Day 3

Question 1

What is Finkelstein’s test?

Answer 1

Hand should be deviated medially rapidly, if sharp pain occurs across distal radius- de quervain’s tenosynovitis is likely

Question 2

Diabetes mellitus- HbA1c of __ mmol/mol (___%) or greater is diagnostic

Answer 2

48

6.5

Question 3

What dose of statin is used as primary prevention against cardiovascular disease?

Answer 3

Atorvastatin 20mg

Question 4

What dose of statin is used as secondary prevention against cardiovascular disease?

Answer 4

Atorvastatin 80mg

Question 5

What is anticipation in trinucleotide repeat disorders?

Answer 5

Earlier onset in successive generations

Question 6

Liver + Neurological disease

Answer 6

Wilsons

Question 7

HIV seroconversion occurs from _-__ weeks

Answer 7

3-12 weeks

Question 8

When is elisa test recommended for confirmation of HIV -ve

Answer 8

3 months after exposure

Question 9

Features of acute severe asthma

Answer 9

• PEFR 33-50%
• inability to complete full sentences
• RR > 25/min
• Pulse >110bpm

Question 10

Management of chickenpox

Answer 10

Topical calamine lotion

Question 11

Contraindications to cochlear implant

Answer 11

• History of chronic infective otitis media
• lesions of cranial nerve VIII or in brain stem causing deafness
• cochlear aplasia

Question 12

In anaphylaxis how should adrenaline be delivered

Answer 12

Intramuscularly

Question 13

What is FSGS?

Answer 13

Cause of nephrotic syndrome and CKD
Hyalinosis on light microscopy
effacement of foot processes on electron microscopy

Question 14

Management of FSGS

Answer 14

Steroids +/- immunosuppressants

Question 15

Management of rabies exposure if not vaccinated

Answer 15

Immunoglobulin + vaccination

Question 16

Management of rabies exposure if vaccinated

Answer 16

give 2 further doses of vaccine

Question 17

What should be ruled out in dermatomyositis

Answer 17

Underlying malignancy

Question 18

Signs of HUS

Answer 18

• diarrhoea becomes bloody after 1-3 days
• haemolysis
• anaemia
• thrombocytopaenia
• raised LDH
• raised Urea
• raised creatinine

Question 19

Management of c-diff

Answer 19

mild= oral metronidazole 
severe = oral vancomycin 
life-threatening= oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole

Question 20

Management of PDA

Answer 20

Indomethacin in postnatal period

Question 21

What is required under 2 week wait referral for unresolving varicoceoele

Answer 21

renal tract ultrasound

Question 22

Features of limited systemic sclerosis

Answer 22

Calcinosis
Raynauds
Oesophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangectasia

Question 23

Meningitis in 6- 60 yrs

Answer 23

streptococcus pneumonia

Question 24

Most common complication of gonorrhoea

Answer 24

Infertility secondary to PID

Question 25

Salter harris I

Answer 25

Physis only (x-ray normal)

Question 26

Salter harris II

Answer 26

Fracture through physis and metaphysis

Question 27

Salter haris III

Answer 27

Fracture through the physis and epiphysis to include the joint

Question 28

Salter harris IV

Answer 28

Fracture involving physis, metaphysis and epiphysis

Question 29

Salter harris V

Answer 29

Crush injury involving the physis (x-ray may resemble type I and appear normal)

Question 30

Which UTI antibiotic should be avoided in 1st trimester?

Answer 30

Trimethoprim

Question 31

Management in acute exacerbation of COPD without purulent sputum

Answer 31

Oral prednisolone for 5 days

Question 32

Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis

Answer 32

Oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin

Question 33

Clues to hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar state

Answer 33

Hyperglycaemia with increased serum osmolarity and no ketosis

Question 34

What are focal seizures?

Answer 34

"parietal seizures"
start in a specific area
level of awareness can vary;
Focal aware or focal impaired awareness 
Motor= jacksonian march
non-motor= deja vu

Question 35

What are generalised seizures

Answer 35

Engage or involve networks on both sides of the brain at the onset
consciousness lost immediately
Motor= tonic clonic
Non-motor= absence

Question 36

What are focal to bilateral seizures

Answer 36

Starts on one side of the brain in a specific area and then spreads

Question 37

Pseudogout crystals

Answer 37

Weakly +ve bifringent crystals

Question 38

Recognised causes of pancreatitis

Answer 38

G allstones
E thanol
T rauma
S teroids
M umps
A utoimmune, ascaris venom
S corpion sting
H ypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, Hypercalcaemia, hypothermia
E RCP
D rugs (azathioprine, mesalazine, didanosine, bendroflumethiazide, furosemide, pentamidine, steroids, sodium valproate)

Question 39

Features of temporal lobe seizures

Answer 39

HEAD 
Hallucinations
Epigastric rising/emotional
Automatisms (lip smacking)
Deja vu

Question 40

Features of frontal lobe seizure

Answer 40

Head/leg movements, posturing, post-ictal weakness, jacksonion march

Question 41

Features of parietal lobe seizure (sensory)

Answer 41

Paraesthesia

Question 42

Features of occiptal lobe (visual)

Answer 42

Floaters/flashes

Question 43

Feature of bronchopulmonary asperillosis

Answer 43

Eosinophilia

Question 44

Chickenpox is at risk of which soft tissue infections

Answer 44

Invasive GAS

Question 45

Management of acute gout with peptic ulcer

Answer 45

NSAIDs containdicated if peptic ulcer

give colchicine

Question 46

What is hairy leukoplakia?

Answer 46

EBV-associated lesion on the side of the tongue, and is considered indicative of HIV

Question 47

What deficiency is caused by ileocaecal resection?

Answer 47

Vitamin B12

Question 48

Signs of acute tubular necrosis?

Answer 48

• worsening renal function

- muddy brown casts