Microbiology Lecture 1 Flashcards
Basis of infectious disease Microbiology lecture 1
1
Q
a harmful organism that produces a pathology, is the definition for
Pathogen
virulence
virulence factors
commensal
opportunistic pathogen
contaminant
A
Pathogen
2
Q
the severity or harmfulness of a disease, is the definition for
Pathogen
virulence
virulence factors
commensal
opportunistic pathogen
contaminant
A
virulence
3
Q
factors that are produced by a microorganism and evoke disease, such as toxins. is the definition for?
· Pathogen
· virulence
· virulence factors
· commensal
· opportunistic pathogen
· contaminant
A
virulence factors
4
Q
an organism that is part of the normal flora (endogenous), with a mutualistic relationship. is the definition for
· Pathogen
· virulence
· virulence factors
· commensal
· opportunistic pathogen
· contaminant
A
commensal
5
Q
an organism that causes infection when opportunity/change in natural immunity changes. is the definition for
· Pathogen
· virulence
· virulence factors
· commensal
· opportunistic pathogen
· contaminant
A
opportunistic pathogen
6
Q
an organism that is growing in a culture by accident. is the definition for
· Pathogen
· virulence
· virulence factors
· commensal
· opportunistic pathogen
· contaminant
A
contaminant
7
Q
what does strain A indicate
A
Image shows that strain A is more virulent compared to strain B
Image shows that the lethal dose to kill 50% of host is 30 (strain A)
8
Q
what does strain B indicate
A
Image shows that the lethal dose to kill 50% of hosts in 50 (strain B)
Image shows that strain B is less virulent compared to strain A
9
Q
an infective material derived from outside the patients body to cause infection is known as?
A
exogenous infection
10
Q
where would an endogenous infection occur
A
infection would occur within host
11
Q
Bacteria that is commensal has taken advantage due to lower immune response
is an example of exogenous/endogenous
A
endogenous
12
Q
bacteria that transfers from a non-sterile location (mouth) to a sterile location (heart) is an example of
exogenous/endogenous infection
A
endogenous infection
13
Q
: the microorganisms in a particular environment (including the body or a part of the body).
is called what
A
microbiome
14
Q
which type of bacteria dominates the oral cavity
A
streptococci
15
Q
the manner of development of a disease. Endogenous bacteria shifting to a parasitic lifecycle requires adaptation. is the definition of
A
pathogenesis
16
Q
which branch of biology deals with the relations of organisms to one another and to their physical surroundings.
A
ecology of bacteria
17
Q
which relationship best describes - saprophytic (feed on dead organic material)
A
free living
18
Q
which relationship best describes - a symbiotic relationship, when host & organism gain mutual value
A
mutualistic
19
Q
which relationship best describes - organism gains advantage but host does not gain from association
A
commensal
20
Q
which relationship best describes - live on or in living creatures causing harm/damage to host
A
parasitic
21
Q
dynamic relationship between host and pathogen, can result in a shift between what for a pathogen
A
shift between mutalism and paratism
22
Q
illness or treatment can shift a mutalistic relationship to what
A
parasitic relationship
23
Q
what is your carrier state if you are: showing overt clinical presentation
Active • Convalescent • Healthy • Incubator
A
active
24
Q
what is your carrier state if you are: recovering but still cariier
Active • Convalescent • Healthy • Incubator
A
convalescent
25
what is your carrier state if you are: showing no overt signs of illness
Active • Convalescent • Healthy • Incubator
healthy
26
what is your carrier state if you are: maintaining large number of pathogens prior to illness
Active • Convalescent • Healthy • Incubator
incubator
27
pathogens exit hosts through two mechanism
what are they
Natural: through sneezing and, shedding
Artificial: blood, saliva, aerosols (drill)
28
spread of from a child via breastfeeding is a type of what spread
vertical transmission
29
how does **adhesion** of a pathogen contribute to its ability to cause disease
* enables binding of the organism to host tissue, helps promote colonisation
30
how does **Invasion** of a pathogen contribute to its ability to cause disease
enables the organism to invade a host cell/tissue
where it can replicate its material and spread - virus
destroy the cells and release endotoxins - bacteria
31
how does **Impeding** of a pathogen contribute to its ability to cause disease
enables the organism to avoid host defence mechanisms
32
how does **Aggresin** of a pathogen contribute to its ability to cause disease
causes damage to the host directly
33
how does **modulin** of a pathogen contribute to its ability to cause disease
induces damage to the host indirectly (via immune system)
34
the study of the occurrence, spread and control of disease (any disease) is the definition of what
epidemiology
35
the occurence and spread of disease at low levels randomly is classified as
sporadic
36
the occurence and spread of disease at low levels present all the time is classified as
endemic
37
the occurence and spread of disease at high levels in geographically one continent is classified as
epidemic
38
the occurence and spread of disease at high levels in geographically 2 or more continents is classified as
pandemic
39
40
surface molecules can have multiple roles such as;
**attachment/ colonisation**, what is the function of this role?
these pathogens function is to attach to the surface and start colonising the surface, these would be the 1st layer bacteria
41
surface molecules can have multiple roles such as; **rafting/co-aggregation**
what is the function of this role?
allows different molecules to attach to the surface molecules
42
surface molecules can have multiple roles such as;
**signal transduction,** what is the function of this role?
allows communciation with cells and within cells for a desired outcome.
43
44
bacterial mechanisms are used to avoid host defences.
what is the function of proteases produced by bacteria
proteases target secretory IgA (this is usually in mucosal surfaces, such as tears, respiratory, genital tract and saliva)
45
what is the function of **toxins** produced by bacteria
destroy immune cells
46
what is the function of **endotoxins** produced by bacteria
interfere with inflammatory response, which can induce inflammation and fever as an immune response
47
bacterial mechanisms are used to avoid host defences.
what is the function of capsules, mechanisms that inhibit complement, produced by bacteria
evade innate immunity
48
bacterial mechanisms are used to avoid host defences.
what is the function of **antigen varition** produced by bacteria
overcome acquired responses
49
metastasis is an example of what type spread of infection
superficial/systemic spread
50
lymes disease (tick bite) or malaria is an example of what type of spread of disease
spread of disease via contact or injection
51
spread of infection from cell to cell is an example of what type of spread
extra or intra cellular spread
52
53
migration of pathogens from the mouth to the heart via blood system. can cause which secondary infectious disease in the heart
endocarditis
54
a bacteria having a thin peptidoglycan layer determines what
that it is a gram -ve bacteria
55
a bacteria having a thick peptidoglycan layer determines what
the bacteria is a gram +ve
56
if a bacteria has **no outer lipid membrane** is it gram -ve or +ve
gram +ve
57
if a bacteria has an outer lipid membrane is it gram -ve or +ve
gram -ve
58
what colour would gram -ve bacteria appear under a light microscope
would appear pale reddish colour
This is because the structure of their cell wall is unable to retain the crystal violet stain so are coloured only by the safranin counterstain
59
what colour would gram +ve bacteria appear under a light microscope
have a distinctive purple appearance
. This is due to retention of the purple crystal violet stain in the thick peptidoglycan layer of the cell wall
60
the release of cytokines in to the bloodstream, which then make there way to the hypothalamus. resulting in an inflammatory response to the whole body instead of the local site - is known as what
septic shock
61
the continum od host response to infection - arrange in right order
sepsis
infection
septic shock
severe sepsis
infection
sepsis
severe sepsis
septic shock
62
what is released , which increases the bodys thermal set point
prostaglandin e
63
what is the bodys natural response when the bodys thermal set point is increased
the body now percieves that it is cold and starts to shiver to conserve heat.
64
during the sepsis stage
Small blood vessels become “leaky” and lose fluid into the tissues, what does this do to the blood volume
reduces the blood volume
65
lower blood volume results in the heart to do what
work harder to maintain oxygenation of tissues thus increasing heart rate
66
during sepsis stage, poor oxygen perfusion means less essential organs will be shut down
which organs are slowly shut down and which organ is prioritised
prioritised = brain
shurt down = kidneys, skin, liver
67
during the sepsis stage the blood clotting system is activated.
what are the risk of this
* causes blood clotting in tiny blood vessels, increased risk of haemorrhage.
68
what are the 4 symptoms of oral abscesses
Pain
Swelling – increase in immune cells in location. Pressed against nerve which causes pain.
Erythema - redness of the skin due to accumulation of vasculature
Suppuration – formation of puss.
69
what is cellulitis
is a common, potentially serious bacterial skin infection.
## Footnote
**Cellulitis** usually affects the skin on the lower legs, but it can occur in the face, arms and other areas
70
caries
gingivitis
periodontitis
pericoronitis
are examples of what
prokaryotic infections of the mouth
71
if caries of the tooth was not treated and further progressed what type of abscess coul it lead to -
periapical or dentoalveolar abscess
72
prokarotic infection of the gingiva leads to what
gingivitis
periodontal disease if left to progress
73
prokaryotic infection of the space between the tooth and the gingiva (periodontal space) leads to development of which dental abscess
periodontal abscess
74
infection of the gingivae covering partially erupted tooth leads to which pathology
pericoronitis
75
which type of dental abscess forms - at the apex of the root
periapical abcess
76
which type of dental abscess forms - in the space residing between two teeth?
gingival abscess
77
which type of dental abscess forms - in a periodontal pocket
periodontal abscess
78
which type of dental abscess forms - around impacted or partially erupted tooth
pericoronal abscess
79
what would be the treatment options for types of dental abscess
drainage of pus
antibiotics
treatment - root canal
worse case scenario - extraction
80
what could serious infections of dental abscess lead to
access to soft tissues - development of cellulitis
direct spread - near area of infection
indirect spread - through the vascular system - development of endocarditis
81
a bacterial complex that involves greater than 4 species of bacteria is known as
polymicrobial
82
bacteria that don't grow under laboratory conditions, making it impossible to characterise and understand them. are known as
unculturable microbes
83
an organism that makes ATP by aerobic respiration if oxygen is present but can switch to fermentation if oxygen is absent. is known as a what
faculative anaerobe
84
microorganisms killed by normal atmospheric concentrations of oxygen (20.95% O2). And can only survive in environments with lack of oxygen. are known as
obligate anaerobes
85
are periodontal abscesses asociated with a healthy or a non vital pulp
healthy pulp
86
where must infection occur for a periodontal abcess to occur
in the periodontium
87
periodontal abscess are usually associated with which gram bacteria
gram -ve
88
**_Endodontic infections_**: pulpitis and recurrent infection following root canal treatment - are associated with which type of gram bacteria
gram -ve
89
what is a dry socket
is when the blood clot at the site of the tooth extraction fails to develop, or it dislodges or dissolves before the wound has healed.
90
what is osteomyelitis
inflammation of the bone marrow
91
what would be used prior to and post extraction to eliminate pathogens in the oral cavity
chlorohexidine irrigation
92
antiseptic dressing and metronidazole would be used when
dry socket
93
what allows an osseointergrated implant to migrate with osteoblasts and supporting tissue
the implant contains pores.
94
where would you find in its greatest concentration actinomyces in the oral cavity
supra and subgingival plaque
95
what type of caries is actinomyces associated with
root surface caries
96
name this oral pathogen
actinomyces
97
a flexible spirally twisted bacterium is known as a
spirochetes
98
Treponema denticola and **what other pathogen** found commonly associated with each other.
*P*. gingivalis
99
treponema denticola is one of two most significant species found in where
dental plaque
100
Symptoms – inflammation, spontaneous bleeding, intense pain and clear evidence of tissue destruction
are symptoms of which disease
acute necrotising gingivitis
101
how would you treat necrotising gingivitis
* Intense local oral hygiene – use of ultra scaler
* Oral hygiene advice and mouth-rinses – chlorhexidine
* Short course of antibiotics – metronidazole therapy 200mg for 5 days
102
ludwigs angina is an example of what disease
acute cellulitis
103
ludwigs angina results in the swelling of the airways, how would you treat this condition
High dose antibiotic treatment – intravenous penicillin
104
the skin enviroment allows for the defence agaisnt invasion of pathogens.
what are the features of the environment
* Periodic drying – allows for dormancy
* Moist areas – scalp, ears, Genito-urinary tract
* Acid pH
* High salt (hyperosmotic)
* Inhibitory substances – lysozyme
105
what has this SSTIs been abbreviated from
skin and soft tissue infections
106
Staphylococcus and Corynebacterium are most commonly isolated from which sites on the body/skin
moist sites
107
**Staphylococci:** two common species distinguished as coagulase positive/negative
What is coagulase positive/negative:
coagulase is an enzyme that enables the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin which is needed to make blood clot. Coagulase negative means the bacteria in question does not posses the enzyme.
## Footnote
**Staphylococci is a gram +ve cocci and is coagulase positive**
108
is **S. aureus:** is coagulase positive/negative
gram +ve
coagulase positive
109
is **Staphylococcus. epidermidis:** coagulase negative or positive
coagulase negative
gram +ve
110
what is Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus abbreviated to
**MRSA**
111
what is MRSA
is a bacterium that causes infections in different parts of the body
112
the symptoms of MRSA vary, why is this
The symptoms of MRSA depend on where you're infected
113
a class of antigens that results in excessive activation of the immune system. Specifically, it causes **non-specific** activation of T-cells. are known as
**superantigens**
114
where does the superantigen bind on to
binds outside the conventional binding groove, which results in massive release of cytokines and inappropriate immune responses. (cytokine storm)
115
vancomycin would be used for the treatment of which disease
MRSA
116
patients that are allergic to penicillin would be given what instead
erythromycin
117
most significant pathogenic streptococci is known as?
group a streptococcus
**Group A streptococcus** is a bacterium often found in the throat and on the skin. People may carry group A streptococci in the throat or on the skin and have no symptoms of illness. Most GAS infections are relatively mild illnesses such as "strep throat,"
118
* Anginosus
* Pyogenic
* Bovis
* Salivarius
* Mutans
* Mitis
are all what
streptococcus evoluntionary groupings
119
the rupture or destruction of red blood cells - is known as what
haemolysis
120
partial haemolysis in blood agar caused by streptococci is known as what haemolysis
alpha haemolysis
121
complete haemolysis in blood agar is caused by pathogenic streptococci. this is known as what haemolysis
beta-haemolysis
122
y-haemolysis is indicated as what in the blood agar
blood agar will show no haemolysis of blood
123
is streptococcus pyogenes a superantigen or not
superantigen
124
what gram bacteria is streptoccus pyogenes
gram +ve
thick peptidoglycan
125
skin infections
upper respiratory tract infections
rheumatic fever
glomerular nephritis
are all examples of pathology caused by which pathogen
streptococcus pyogenes
126
* Mechanical washing
* Cough response
* Mucocilliary clearance
* Microbiota/flora
the above are examples of what type of defence
upper respiratory tract defence
127
what helps the spread of pathogens in multiple myeloma
M protein
128
tissue penetration/spread is known as what
metastasis
129
pharyngitis is known as
sore throat
130
* Streptococcus pyogenes
* Bordetella pertussis
* Corynebacterium diptheria
* Haemophilus influenza
are examples of what type of respiratory infections
upper respiratory tract infections
131
* Haemophilus influenza
* Streptococcus pneumonia
* Mycobacterium tuberculosis
are examples of what type of respiratory infection
lower respiratory tract infections
132
whooping cough is usually associated with which demographic
children
133
whooping cough is caused by which pathogen
bordetella pertussis
134
what does bordetella pertussis attach to in the respiratory tract
to the ciliated epithelial cells
135
Bordetella pertussis produces a toxin which destorys leucocytes, what is the name of the toxin
pertusis toxin
136
how would you diagnosis Bordetella pertussis.
* Use cough – hold BG culture plate in front of mouth when coughing
* Perinasal swab for posterial pharyngeal walls.
137
* Erythromycin for 14 days
* Skilled nursing, remove mucus and vomit
* Antibiotic therapy for secondary infections
* Vaccination (diptheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio & Hib)
are methods of treatment for which disease
Bordetella pertussis - whooping cough
138
what are the early symptoms of diptheria
sore throat
low fever
swollen neck glands
139
what are the late stages of diptheria associated with
airway obstruction
breathing difficulty
140
outbreaks of diptheria are associated with?
unsanitary/crowded conditions
immunity gap
vaccination failure
141
name the bacteria
Corynebacterium diptheriae
pathogen under the microscope looks like cantonese alphabet
142
* gram -ve bacilli
* Infection from respiratory droplet or direct contact with patient
* Bacteria attach to epithelial cells
* Organism penetrates to submucosa (nasopharynx)
* Causes local inflammation & swelling
* Spreads from initial site to infect bones, joints, CNS (meningitis)
which bacteria is being described
haemophilus influenza
143
Haemophilus influenza can cause a range of various diseases, such as;..................
is a serious bloodstream infection, also known as blood poisoning. ................ occurs when a bacterial infection elsewhere in the body, such as the lungs or skin, enters the bloodstream.
septicaemia (44%)
144
Haemophilus influenza can cause a range of various diseases, such as; ..................
is an inflammation of the membranes (meninges) surrounding your brain and spinal cord. Haemophilus influenza needs to cross blood brain barrier to cause ..............
meningitis (10%)
145
Haemophilus influenza can cause a range of various diseases, such as; ................
is an infection in one or both lungs. Bacteria, viruses and fungi cause it. The infection causes inflammation in the air sacs in your lungs, the alveoli fill with fluid or pus making it difficult to breathe.
pneumoniae (31%)
146
why cannot tuberculosis survive outside the host
because it is an obligate pathogen
147
mycobacterium tuberculosis penetrate deep into the lung alveoli and form initial lesions. what are the next stages of the disease
infected macrophages are phagocytosed, which infects further cells.
this results in persit and replication
induce localised immune response
cells are destroyed
granulomatus lesions are formed
148
* Night fever/sweats
* Malaise – general feeling of discomfort, illness or unease
* Weight loss (appetite)
* Cough
* Productive cough sputum
are the symptoms of what
pulmonary TB
149
what are the treatment and control of pulmonary TB
antibiotic cocktail treatment
vaccination - no longer needed in uk since 2005
150
When an individual bacterial species is growing on its own, it is called a what?
planktonic growth
151
single species of bacteria can form a single species biofilm. where would you expect to find these biofilms in a medical environment
catheters and cannulas
152
when there is a multi species biofilm, this would be referred to as what?
plaque
153
mutans
salivarius
anginosus
oral mitis
are 4 main groups of which bacteria
oral streptococci
154
oral streptococci are both faculative and obligate anaerobes, why is this.
the conditions in the oral cavity or constantly changing and this may result in the species to change
155
which of the 4 main groups of oral streptococci are known for denal caries
mutans
salivarius
anginosus
oral mitis
mutans
produce lactic acid
156
how do the streptococci mutans produce energy
they have intracellular storage of carbohydrates, which they can break down to produce energy
157
streptococci mutans can produce ATP with or without oxygen this must mean it is a ........... anaerobe
faculative
158
how do streptococci mutans produce lactic acid
they ferment carbohydrate to produce lactic acid at a high rate
159
Streptococci mutans can tolerate high concentrations of acid known as
aciduric
160
what on the S. Mutans attaches to the dental pellicle this allows attachment of S. mutans to the surface of the tooth.
the protein antigens I/II
161
Once S. mutans been attached, it needs to give itself stability. And it does this by the production of what?
glucosyltransferase (GTF). GTF is responsible for the biosynthesis of extracellular polysaccharides.
162
what do extracellular polysaccharides act as
a molecular glue, allowing the bacterial cells to adhere to each other as well as surfaces.
163
After streptococci mutans, lactobacilli are the most important group of bacteria involved in dental caries
is lactobacilli a gram +ve or -ve
Lactobacilli are **gram +ve** (thicker peptidoglycan layer and no outer lipid membrane)
164
if something does not sporulate, what do they not do
produce spores
lactobacilli does not sporulate
165
is lactobacilli a obligate or faculative anareobe
faculative
166
lactobacilli can survive and reproduce under acid conditions pH 5.5, this must mean that it is both what
acidogenic - acid forming
aciduric
167
Lactobacilli has poor adhesion properties, would you expect it to be a early or late coloniser
late coloniser
168
Lactobacilli adheres to dentine, which is over represented in advanced carious lesions.
what features does dentine have that allow adhesion
dentinal matrix
169
Streptococci mutans is associated with as early colonisers, due to their antigen protein attaching to the dental pellicle.
As the caries development makes its way to the dentine, there is a decrease in enamel pellicle
what happens to the numbers of streptococci mutans.
Lactobacilli tend to increase as streptococci mutans fall
170
the correlation between numbers of lactobacilli and carious lesions would be positive/negative
positive
171
is actinomyces a gram +ve or -ve
Are a gram +ve pleomorphic rods
172
actinomyces is a gram +ve **pleomorphic rod**, what is the feature of **pleomorphic rods**
microorganisms’ ability to alter their shapes or size in response to environmental conditions
173
actinomyces growth as branched hyphae, what is hyphae
like the mycelium of a fungus, but do not produce spores
174
why would you expect to see an Increase in actinomyces with the progression of periodontal disease.
actinomyces is associated with supra and subgingival plaque. as the progression of periodontal disease occurs, more space is avilable for the accumulation of actinomyces
175
For caries to occur the following what must be present
teeth,
plaque bacteria,
sugar
and time.
176
a substance released by one bacteria that kills another usually by inducing a metabolic block, is known as as a what
bacteriocin
177
Plaque communities can be broken down to two groups, what are they
supra-gingival and sub-gingival
178
why do Oxygen levels vary in the mouth
they vary because of the mouth being closed during sleep. Which limits the oxygen in the mouth
179
would you expect faculative or obligate anareobes to dominate supra-gingival plaque
faculative
180
which plaque community would be exposed to a lack of oxygen
sub-gingival
181
which plaque community would be exposed to constant conditions
sub-gingival
182
which plaque community would be exposed to dietary carbohydrates
supra-gingival
183
which plaque community would have obligate anaerobes
sub-gingival
184
which plaque community would get proteins derived from serum
sub-gingival
185
which plaque community would be present in gingival crevicular fluid
sub-gingival
186
which plaque community would have abundance of gram-ve
sub-gingival
187
a plaque score of 0 indicates what
no plaque in gingival area
188
a plaque score of 1 indicates what
thin film of plaque (detected with probe)
189
a plaque score of 2 indicates what
moderate amounts of plaque (seen with eye)
190
a plaque score of 3 indicates what
gross deposits on the tooth
191
a plaque score of 2 (moderate amounts of plaque seen with eye) is usually achieved after how many days of OH neglect
10 days of OH neglect
192
a gingival index is used to measure the gingival findings.
a gingival score of 0 indicates what
healthy gingiva
193
a gingival index is used to measure the gingival findings.
a gingival score of 1 indicates what
mild inflammation (slight colour changes, no BOP)
194
a gingival index is used to measure the gingival findings.
a gingival score of 2 indicates what
moderate inflammation (redness, odema, BOP)
195
a gingival index is used to measure the gingival findings.
a gingival score of 3 indicates what
Severe inflammation. (redness, oedema, ulceration, spontaneous bleeding)
196
* Children: accumulate large amounts of plaque and show little gingival inflammation
* Whereas the elderly show severe inflammation associated with small amounts of plaque.
what does this suggest
* This suggests that susceptibility to plaque increase with age.
197
Chronic periodontitis follows gingivitis, how many teeth must be affected to reach the periodontitis title
\>10 of 32 teeth
\>30%
198
what pockets are shown during gingivitis
false pockets
199
what pockets develop during periodontitis
true pockets
200
what causes the reasorption of the bone in periodontal disease
osteoclast are activated during periodontitis, this results in the reabsorption if the bone.
201
Aggressive periodontitis follows from periodontitis
the bacteria that comprise of 70% of the flora is what
A. actinomycetemcomitans
202
* Is a oral species found in the gingival sulcus and periodontal pockets.
* Gram -ve, often found associated with Actinomyces
* Adhesion: has fibrils & fimbriae which help bind on to the ECM.
is describing what pathogen
**Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans**
203
red complex & exclusively found in gingival sulcus & periodontal pocket. best describes which pathogen
porphyromonas
204
a mass of cells and fluid that has seeped out of blood vessels or an organ, especially in inflammation is known as
exudate
205
Gingival crevicular fluid is an example of what
exudate
206
The process of disease changes the GCF, components that increase the GCF are:
* PMNs
* Cytokines
* K levels increase
* Haem
* Nitrate
207
* Enzymes secreted or released through lysis can benefit another species
* Metabolic products can be beneficial to other species
* Adhesion to other species or cell products
* Gene transfer, mutation and new genes, causing genetic variation
these interactions are known as what interactions
**synergistic interactions**
208
there are different types of adhesion seen in dental plaque.
how would you describe **cell-substratum adhesion**
the first cells to adhere to the dental plaque.
example would be the protein antigen adhering to the pellicle
209
there are different types of adhesion seen in dental plaque.
how would you describe **homotypic cell - cell adhesion**
The attachment of a cell to a second cell of the identical type via adhesion molecules
210
there are different types of adhesion seen in dental plaque.
how would you describe **heterotypic cell - cell adhesion**
The attachment of a cell to a cell of a different type via adhesion molecules
211
corn cob complexes and test tube brush complexes is an example of what type of adhesion adhesion
**heterotypic cell-cell adhesion**
212
