Day 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Which antibiotics are most likely to cause pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Cephalosporins

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2
Q

Start IV fluid resuscitation in children or young people with a bolus of __ ml/kg over less than __ minutes

A

20

10

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3
Q

Features of organophosphate poisoning

A
SLUD
S- alivation
L- acrimation
U- rination
D- efecation/diarrhoea
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4
Q

Management of organophosphate poisoning

A

atropine

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5
Q

Haemarthrosis without trauma

A

haemophilia A and B

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6
Q

Features of roseola infantum

A
  • high grade fever which resolves before onset of rash
  • trunk and then spread to limbs
  • non-itchy maculopapular rash
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7
Q

What happens in sick euthyroid syndrome?

A

everything (TSH, thyroxine, and T3) is low

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8
Q

Situations where oxygen therapy should not be used routinely if no evidence of hypoxia

A
  • MI and ACS
  • stroke
  • obstetric emergencies
  • anxiety-related hyperventilation
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9
Q

ewings sarcoma

A

malignant tumour that occurs most frequently in the diaphysis of the pelvis and long bones- onion skin

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10
Q

chondrosarcoma

A

malignant tumour of cartilage, which most commonly affects the axial skeleton and not the diaphysis of long bones. This type of tumour is also more common in middle-age.

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11
Q

Giant cell tumour

A

This is a benign tumour of multinucleated giant cells which occurs most frequently in the epiphyses of long bones and shows a ‘double-bubble’ or ‘soap bubble’ appearance on x-ray. more commonly seen in patients aged 20-40 years old.

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12
Q

Osteochondroma

A

most common benign bone tumour and while it is most in males aged under 20 years old, it often presents with cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone

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13
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

This is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and while it also is seen mainly in children and adolescents, it occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. It also shows a ‘sunburst’ pattern on x-ray and is most commonly associated with mutations in the retinoblastoma gene (and hence retinoblastoma tumours).

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14
Q

What to do if alendronate cannot be tolerated

A

change to risedronate or etridronate

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15
Q

Management of myasthenic crisis

A

intravenous immunoglobulin, plasma electrophoresis

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16
Q

induce remission of Crohn’s disease

A

Glucocorticoids (oral, topical or intravenous)

17
Q

mpaired hypoglycaemia awareness occurs due to

A

neuropathy of parts of the autonomous nervous system

18
Q

Management of ascites

A
  • reducing dietary sodium
  • fluid restriction sometimes if sodium <125mmol/L
  • aldosterone antagonists- spironolactone
  • drainage
  • prophylactic antibiotics 15g/L or less
  • TIPS
19
Q

Peptic ulceration, galactorrhoea, hypercalcaemia

A

MEN I

20
Q

investigation for leptospira

A

serology- +ve after 7 days
PCR
culture

21
Q

management of leptospirosis

A

high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline

22
Q

Features of fragile X

A
Features in males
> learning difficulties
> large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate
> macroorchidism
> hypotonia
> autism is more common
> mitral valve prolapse
23
Q

STEMI management: for patients undergoing PCI, following dual antiplatelet therapy, patients are also given …..

A

unfractionated heparin with bailout glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor (GPI) if radial access used

24
Q

Most common site of diverticula

A

sigmoid colon

25
Q

After the first VTE, patients with antiphospholipid syndrome should be on ….

A

lifelong warfarin

26
Q

hyperpigmentation of the palmar creases

A

addisons

27
Q

Nicorandil is most useful in the management of:

A

angina