Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Finals Revision > Passmed Concepts > Flashcards

Passmed Concepts Flashcards

1
Q

What is required for patients taking prednisolone before surgery?

A

Hydrocortisone supplementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is hydrocortisone given before surgery?

A

if patients have their HPA axis suppressed by prednisolone then they will not be able to cope with the stress of surgery and need hydrocortisone to replace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Complete fracture

A

Both sides of cortex are breached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Toddlers fracture

A

Oblique tibial fracture in infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Plastic deformity

A

Stress on bone resulting in deformity without cortical disruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Greenstick fracture

A

Unilateral cortical breach only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Buckle fracture

A

Incomplete cortical disruption resulting in periosteal haematoma only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fracture through the physis only (x-ray often normal)

A

I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fracture through the physis and metaphysis

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fracture through the physis and epiphyisis to include the joint

A

III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fracture involving the physis, metaphysis and epiphysis

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Crush injury involving the physis (x-ray may resemble type I, and appear normal)

A

V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why does OSA cause hypertension?

A

due to the drop in blood oxygen levels and rise in carbon dioxide during apnoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

malignant tumour that occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure

A

osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are PDE 5 inhibitors e.g. sildenafil contraindicated by?

A

Nitrates and nicorandil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a normal QT interval

A

430ms in males, 450 ms in females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the causes of long QT interval?

A

Congenital
>Jervell-lange-neilsen syndrome
> romano-ward syndrome

Drugs
> amiodarone, sotalol
> TCAs, SSRIs
> Methadone
> chloroquine
> terfenadine
> erythromycin
> haloperidol
> odansetron 
Other
> electrolyte: hypocalcaemia, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia
> MI
> Myocarditis
> hypothermia
> SAH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Investigation for anastamotic leak

A

abdominal CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Classical findings in primary hyperparathyroidism

A

high serum calcium

low phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do thrombosed haemorrhoids present?

A

significant pain and tender lump

o/e: purplish, oedematous, tender subcutaenous perineal mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

management of thrombosed haemorrhoids

A

if patient presents within 72 hours then referral should be considered for excision. Otherwise patients can usually be managed with stool softeners, ice packs and analgesia. Symptoms usually settle within 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Action if one COCP is missed

A

take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day
no additional contraceptive protection needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Action if two COCP are missed

A

> take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills and then continue taking pills daily, one each day
the women should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row.

if pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7): emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1

if pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14): after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception*

if pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21): she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day; thus omitting the pill free interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

infusion rate in severe hypokalaemia

A

The infusion rate should not exceed 10mmol/hr.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Types of testicular cancer
Germ cell > seminoma > non-seminoma= embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma and choriocarcinoma Non-germ cell >leydig cell tumour >sarcoma
26
peak incidence for testicular teratomas and seminoma respectively
25 and 35
27
RF for testicular cancer
``` Infertility cryptoorchidism FHx kleinfelters mumps orchitis ```
28
management of testicular cancer
orchidectomy | chemotherapy and radiotherapy
29
seminomas have a _____ prognosis than teratomas
better
30
What can hyperparathyroidism cause
pseudogout | chondrocalcinosis
31
cause of hepatic encephalopathy
excess absorption of ammonia and glutamine from bacterial breakdown of protein in gut
32
Features of hepatic encephalopathy
> confusion, altered GCS (see below) > asterix: 'liver flap', arrhythmic negative myoclonus with a frequency of 3-5 Hz > constructional apraxia: inability to draw a 5-pointed star > triphasic slow waves on EEG > raised ammonia level (not commonly measured anymore)
33
Grading of hepatic encephalopathy
Grade I: irritability Grade II: confusion, inappropriate behaviour Grade III: incoherent, restless Grade IV: coma
34
Precipitating factors of hepatic encephalopathy
``` > infection e.g. spontaneous bacterial peritonitis > GI bleed >post transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt > constipation > drugs: sedatives, diuretics > hypokalaemia > renal failure > increased dietary protein (uncommon) ```
35
Management of hepatic encephalopathy
>Treat any underlying precipitating cause >NICE recommend lactulose first-line, with the addition of rifaximin for the secondary prophylaxis of hepatic encephalopathy lactulose is thought to work by promoting the excretion of ammonia and increasing the metabolism of ammonia by gut bacteria antibiotics such as rifaximin are thought to modulate the gut flora resulting in decreased ammonia production other options include embolisation of portosystemic shunts and liver transplantation in selected patients
36
Which murmur are IV drug users at risk for?
right sided cardiac valvular endocarditis
37
what makes aortic sclerosis more likely than aortic stenosis
if not radiating to carotids
38
how to prevent tumour lysis syndrome
giving allopurinol or rasburicase prior to chemo
39
what is TLS
related to the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. can occur with steroid treatment alone.
40
What happens in TLS
breakdown of the tumour cells and the subsequent release of chemicals from the cell high potassium and high phosphate level in the presence of a low calcium
41
when should TLS be suspected
any patient presenting with an acute kidney injury in the presence of a high phosphate and high uric acid level
42
Jittery + hypotonic baby
neonatal hypoglycaemia
43
Side effects of ciclosporin
everything is increased - fluid, BP, K+, hair, gums, glucose
44
When does functional tricuspid regurgitation occur?
2ry to pulmonary hypertension
45
Types of AF
first-detected episode recurrent episodes; paroxysmal or persistent permanent AF
46
For cardioversion of AF: patients must either be ...
anticoagulated or have had symptoms for < 48 hours to reduce the risk of stroke.
47
Investigating suspected PE, CTPA -ve
consider proximal leg vein USS
48
what is d-dimer used for?
exclude PE in patients with wells of 4 or less
49
Management of chickenpox exposure in pregnancy
check if mum has antibodies if < 20 weeks & she doesnt then give VZIG ASAP if > 20 weeks & she doesnt then give VZIG or antivirals if develops chickenpox give oral acivlovir if > 20 weeks
50
thyrotoxicosis with tender goitre
subacute (de quervains thyroiditis)
51
phases of de quervains thyroiditis
Phase 1 (3-6 weeks): hyperthyroidism, painful goitre, raised ESR Phase 2: (1-3 weeks) euthyroid Phase 3 (weeks-months): hypothyroid Phase 4: return to normal
52
What are Thiazolidinediones
PPAR-y agonists natural ligands are free fatty acids and it is thought to control adipocyte differentiation and function.
53
adverse effects of Thiazolidinediones (pioglitazone)
weight gain liver impairment fluid retention bladder cancer
54
maturation time for AV fistula
6-8 weeks
55
benefit of SGLT-2 inhibitors
empagliflozin weight loss
56
management of type 2 respiratory failure
BiPAP
57
medical therapy in exacerbation of COPD
>O2 to keep patient within the individualised target range >Nebulised bronchodilators >Steroid therapy >Antibiotics if indicated >Chest physiotherapy >Intravenous theophyllines would be considered if the response to nebulised bronchodilators is poor.
58
long term topical treatment for psoriasis
calcipotriol
59
patients with asthma who are not controlled with a SABA + ICS
add LTRA not LABA
60
macrocytic anaemia in presence of hyper-segmented neutrophil polymorphs
megaloblastic anaemia
61
signs of B12/folate deficiency
anaemia, glossitis, macrocytosis, hyper-segmented neutrophils
62
antibiotic for BV
metronidazole
63
antibiotic for human bite
co-amoxiclav
64
antibiotic for campylobacter
clarithromycin

Finals Revision (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions