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Finals Revision > Day 4 > Flashcards

Day 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Antibodies in drug induced lupus

A

Anti-histone

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2
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis antibodies

A

Anti-smooth muscle antibodies

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3
Q

Marker of necrosis

A

Lactate dehydrogenase

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4
Q

Wegener’s granulomatosis autoantibodies

A

cANCA

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5
Q

Features of drug induced lupus

A 
>arthralgia
>myalgia
>malar rash
>pleurisy
>ANA positive 
>dsDNA negative
>anti-histone antibodies in 80-90%
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6
Q

Most common causes of drug induced lupus

A

Procainamide

Hydralazine

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7
Q

Less common drug causes of drug induced lupus

A

Isoniazid
Minocycline
Phenytoin

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8
Q

What is plagiocephaly

A

Parallellogram shaped head

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9
Q

What is craniosynostosis

A

Premature fusion of skull bones

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10
Q

What will autoimmune hepatitis show in LFTs

A

raised ALT/AST on LFTs

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11
Q

Antimitochondrial antibody

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

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12
Q

Types of autoimmune hepatitis

A

Type 1

  • ANA and/or SMA
  • children and adults

Type 2

  • anti-liver/kidney microsomal type 1
  • children only

Type 3

  • soluble liver-kidney antigen
  • affects adults in middle-age
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13
Q

Management of autoimmune hepatitis

A

Steroids, immunosuppressants e.g. azathioprine

Liver transplantation

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14
Q

URTI symptoms + amoxicillin -> rash

A

Glandular fever

(EBV)

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15
Q

Haemorrhage 5-10 days after tonsilectomy

A

Wound infection, IV antibiotics

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16
Q

Worsening flu like symptoms + dry cough + erythema multiforme

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

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17
Q

left homonymous hemianopia with some macula sparing

A

right occipital cortex

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18
Q

family history of early blindness is concerned that he is developing ‘tunnel vision’

A

retina

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19
Q

A 3-year-old boy is referred to the clinic with a scrotal swelling. On examination the mass does not transilluminate and it is impossible to palpate normal cord above it.

A

indirect inguinal hernia

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20
Q

Use of 0.9% Sodium Chloride for fluid therapy in patients requiring large volumes

A

hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

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21
Q

Risk factors for graft versus host disease

A
  1. volume and age of transfused blood
  2. depressed immune function. E.G. hodgkin
  3. similar HLA haplotype sharing
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22
Q

adult patients with hydrocele management

A

ultrasound

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23
Q

treatment of primary herpes infections

A

oral antiviral therapy

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24
Q

Area most affected in ischaemic colitis

A

splenic flexure

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25
What age of child have similar vital signs to an adult
children over 12
26
Diagnosis of chlamydia
nucleic acid amplification tests on first-catch urine sample
27
side effect of metformin
diarrhoea
28
side effect of pioglitazone
worsening of HF
29
side effect of gliclazide
hypoglycaemia
30
Management of asthma attack
nebulised salbutamol, nebulised ipatroprium bromide, oral prednisolone
31
Features of ramsay hunt syndrome
``` auricular pain facial nerve palsy vesicular rash around ear vertigo tinnitus ```
32
management of ramsay hunt syndrome
oral aciclovir and corticosteroids
33
ptosis + dilated pupil
third nerve palsy
34
ptosis + constricted pupil
horners
35
Presentation of IgA nephropathy
Visible haematuria following recent URTI
36
When does post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis occur?
7-14 days after URTI
37
Features of Wilm's tumour
``` abdominal mass painless haematuria flank pain anorexia, fever unilateral metastasis (20%, lung common) ```
38
inheritance of HOCM
autosomal dominant
39
Common causes of urticaria
- penicillins - NSAIDs - opiates
40
marfan's mutation
fibrillin-1
41
malignancy + raised CK
polymyositis
42
Acne rosacea treatment
``` mild/moderate = topical metronidazole severe/resistant = oral tetracycline ```
43
CA 19-9
pancreatic cancer
44
CA 125
ovarian cancer
45
CA 15-3
breast cancer
46
PSA
prostatic carcinoma
47
AFP
hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
48
CEA
colorectal cancer
49
s-100
melanoma, schwnanomas
50
bombesin
SCLC, gastric cancer, neuroblastoma
51
what is associated with arnold-chiari malformation?
syringomyelia
52
Drugs worsening glucose tolerance
Thiazides
53
Aspirin MOA
non reversible COX 1 and COX 2
54
Management of TTN
observation and supportive care
55
INR target venous thromboembolism
target INR = 2.5 , if recurrent 3.5
56
INR atrial fibrillation
2.5
57
black hairy tongue cause
tetracyclines
58
schistosoma risk
SCC of bladder
59
Primary sclerosing cholangitis is most associated with
Ulcerative colitis
60
intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy management
increases risk of stillbirth induction of labour at 37-38 weeks ursodeoxycholic acid vitamin K supplementation
61
1st line for hypertension in diabetics
ACE inhibitors
62
red flags in chronic rhinosinusitis
- unilateral - persistent treatments despite compliance with 3 months of treatment - epistaxis
63
anticoagulation in heparin induced thrombocytopenia
direct thrombin inhibitor e.g. argatroban
64
Spasticity in MS
1st Baclofen/gabapentin | 2nd diazepam
65
Antibiotic causing idiopathic intracranial hypertension
tetracyclines- doxycycline
66
where does bendroflumethiazide act?
proximal part of distal convoluted tubule- Na-Cl
67
charcots triad
ascending cholangitis- fever, jaundice, RUQ pain
68
what does TB cause?
upper zone fibrosis
69
factors exacerbating psoriasis
trauma alcohol drugs: (BLANAI) beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxycholoquine), NSAIDS, ACE, infliximab withdrawal of systemic steroids
70
Management strategy for AF
Offer rate control as the first‑line strategy to people with atrial fibrillation, except in people whose atrial fibrillation has a reversible cause
71
Management of AF with reversible cause
treat underlying cause | rhythm control
72
Migraine triggers
``` CHOCOLATE > chocolate > hangovers > orgasms > cheese/caffeine > oral contraceptives > lie-ins > alcohol > travel > exercise ```
73
Management of intertrochanteric hip fracture
dynamic hip screws
74
U waves
hypokalaemia
75
Management of whooping cough
azithromycin or clarithromycin
76
dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulnar fracture
monteggia fracture Monteggia ulna (Manchester United)
77
fracture of the distal radius with an associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint
galeazzi Galeazzi radius (Galaxy rangers)
78
distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement.
colles
79
distal radius fracture with volar displacement.
smiths
80
fracture of the base of the first metacarpal, that extends into the carpometacarpal joint.
bennetts
81
Management of threadworms
> CKS recommend a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household >mebendazole is used first-line for children > 6 months old. A single dose is given unless infestation persists
82
What does schobers test <5cm suggest
ankylosing spondylitis
83
first line investigation for stable chest pain of suspected coronary artery disease aetiology
Contrast-enhanced CT coronary angiogram
84
Beta blockers have what impact on diabetics
disguise hypoglycaemia awareness
85
Signs of ecstasy poisoning
``` >neurological: agitation, anxiety, confusion, ataxia >cardiovascular: tachycardia >hypertension >hyponatraemia >hyperthermia >rhabdomyolysis ```
86
Management of life threatening risk in ICP
IV mannitol/frusemide
87
Patients with an uncertain tetanus vaccination history should be given .....
a booster vaccine + immunoglobulin, unless the wound is very minor and < 6 hours old
88
What is a sinusoidal ECG pattern
severe hyperkalaemia
89
Features of bells palsy
>lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy - forehead affected* | >patients may also notice post-auricular pain (may precede paralysis), altered taste, dry eyes, hyperacusis
90
What do SGLT2 inhibitors increase the chance of
UTI
91
Lithium use in pregnancy
ebstein's anomaly- posterior leaflets of tricuspid valve are displaced anteriorly towards the apex of the right ventricle
92
Routine monitoring of azathioprine
FBC | LFT
93
Cyanotic congenital heart disease presenting at 1-2 months of age is ___
TOF
94
Cyanotic congenital heart disease presenting within the first days of life is ___.
TGA
95
What are those with turners more at risk of?
x-linked conditions
96
Features of duodenal atresia
high volume vomits which may or may not be bile stained. Abdominal distension is characteristically absent. Whilst under resuscitated children may be a little dehydrated they are seldom severely ill.
97
Target saturations in COPD are _____% if CO2 is normal on ABG
94-98
98
inducers of P450
- antiepileptics: phenytoin, carbamazepine - barbiturates: phenobarbitone - rifampicin - St John's Wort - chronic alcohol intake - griseofulvin - smoking (affects CYP1A2, reason why smokers require more aminophylline)
99
inhibitors of P450
``` >antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, erythromycin > isoniazid > cimetidine,omeprazole > amiodarone > allopurinol > imidazoles: ketoconazole, fluconazole > SSRIs: fluoxetine, sertraline ritonavir > sodium valproate > acute alcohol intake > quinupristin ```
100
hypocalcaemia, renal failure, high total protein
myeloma
101
Alpha-_ _______ promote relaxation of the smooth muscle of the prostate and the bladder to reduce LUTS
Alpha-1 antagonists promote relaxation of the smooth muscle of the prostate and the bladder to reduce LUTS
102
sudden visual loss in diabetics
vitreous haemorrhage
103
Patients cannot drive for _____ following a first unprovoked or isolated seizure if brain imaging and EEG normal
6 months
104
Women with pyrexia >38 degrees during labour should get ....
benzylpenicillin as GBS prophylaxis
105
Head injury, lucid interval -
extradural (epidural) haematoma
106
midazolam reversal
flumazenil
107
an anaesthetic agent which has anti emetic properties
propofol
108
What is zero-order kinetics
metabolism which is independent of the concentration of the reactant This is due to metabolic pathways becoming saturated resulting in a constant amount of drug being eliminated per unit time.
109
drugs exhibiting zero order kinetics
>phenytoin >salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin) >heparin >ethanol
110
Gaze in infants with hydrocephalus
impaired upward gaze
111
Treatment of toxoplasmosis
No treatment is usually required unless the patient has a severe infection or is immunosuppressed. Immunocompromised patients with toxoplasmosis are treated with pyrimethamine plus sulphadiazine
112
What is chlorthalidone
Thiazide
113
Manaagement of HF
1st. ACE-inhibitor and beta-blocker 2nd aldosterone 3rd ivabridine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin and cardiac resynch
114
An increase in serum creatinine up to __% from baseline is acceptable when initiating ACE inhibitor treatment
30
115
bleeding gums deficiency
Vit C
116
diarrhoea, confusion and eczematous skin deficiency
niacin
117
osteomalacia deficiency
vitamin D
118
An ? should be used first-line for black TD2M patients who are diagnosed with hypertension
angiotensin II receptor blocker
119
flu-like symptoms, RUQ pain, tender hepatomegaly and cholestatic LFTs
hepatitis A
120
side effect of thiazide-like diuretics
indapamide
121
Behcet's syndrome is associated with which skin lesion
erythema nodosum
122
management of infant hydrocoeles
generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years

Finals Revision (29 decks)

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