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Bacteriology II > Persistent Viruses (Exam 5) > Flashcards

Persistent Viruses (Exam 5) Flashcards

1
Q

Persistent infections occur and last for long periods when the primary infection is not cleared by:

A

adaptive immune response

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2
Q

Persistent infection bypasses _________ immunity and then ________ response cannot clear the virus.

A

innate
adaptive

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3
Q

List 3 types of persistent infections.

A
  1. latent infection
  2. chronic infection
  3. slow infection
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4
Q

Match the type of persistent infection with the description:

  1. life-long, long incubation period with rapid progression of clinical disease
  2. initial infection and virus released from host; serve as persistent carriers
  3. life-long maintenance of viral genome with periods of non-productive state and reactivation.
A
  1. slow infection
  2. chronic infection
  3. latent infection
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5
Q

Which two persistent infections discussed occur due to a virus within Family Retroviridae & Genus Lentivirus?

A

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)
Equine Infectious Anemia Virus (EIAV)

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6
Q

(T/F) Lentiviruses are oncogenic.

A

False! (non-oncogenic)

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7
Q

Lentiviruses are (enveloped/nonenveloped) (negative/positive) sense (ss/ds) (DNA/RNA) viruses.

A

enveloped (+) ssRNA

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8
Q

Lentiviruses use __________ where a provirus is inserted into the host genome.

A

reverse transcriptase

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9
Q

Lentiviruses undergo antigenic (shift/drift) where mutations accumulate and affect antibody recognition.

A

drift

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10
Q

Lentiviruses cause persistent, lifelong infection of ________ (cell type).

A

phagocytes (monocytes, macrophages, DCs, microglia)

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11
Q

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus infects and kills _______ cells.

A

CD4+ T cells

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12
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity do lentiviruses cause?

A

Type III (immune complexes)

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13
Q

How are lentiviruses in general transmitted?

A

body fluid (blood, milk)

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14
Q

What is the official test for diagnosis of Lentiviruses?

A

Agar Gel Immunodiffusion test (AGID)

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15
Q

Once a Lentivirus infects phagocytes and the provirus is inserted, latency occurs in precursors cells such as _________ and _______.

A

monocytes
lymphocytes

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16
Q

List 3 common sequelae / lesions from Lentivirus infection.

A
  1. chronic granulomatous inflammation
  2. macrophage/lymphocyte lysis
  3. immunosuppresion
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17
Q

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV) has ______ protein properties which determine cell tropism.

A

Env

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18
Q

Mutations of Env protein can lead to new FIV ________ which can impede vaccine development.

A

subtypes (variants)

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19
Q

There are currently ___ subtypes of FIV.

A

6 (A-F)

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20
Q

(T/F) ALL cats can become infected with FIV.

A

True (more common in free-roaming males)

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21
Q

List 3 possible routes of FIV transmission.

A
  1. bite wounds (contaminated blood/saliva)
  2. transplacental (milk)
  3. venereal (possible)
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22
Q

What is the primary tropism for FIV?

A

CD4+ T cells

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23
Q

Due to FIV’s tropism for CD4+ T cells, this leads to a progressive _______ deficiency.

A

immune

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24
Q

While there is a large antibody response to FIV, infected cats need ________ immunity to suppress viremia, so this is the limiting factor.

A

cell-mediated

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25
Q

List the 3 phases of Clinical Disease of FIV.

A
  1. short acute phase
  2. prolonged asymptomatic phase
  3. terminal phase (Feline Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome)
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26
Q

(T/F) F-AIDS is ultimately fatal and presents with non-specific signs.

A

True

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27
Q

List 4 possible non-specific signs of F-AIDS during the terminal phase of FIV.

A
  1. recurrent rhinitis / sinusitis
  2. progressive weight loss
  3. diarrhea
  4. recurring fever
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28
Q

In addition to the non-specific signs of FIV, what 3 disease types can develop?

A
  1. Neoplasia
  2. Ocular disease
  3. Neurologic syndromes
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29
Q

What in-office test is seen as the “gold standard” for FIV diagnosis?

A

Western-Blot

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30
Q

FIV in-office diagnostic tests detect (antigen/antibody) to _____ capsid protein & _____ envelope protein.

A

antibody
p24
gp41

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31
Q

(T/F) PCR is a common diagnostic method for FIV.

A

False (too much antigenic variation)

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32
Q

There are NO _______ vaccines for FIV prevention and the _______ vaccine is NOT recommended.

A

MLV
killed

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33
Q

Which horse Lentivirus is a reportable disease in Missouri?

A

Equine Infectious Anemia Virus

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34
Q

(T/F) Equine Infectious Anemia Virus causes immunodeficiency in horses.

A

False (DOES NOT attack immune system)

35
Q

All equidae are affected by Equine Infectious Anemia Virus.
_________ are resistant to clinical disease but can transmit it to horses.
_________ develop a similar disease to horses.

A

donkeys
mules

36
Q

What is the main pathogenic mechanism for EIAV?

A

intravascular hemolysis

37
Q

Equine Infectious Anemia Virus inserts a provirus in ________, causing a permanent infection.

A

macrophages

38
Q

(T/F) Antigenic shift is common in EIAV.

A

False (antigenic drift)

39
Q

EIAV replicates in macrophages. From there, two outcomes are possible:

A
  1. provirus inserted –> permanent infection
  2. macrophage lysis –> viremia
40
Q

When EIAV causes viremia, _______ cells via cell-mediated response can clear the virus OR ________ generation occurs leading to Type ____ & ___ Hypersensitivities.

A

cytotoxic T cells
antibody
II & III

41
Q

When EIAV generates antibody production leading to Type II & III Hypersensitivities, this causes 3 clinical signs:

A
  1. fever
  2. anemia
  3. thrombocytopenia
42
Q

Equine Infectious Anemia Virus is transmitted by contaminated ________.

43
Q

(T/F) EIAV can be transmitted by mechanical vectors (tabanids) so it is considered an arbovirus.

A

False (different from arbovirus)

44
Q

In addition to contaminated blood transmission, EIAV can be transmitted ________ or _______.

A

vertically
iatrogenically

45
Q

List the 3 forms of Equine Infectious Anemia.

A
  1. acute
  2. chronic
  3. inapparent carrier
46
Q

Acute Equine Infectious Anemia can relapse, causing ________ infection.

47
Q

Acute EIA leads to ________ in 2-3 weeks.

48
Q

If horses with chronic EIA survive, they become:

A

inapparent carriers

49
Q

The majority of horses infected with EIA develop which form?

A

inapparent carrier (NO signs of disease)

50
Q

List 3 methods of EIA diagnosis.

A
  1. serology
  2. AGID
  3. RT-PCR
51
Q

What is the main EIA AGID diagnostic test used considered the official test for USDA & OI?

A

Coggins Test

52
Q

(T/F) EIA vaccine is a core vaccine for horses.

A

False (NO vaccine available)

53
Q

(T/F) EIAV positive horses are usually euthanized.

54
Q

List the 2 small ruminant lentiviruses that affect sheep or goats.

A

Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis Virus (CAEV)
Ovine Progressive Pneumonia Virus

55
Q

Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis Virus is a(n) (oncogenic/non-oncogenic) lentivirus.

A

non-oncogenic

56
Q

List 2 modes of transmission of CAEV in kids. Which is primary mode?

A
  1. ingestion (colostrum) *primary
  2. vertical (direct contact w/ blood/secretions)
57
Q

Older goats become infected with CAEV horizontally via:

A

direct contact (fecal-oral)

58
Q

After ingestion, CAEV infects and replicates in _______, NOT ______.

A

monocytes/macrophages
lymphocytes

59
Q

(T/F) Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis Virus causes immunodeficiency.

60
Q

CAEV is a __________ disease causing Type ___ Hypersensitivity.

A

lymphoproliferative
III

61
Q

List the 3 clinical signs that occur in adults with CAEV.

A
  1. arthritis
  2. interstitial pneumonia
  3. indurate mastitis (“hard bag”)
62
Q

What clinical sign is seen in kids with CAEV?

A

leukoencephalomyelitis

63
Q

List 3 ways to diagnose CAEV.

A

AGID
histopath
PCR

64
Q

(T/F) There is NO vaccine available for CAEV.

65
Q

Which virus is a “slow” lentivirus in sheep?

A

Ovine Progressive Pneumonia Virus

66
Q

Ovine Progressive Pneumonia Virus is also called _______ ______ virus. ______ means “wasting/shrinking” in the brain while ______ means dyspnea in the lungs.

A

Visna/Maedi
visna
maedi

67
Q

List 3 ways OPPV is transmitted and which is the primary route.

A
  1. inhalation
  2. ingestion (colostrum) *primary
  3. vertical (in-utero)
68
Q

OPPV chronically infect ________, causing lymphoproliferation but NO immunosuppression.

A

monocytes/macrophages

69
Q

Match the 4 clinical signs/syndromes that occur with Ovine Progressive Pneumonia Virus with its descriptions:

  1. listlessness, poor BC, emaciation
  2. emaciation –> dyspnea
  3. hindlimb weakness –> paralysis
  4. enlarged, firm udder
A
  1. Thin Ewe Syndrome
  2. Maedi
  3. Visna
  4. Hard Bag
70
Q

AGID serologic test can be used to detect OPPV by detecting ______ viral protein.

71
Q

(T/F) There are NO treatments and NO vaccines available for Ovine Progressive Pneumonia Virus.

72
Q

Which virus is endemic in standardbred horses and within the Arterivirus genus?

A

Equine Viral Arteritis Virus

73
Q

Equine Viral Arteritis Virus is (zoonotic/non-zoonotic) and (reportable/non-reportable) in Missouri.

A

non-zoonotic
reportable

74
Q

Equine Viral Arteritis Virus is a (ss/ds) (+/-) sense (DNA/RNA) virus.

A

ss (+) sense RNA virus

75
Q

Equine Viral Arteritis Virus infects _________, causing a persistent, often asymptomatic infection.

A

macrophages

76
Q

Equine Viral Arteritis can be transmitted in 3 ways. List them. Which is most frequent?

A
  1. venereal (semen)
  2. respiratory *most frequent
  3. congenital
77
Q

Most commonly, healthy adult horses infected with Equine Viral Arteritis Virus develop _______ or ______ Respiratory Disease.

A

inapparent or mild

78
Q

What is the most important clinical sign of Equine Arteritis Virus?

79
Q

If foals become infected congenitally with Equine Arteritis Virus, they develop:

A

interstitial pneumonia

80
Q

(T/F) Stallions do not shed Equine Viral Arteritis Virus.

A

False (persistent carriers)

81
Q

The main lesion seen with Equine Arteritis Virus is infection of endothelial cells –> vasculitis causing:

A

edema (subcutaneous, eyelids, scrotal)

82
Q

What is the official OIE diagnostic test for Equine Arteritis Virus?

A

viral isolation (in semen)

83
Q

Control of Equine Arteritis Virus is centered around:

A

carrier stallions

Bacteriology II (22 decks)

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