Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dentistry Module 3 > Microbiology Lecture 1 > Flashcards

Microbiology Lecture 1 Flashcards

Basis of infectious disease Microbiology lecture 1

1
Q

a harmful organism that produces a pathology, is the definition for

Pathogen

virulence

virulence factors

commensal

opportunistic pathogen

contaminant

A

Pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the severity or harmfulness of a disease, is the definition for

Pathogen

virulence

virulence factors

commensal

opportunistic pathogen

contaminant

A

virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

factors that are produced by a microorganism and evoke disease, such as toxins. is the definition for?

· Pathogen

· virulence

· virulence factors

· commensal

· opportunistic pathogen

· contaminant

A

virulence factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

an organism that is part of the normal flora (endogenous), with a mutualistic relationship. is the definition for

· Pathogen

· virulence

· virulence factors

· commensal

· opportunistic pathogen

· contaminant

A

commensal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

an organism that causes infection when opportunity/change in natural immunity changes. is the definition for

· Pathogen

· virulence

· virulence factors

· commensal

· opportunistic pathogen

· contaminant

A

opportunistic pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

an organism that is growing in a culture by accident. is the definition for

· Pathogen

· virulence

· virulence factors

· commensal

· opportunistic pathogen

· contaminant

A

contaminant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does strain A indicate

A

Image shows that strain A is more virulent compared to strain B

Image shows that the lethal dose to kill 50% of host is 30 (strain A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does strain B indicate

A

Image shows that the lethal dose to kill 50% of hosts in 50 (strain B)

Image shows that strain B is less virulent compared to strain A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

an infective material derived from outside the patients body to cause infection is known as?

A

exogenous infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where would an endogenous infection occur

A

infection would occur within host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bacteria that is commensal has taken advantage due to lower immune response

is an example of exogenous/endogenous

A

endogenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

bacteria that transfers from a non-sterile location (mouth) to a sterile location (heart) is an example of

exogenous/endogenous infection

A

endogenous infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

: the microorganisms in a particular environment (including the body or a part of the body).

is called what

A

microbiome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which type of bacteria dominates the oral cavity

A

streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the manner of development of a disease. Endogenous bacteria shifting to a parasitic lifecycle requires adaptation. is the definition of

A

pathogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which branch of biology deals with the relations of organisms to one another and to their physical surroundings.

A

ecology of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which relationship best describes - saprophytic (feed on dead organic material)

A

free living

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which relationship best describes - a symbiotic relationship, when host & organism gain mutual value

A

mutualistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which relationship best describes - organism gains advantage but host does not gain from association

A

commensal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which relationship best describes - live on or in living creatures causing harm/damage to host

A

parasitic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

dynamic relationship between host and pathogen, can result in a shift between what for a pathogen

A

shift between mutalism and paratism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

illness or treatment can shift a mutalistic relationship to what

A

parasitic relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is your carrier state if you are: showing overt clinical presentation

Active • Convalescent • Healthy • Incubator

A

active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is your carrier state if you are: recovering but still cariier

Active • Convalescent • Healthy • Incubator

A

convalescent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is your carrier state if you are: showing no overt signs of illness

Active • Convalescent • Healthy • Incubator

A

healthy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is your carrier state if you are: maintaining large number of pathogens prior to illness

Active • Convalescent • Healthy • Incubator

A

incubator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

pathogens exit hosts through two mechanism

what are they

A

Natural: through sneezing and, shedding

Artificial: blood, saliva, aerosols (drill)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

spread of from a child via breastfeeding is a type of what spread

A

vetical spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how does adhesion of a pathogen contribute to its ability to cause disease

A
  • enables binding of the organism to host tissue, helps promote colonisation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how does Invasion of a pathogen contribute to its ability to cause disease

A

enables the organism to invade a host cell/tissue

where it can replicate its material and spread - virus

destroy the cells and release endotoxins - bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how does Impeding of a pathogen contribute to its ability to cause disease

A

enables the organism to avoid host defence mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how does Aggresin of a pathogen contribute to its ability to cause disease

A

causes damage to the host directly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how does modulin of a pathogen contribute to its ability to cause disease

A

induces damage to the host indirectly (via immune system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

the study of the occurrence, spread and control of disease (any disease) is the definition of what

A

epidemiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

the occurence and spread of disease at low levels randomly is classified as

A

sporadic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

the occurence and spread of disease at low levels present all the time is classified as

A

endemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

the occurence and spread of disease at high levels in geographically one continent is classified as

A

epidemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

the occurence and spread of disease at high levels in geographically 2 or more continents is classified as

A

pandemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

surface molecules can have multiple roles such as;

attachment/ colonisation, what is the function of this role?

A

these pathogens function is to attach to the surface and start colonising the surface, these would be the 1st layer bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

surface molecules can have multiple roles such as; rafting/co-aggregation

what is the function of this role?

A

allows different molecules to attach to the surface molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

surface molecules can have multiple roles such as;

signal transduction, what is the function of this role?

A

allows communciation with cells and within cells for a desired outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

bacterial mechanisms are used to avoid host defences.

what is the function of proteases produced by bacteria

A

proteases target secretory IgA (this is usually in mucosal surfaces, such as tears, respiratory, genital tract and saliva)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the function of toxins produced by bacteria

A

destroy immune cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the function of endotoxins produced by bacteria

A

interfere with inflammatory response, which can induce inflammation and fever as an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

bacterial mechanisms are used to avoid host defences.

what is the function of capsules, mechanisms that inhibit complement, produced by bacteria

A

evade innate immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

bacterial mechanisms are used to avoid host defences.

what is the function of antigen varition produced by bacteria

A

overcome acquired responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

metastasis is an example of what type spread of infection

A

superficial/systemic spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

lymes disease (tick bite) or malaria is an example of what type of spread of disease

A

spread of disease via contact or injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

spread of infection from cell to cell is an example of what type of spread

A

extra or intra cellular spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

migration of pathogens from the mouth to the heart via blood system. can cause which secondary infectious disease in the heart

A

endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

a bacteria having a thin peptidoglycan layer determines what

A

that it is a gram -ve bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

a bacteria having a thick peptidoglycan layer determines what

A

the bacteria is a gram +ve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

if a bacteria has no outer lipid membrane is it gram -ve or +ve

A

gram +ve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

if a bacteria has an outer lipid membrane is it gram -ve or +ve

A

gram -ve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what colour would gram -ve bacteria appear under a light microscope

A

would appear pale reddish colour

This is because the structure of their cell wall is unable to retain the crystal violet stain so are coloured only by the safranin counterstain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what colour would gram +ve bacteria appear under a light microscope

A

have a distinctive purple appearance

. This is due to retention of the purple crystal violet stain in the thick peptidoglycan layer of the cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

the release of cytokines in to the bloodstream, which then make there way to the hypothalamus. resulting in an inflammatory response to the whole body instead of the local site - is known as what

A

septic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

the continum od host response to infection - arrange in right order

sepsis

infection

septic shock

severe sepsis

A

infection

sepsis

severe sepsis

septic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is released , which increases the bodys thermal set point

A

prostaglandin e

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is the bodys natural response when the bodys thermal set point is increased

A

the body now percieves that it is cold and starts to shiver to conserve heat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

during the sepsis stage

Small blood vessels become “leaky” and lose fluid into the tissues, what does this do to the blood volume

A

reduces the blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

lower blood volume results in the heart to do what

A

work harder to maintain oxygenation of tissues thus increasing heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

during sepsis stage, poor oxygen perfusion means less essential organs will be shut down

which organs are slowly shut down and which organ is prioritised

A

prioritised = brain

shurt down = kidneys, skin, liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

during the sepsis stage the blood clotting system is activated.

what are the risk of this

A
  • causes blood clotting in tiny blood vessels, increased risk of haemorrhage.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what are the 4 symptoms of oral abscesses

A

Pain

Swelling – increase in immune cells in location. Pressed against nerve which causes pain.

Erythema - redness of the skin due to accumulation of vasculature

Suppuration – formation of puss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is cellulitis

A

is a common, potentially serious bacterial skin infection.

Cellulitis usually affects the skin on the lower legs, but it can occur in the face, arms and other areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

caries

gingivitis

periodontitis

pericoronitis

are examples of what

A

prokaryotic infections of the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

if caries of the tooth was not treated and further progressed what type of abscess coul it lead to -

A

periapical or dentoalveolar abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

prokarotic infection of the gingiva leads to what

A

gingivitis

periodontal disease if left to progress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

prokaryotic infection of the space between the tooth and the gingiva (periodontal space) leads to development of which dental abscess

A

periodontal abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

infection of the gingivae covering partially erupted tooth leads to which pathology

A

pericoronitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

which type of dental abscess forms - at the apex of the root

A

periapical abcess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

which type of dental abscess forms - in the space between the gum and tooth

A

gingival abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

which type of dental abscess forms - in a periodontal pocket

A

periodontal abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

which type of dental abscess forms - around impacted or partially erupted tooth

A

pericoronal abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what would be the treatment options for types of dental abscess

A

drainage of pus

antibiotics

treatment - root canal

worse case scenario - extraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what could serious infections of dental abscess lead to

A

access to soft tissues - development of cellulitis

direct spread - near area of infection

indirect spread - through the vascular system - development of endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

a bacterial complex that involves greater than 4 species of bacteria is known as

A

polymicrobial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

bacteria that don’t grow under laboratory conditions, making it impossible to characterise and understand them. are known as

A

unculturable microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

an organism that makes ATP by aerobic respiration if oxygen is present but can switch to fermentation if oxygen is absent. is known as a what

A

faculative anaerobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

microorganisms killed by normal atmospheric concentrations of oxygen (20.95% O2). And can only survive in environments with lack of oxygen. are known as

A

obligate anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

are periodontal abscesses asociated with a healthy or a non vital pulp

A

healthy pulp

86
Q

where must infection occur for a periodontal abcess to occur

A

in the periodontium

87
Q

periodontal abscess are usually associated with which gram bacteria

A

gram -ve

88
Q

Endodontic infections: pulpitis and recurrent infection following root canal treatment - are associated with which type of gram bacteria

A

gram -ve

89
Q

what is a dry socket

A

is when the blood clot at the site of the tooth extraction fails to develop, or it dislodges or dissolves before the wound has healed.

90
Q

what is osteomyelitis

A

inflammation of the bone marrow

91
Q

what would be used prior to and post extraction to eliminate pathogens in the oral cavity

A

chlorohexidine irrigation

92
Q

antiseptic dressing and metronidazole would be used when

A

dry socket

93
Q

what allows an osseointergrated implant to migrate with osteoblasts and supporting tissue

A

the implant contains pores.

94
Q

where would you find in its greatest concentration actinomyces in the oral cavity

A

supra and subgingival plaque

95
Q

what type of caries is actinomyces associated with

A

root surface caries

96
Q

name this oral pathogen

A

actinomyces

97
Q

a flexible spirally twisted bacterium is known as a

A

spirochetes

98
Q

Treponema denticola and what other pathogen found commonly associated with each other.

A

P. gingivalis

99
Q

treponema denticola is one of two most significant species found in where

A

dental plaque

100
Q

Symptoms – inflammation, spontaneous bleeding, intense pain and clear evidence of tissue destruction

are symptoms of which disease

A

acute necrotising gingivitis

101
Q

how would you treat necrotising gingivitis

A
  • Intense local oral hygiene – use of ultra scaler
  • Oral hygiene advice and mouth-rinses – chlorhexidine
  • Short course of antibiotics – metronidazole therapy 200mg for 5 days
102
Q

ludwigs angina is an example of what disease

A

acute cellulitis

103
Q

ludwigs angina results in the swelling of the airways, how would you treat this condition

A

High dose antibiotic treatment – intravenous penicillin

104
Q

the skin enviroment allows for the defence agaisnt invasion of pathogens.

what are the features of the environment

A
  • Periodic drying – allows for dormancy
  • Moist areas – scalp, ears, Genito-urinary tract
  • Acid pH
  • High salt (hyperosmotic)
  • Inhibitory substances – lysozyme
105
Q

what has this SSTIs been abbreviated from

A

skin and soft tissue infections

106
Q

Staphylococcus and Corynebacterium are most commonly isolated from which sites on the body/skin

A

moist sites

107
Q

Staphylococci: two common species distinguished as coagulase positive/negative

What is coagulase positive/negative:

A

coagulase is an enzyme that enables the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin which is needed to make blood clot. Coagulase negative means the bacteria in question does not posses the enzyme.

Staphylococci is a gram +ve cocci and is coagulase positive

108
Q

is S. aureus: is coagulase positive/negative

A

gram +ve

coagulase positive

109
Q

is Staphylococcus. epidermidis: coagulase negative or positive

A

coagulase negative

gram +ve

110
Q

what is Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus abbreviated to

A

MRSA

111
Q

what is MRSA

A

is a bacterium that causes infections in different parts of the body

112
Q

the symptoms of MRSA vary, why is this

A

The symptoms of MRSA depend on where you’re infected

113
Q

a class of antigens that results in excessive activation of the immune system. Specifically, it causes non-specific activation of T-cells. are known as

A

superantigens

114
Q

where does the superantigen bind on to

A

binds outside the conventional binding groove, which results in massive release of cytokines and inappropriate immune responses. (cytokine storm)

115
Q

vancomycin would be used for the treatment of which disease

A

MRSA

116
Q

patients that are allergic to penicillin would be given what instead

A

erythromycin

117
Q

most significant pathogenic streptococci is known as?

A

group a streptococcus

Group A streptococcus is a bacterium often found in the throat and on the skin. People may carry group A streptococci in the throat or on the skin and have no symptoms of illness. Most GAS infections are relatively mild illnesses such as “strep throat,”

118
Q
  • Anginosus
  • Pyogenic
  • Bovis
  • Salivarius
  • Mutans
  • Mitis

are all what

A

streptococcus evoluntionary groupings

119
Q

the rupture or destruction of red blood cells - is known as what

A

haemolysis

120
Q

partial haemolysis in blood agar caused by streptococci is known as what haemolysis

A

alpha haemolysis

121
Q

complete haemolysis in blood agar is caused by pathogenic streptococci. this is known as what haemolysis

A

beta-haemolysis

122
Q

y-haemolysis is indicated as what in the blood agar

A

blood agar will show no haemolysis of blood

123
Q

is streptococcus pyogenes a superantigen or not

A

superantigen

124
Q

what gram bacteria is streptoccus pyogenes

A

gram +ve

thick peptidoglycan

125
Q

skin infections

upper respiratory tract infections

rheumatic fever

glomerular nephritis

are all examples of pathology caused by which pathogen

A

streptococcus pyogenes

126
Q
  • Mechanical washing
  • Cough response
  • Mucocilliary clearance
  • Microbiota/flora

the above are examples of what type of defence

A

upper respiratory tract defence

127
Q

what helps the spread of pathogens in multiple myeloma

A

M protein

128
Q

tissue penetration/spread is known as what

A

metastasis

129
Q

pharyngitis is known as

A

sore throat

130
Q
  • Streptococcus pyogenes
  • Bordetella pertussis
  • Corynebacterium diptheria
  • Haemophilus influenza

are examples of what type of respiratory infections

A

upper respiratory tract infections

131
Q
  • Haemophilus influenza
  • Streptococcus pneumonia
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis

are examples of what type of respiratory infection

A

lower respiratory tract infections

132
Q

whooping cough is usually associated with which demographic

A

children

133
Q

whooping cough is caused by which pathogen

A

bordetella pertussis

134
Q

what does bordetella pertussis attach to in the respiratory tract

A

to the ciliated epithelial cells

135
Q

Bordetella pertussis produces a toxin which destorys leucocytes, what is the name of the toxin

A

pertusis toxin

136
Q

how would you diagnosis Bordetella pertussis.

A
  • Use cough – hold BG culture plate in front of mouth when coughing
  • Perinasal swab for posterial pharyngeal walls.
137
Q
  • Erythromycin for 14 days
  • Skilled nursing, remove mucus and vomit
  • Antibiotic therapy for secondary infections
  • Vaccination (diptheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio & Hib)

are methods of treatment for which disease

A

Bordetella pertussis - whooping cough

138
Q

what are the early symptoms of diptheria

A

sore throat

low fever

swollen neck glands

139
Q

what are the late stages of diptheria associated with

A

airway obstruction

breathing difficulty

140
Q

outbreaks of diptheria are associated with?

A

unsanitary/crowded conditions

immunity gap

vaccination failure

141
Q

name the bacteria

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

pathogen under the microscope looks like cantonese alphabet

142
Q
  • gram -ve bacilli
  • Infection from respiratory droplet or direct contact with patient
  • Bacteria attach to epithelial cells
  • Organism penetrates to submucosa (nasopharynx)
  • Causes local inflammation & swelling
  • Spreads from initial site to infect bones, joints, CNS (meningitis)

which bacteria is being described

A

haemophilus influenza

143
Q

Haemophilus influenza can cause a range of various diseases, such as;………………

is a serious bloodstream infection, also known as blood poisoning. ……………. occurs when a bacterial infection elsewhere in the body, such as the lungs or skin, enters the bloodstream.

A

septicaemia (44%)

144
Q

Haemophilus influenza can cause a range of various diseases, such as; ………………

is an inflammation of the membranes (meninges) surrounding your brain and spinal cord. Haemophilus influenza needs to cross blood brain barrier to cause …………..

A

meningitis (10%)

145
Q

Haemophilus influenza can cause a range of various diseases, such as; …………….

is an infection in one or both lungs. Bacteria, viruses and fungi cause it. The infection causes inflammation in the air sacs in your lungs, the alveoli fill with fluid or pus making it difficult to breathe.

A

pneumoniae (31%)

146
Q

why cannot tuberculosis survive outside the host

A

because it is an obligate pathogen

147
Q

mycobacterium tuberculosis penetrate deep into the lung alveoli and form initial lesions. what are the next stages of the disease

A

infected macrophages are phagocytosed, which infects further cells.

this results in persit and replication

induce localised immune response

cells are destroyed

granulomatus lesions are formed

148
Q
  • Night fever/sweats
  • Malaise – general feeling of discomfort, illness or unease
  • Weight loss (appetite)
  • Cough
  • Productive cough sputum

are the symptoms of what

A

pulmonary TB

149
Q

what are the treatment and control of pulmonary TB

A

antibiotic cocktail treatment

vaccination - no longer needed in uk since 2005

150
Q

When an individual bacterial species is growing on its own, it is called a what?

A

planktonic growth

151
Q

single species of bacteria can form a single species biofilm. where would you expect to find these biofilms in a medical environment

A

catheters and cannulas

152
Q

when there is a multi species biofilm, this would be referred to as what?

A

plaque

153
Q

mutans

salivarius

anginosus

oral mitis

are 4 main groups of which bacteria

A

oral streptococci

154
Q

oral streptococci are both faculative and obligate anaerobes, why is this.

A

the conditions in the oral cavity or constantly changing and this may result in the species to change

155
Q

which of the 4 main groups of oral streptococci are known for denal caries

mutans

salivarius

anginosus

oral mitis

A

mutans

produce lactic acid

156
Q

how do the streptococci mutans produce energy

A

they have intracellular storage of carbohydrates, which they can break down to produce energy

157
Q

streptococci mutans can produce ATP with or without oxygen this must mean it is a ……….. anaerobe

A

faculative

158
Q

how do streptococci mutans produce lactic acid

A

they ferment carbohydrate to produce lactic acid at a high rate

159
Q

Streptococci mutans can tolerate high concentrations of acid known as

A

aciduric

160
Q

what on the S. Mutans attaches to the dental pellicle this allows attachment of S. mutans to the surface of the tooth.

A

the protein antigens I/II

161
Q

Once S. mutans been attached, it needs to give itself stability. And it does this by the production of what?

A

glucosyltransferase (GTF). GTF is responsible for the biosynthesis of extracellular polysaccharides.

162
Q

what do extracellular polysaccharides act as

A

a molecular glue, allowing the bacterial cells to adhere to each other as well as surfaces.

163
Q

After streptococci mutans, lactobacilli are the most important group of bacteria involved in dental caries

is lactobacilli a gram +ve or -ve

A

Lactobacilli are gram +ve (thicker peptidoglycan layer and no outer lipid membrane)

164
Q

if something does not sporulate, what do they not do

A

produce spores

lactobacilli does not sporulate

165
Q

is lactobacilli a obligate or faculative anareobe

A

faculative

166
Q

lactobacilli can survive and reproduce under acid conditions pH 5.5, this must mean that it is both what

A

acidogenic - acid forming

aciduric

167
Q

Lactobacilli has poor adhesion properties, would you expect it to be a early or late coloniser

A

late coloniser

168
Q

Lactobacilli adheres to dentine, which is over represented in advanced carious lesions.

what features does dentine have that allow adhesion

A

dentinal matrix

169
Q

Streptococci mutans is associated with as early colonisers, due to their antigen protein attaching to the dental pellicle.

As the caries development makes its way to the dentine, there is a decrease in enamel pellicle

what happens to the numbers of streptococci mutans.

A

Lactobacilli tend to increase as streptococci mutans fall

170
Q

the correlation between numbers of lactobacilli and carious lesions would be positive/negative

A

positive

171
Q

is actinomyces a gram +ve or -ve

A

Are a gram +ve pleomorphic rods

172
Q

actinomyces is a gram +ve pleomorphic rod, what is the feature of pleomorphic rods

A

microorganisms’ ability to alter their shapes or size in response to environmental conditions

173
Q

actinomyces growth as branched hyphae, what is hyphae

A

like the mycelium of a fungus, but do not produce spores

174
Q

why would you expect to see an Increase in actinomyces with the progression of periodontal disease.

A

actinomyces is associated with supra and subgingival plaque. as the progression of periodontal disease occurs, more space is avilable for the accumulation of actinomyces

175
Q

For caries to occur the following what must be present

A

teeth,

plaque bacteria,

sugar

and time.

176
Q

a substance released by one bacteria that kills another usually by inducing a metabolic block, is known as as a what

A

bacteriocin

177
Q

Plaque communities can be broken down to two groups, what are they

A

supra-gingival and sub-gingival

178
Q

why do Oxygen levels vary in the mouth

A

they vary because of the mouth being closed during sleep. Which limits the oxygen in the mouth

179
Q

would you expect faculative or obligate anareobes to dominate supra-gingival plaque

A

faculative

180
Q

which plaque community would be exposed to a lack of oxygen

A

sub-gingival

181
Q

which plaque community would be exposed to constant conditions

A

sub-gingival

182
Q

which plaque community would be exposed to dietary carbohydrates

A

supra-gingival

183
Q

which plaque community would have obligate anaerobes

A

sub-gingival

184
Q

which plaque community would get proteins derived from serum

A

sub-gingival

185
Q

which plaque community would be present in gingival crevicular fluid

A

sub-gingival

186
Q

which plaque community would have abundance of gram-ve

A

sub-gingival

187
Q

a plaque score of 0 indicates what

A

no plaque in gingival area

188
Q

a plaque score of 1 indicates what

A

thin film of plaque (detected with probe)

189
Q

a plaque score of 2 indicates what

A

moderate amounts of plaque (seen with eye)

190
Q

a plaque score of 3 indicates what

A

gross deposits on the tooth

191
Q

a plaque score of 2 (moderate amounts of plaque seen with eye) is usually achieved after how many days of OH neglect

A

10 days of OH neglect

192
Q

a gingival index is used to measure the gingival findings.

a gingival score of 0 indicates what

A

healthy gingiva

193
Q

a gingival index is used to measure the gingival findings.

a gingival score of 1 indicates what

A

mild inflammation (slight colour changes, no BOP)

194
Q

a gingival index is used to measure the gingival findings.

a gingival score of 2 indicates what

A

moderate inflammation (redness, odema, BOP)

195
Q

a gingival index is used to measure the gingival findings.

a gingival score of 3 indicates what

A

Severe inflammation. (redness, oedema, ulceration, spontaneous bleeding)

196
Q
  • Children: accumulate large amounts of plaque and show little gingival inflammation
  • Whereas the elderly show severe inflammation associated with small amounts of plaque.

what does this suggest

A
  • This suggests that susceptibility to plaque increase with age.
197
Q

Chronic periodontitis follows gingivitis, how many teeth must be affected to reach the periodontitis title

A

>10 of 32 teeth

>30%

198
Q

what pockets are shown during gingivitis

A

false pockets

199
Q

what pockets develop during periodontitis

A

true pockets

200
Q

what causes the reasorption of the bone in periodontal disease

A

osteoclast are activated during periodontitis, this results in the reabsorption if the bone.

201
Q

Aggressive periodontitis follows from periodontitis

the bacteria that comprise of 70% of the flora is what

A

A. actinomycetemcomitans

202
Q
  • Is a oral species found in the gingival sulcus and periodontal pockets.
  • Gram -ve, often found associated with Actinomyces
  • Adhesion: has fibrils & fimbriae which help bind on to the ECM.

is describing what pathogen

A

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans

203
Q

red complex & exclusively found in gingival sulcus & periodontal pocket. best describes which pathogen

A

porphyromonas

204
Q

a mass of cells and fluid that has seeped out of blood vessels or an organ, especially in inflammation is known as

A

exudate

205
Q

Gingival crevicular fluid is an example of what

A

exudate

206
Q

The process of disease changes the GCF, components that increase the GCF are:

A
  • PMNs
  • Cytokines
  • K levels increase
  • Haem
  • Nitrate
207
Q
  • Enzymes secreted or released through lysis can benefit another species
  • Metabolic products can be beneficial to other species
  • Adhesion to other species or cell products
  • Gene transfer, mutation and new genes, causing genetic variation

these interactions are known as what interactions

A

synergistic interactions

208
Q

there are different types of adhesion seen in dental plaque.

how would you describe cell-substratum adhesion

A

the first cells to adhere to the dental plaque.

example would be the protein antigen adhering to the pellicle

209
Q

there are different types of adhesion seen in dental plaque.

how would you describe homotypic cell - cell adhesion

A

The attachment of a cell to a second cell of the identical type via adhesion molecules

210
Q

there are different types of adhesion seen in dental plaque.

how would you describe heterotypic cell - cell adhesion

A

The attachment of a cell to a cell of a different type via adhesion molecules

211
Q

corn cob complexes and test tube brush complexes is an example of what type of adhesion adhesion

A

heterotypic cell-cell adhesion

212
Q
A

Dentistry Module 3 (33 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions