindication:

46
Q

life threatening – do not take, is defined as

A

Absolute contraindication:

47
Q

normal dose interval (given) is based on what

A

1 half life

48
Q

when is the next dose given (dosage sechdule/interval)

A
  • Next dose is given as previous dose reaches half life
49
Q

define half life:

A
  • Half-life: the time taken for the total amount of drug in blood plasma to diminish by half once it reaches peak concentration.
50
Q

define overdose

A

Overdose: an excessive and dangerous dose of drug (paracetamol more than 10g lethal dose, codeine more than 350mg leads to CNS and respiratory depression).

51
Q

define,

Drug-drug interactions

A

where several drugs are prescribed simultaneously to patients where one drug modifies the response to the co-administrating drug

52
Q

when effects or action of multiple drugs combine to produce adverse effect, is defined as

A

Pharmacodynamics

53
Q

when one drug affects the delivery of another drug to its target. May involve absorption, metabolism or elimination, is defined as

A

Pharmacokinetic

54
Q

is codeine safe to take during pregnancy

A

no

55
Q

what are the 7 checklist, before prescribing drugs

A

1) Patient’s identity!
2) Patient’s age and gender
3) Medical History / other conditions
4) Any allergies
5) Any recent / current medication
6) Consider special conditions: Pregnancy, lactation, can they swallow tablets
7) Sugar free available?

56
Q

the process by which a drug enters the body from its site of administration and enters the general circulation, is defined as

A

absorption

57
Q

the transport of drug by the general circulation. Drugs most often leave the blood and enter perfused tissues, is defined as

A

distribution

58
Q

the process by which tissue enzymes (principally in the liver – hepatic metabolism) catalyze the chemical conversion of a frequently lipid soluble drug to an often less active and more polar form that is more readily excreted from the body, is defined as

A

metabolism

59
Q

the processes that remove the drug, or its metabolites, from the body (principally the kidneys – renal excretion), but other routes may be important for specific agents, is defined as

A

excretion

60
Q

for a drug to achieve effect, a drug must reach critical concentration in the plasma, what must it reach?

A

Minimum effective concentration (MEC)

61
Q

ideally a drug should be below the level of causing significant unwanted side effects. what must a drug not reach to avoid side effects

A

maximum tolerated concentration (MTC)

62
Q

what is the therapeutic window

A

is the blood plasma concetration between MTC and MEC

63
Q

what is the consequence of a small therapeutic window

A

there is a chance you can overdose

64
Q

drugs with smaller therapeutic window are classified as unsafe true or false

A

true

65
Q

when is steady state of a drug achieved

A

drug adminsitration is equal to drug elimination

66
Q

what is a loading dose

A

A loading dose is an initial increase dose taken to get to the therapeutic window and then decrease to a lower dose to maintain a steady state.

67
Q

which is the main organ for drug metabolism

A

liver (hepatic metabolism)

68
Q

where does first pass metabolism occur

A

in the liver

69
Q

how does making a drug more hydrophilic help with elimination

A

hastens its excretion by the kidneys

70
Q

what is the name of the substances after metabolism

A

metabolites

71
Q

are metabolites more or less active then their parent form

A

less active

72
Q

the mechanism involved to increase affinity for water or solubility in water for a drug is called what

A

hydrophilicity

73
Q

the enzyme in the liver metabolising the drug needs to act on a wide variety of substances, and therefore must have a low what

A

low substrate specificity

74
Q

drug metabolism occurs in two phases.

what occurs during phase 1

A

addition of polar groups

75
Q

drug metabolism occurs in two phases.

what occurs during phase 2

A

conjugation

76
Q

oxidation reaction is catalysed by a family of enzymes known as

A

cytochrome P450 oxidases

77
Q

what occurs during phase 2

A

Cytoplasmic enzymes conjugate the functional groups introduced in phase 1.

78
Q

where are cytochrome P450 oxidases found

A

they are found in the endoplasmic reticulum

79
Q

what factors affect drug metabolism

A
  • Enzyme inhibition
  • Naringin found in citrus fruits
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Erythromycin
  • Herbal remedies
80
Q

the process by which a drug enters the body from its site of administration and enters the general circulation: is the definition of what

A

absorption

81
Q

the transport of drug by the general circulation. Drugs most often leave the blood and enter perfused tissues. Once within a tissue further, reversible, distribution dictated by a concentration gradient, may occur by diffusion (or carrier-mediated transport): is teh definition of what

A

distribution

82
Q

the process by which tissue enzymes (principally in the liver – hepatic metabolism) catalyze the chemical conversion of a frequently lipid soluble drug to an often less active and more polar form that is more readily excreted from the body: is the definition of what

A

metabolism

83
Q

the processes that remove the drug, or its metabolites, from the body (principally the kidneys – renal excretion), but other routes may be important for specific agents: is the definition of what

A

excretion

84
Q

is the mathematical analysis of all drug disposition factors (absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion): is the definition of what

A

pharmacokinetics

85
Q

when do drugs exhibit first-order kinetics

A

where the rate of elimination is directly proportional to drug concentration.

86
Q

what determines the maintenane dose rate

A

clearance

Probably the single most important pharmacokinetic parameter – the volume of plasma cleared of drug in unit time,

87
Q

what must occur for a drug to achieve steady state

A

rate of drug administration = rate of drug elimination

88
Q

an initial higher dose is given during treatment at the beginning before stepping down. what is the name of this initial dose

A

loading dose

89
Q

The time for the concentration of drug in plasma (or the amount of drug in the body) to halve’ - is referred to as what

A

half life

90
Q

which organ is responsible for the elimination of most drugs

A

the renal system (kidneys)

91
Q

drugs are metabolised to become more …………. compounds which are are more easily excreted

A

polar

92
Q

if drugs are lipid soluble, they are easily reabsorbed in the ……………. by passive diffusion

A

renal tubules

93
Q

Drugs or phase 1 metabolites that are not sufficiently polar to be excreted rapidly by the kidneys are made more hydrophilic by conjugation with endogenous compounds - by which organ

A

liver

94
Q

which test is used to show how well the kidneys are working

A

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

95
Q

what does a Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) estimate

A
  • It estimates how much blood passes through the glomeruli every minute
96
Q

what is a normal Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

A
  • Normal GFR is 90 mls / min or higher
97
Q

a Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 60-89 mls/min = what stage

A

mild stage 2

98
Q

a Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 30-59 mls/min = what stage

A

moderate stage 3

99
Q

a Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 15-29 mls/min = what stage

A

severe stage 4

100
Q

a Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 15-29 mls/min = what stage

A

established renal failure stage 5

101
Q

drugs or its metabolites that have poor renal excretion cause what -

A

toxicity

102
Q

if renal impairment is reduced, how does this affect the effectiveness of drugs

A

some drugs wont be as effective

103
Q
A

Dentistry Module 3 (33 decks)

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