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Finals Revision > Day 4 > Flashcards

Day 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Antibodies in drug induced lupus

A

Anti-histone

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2
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis antibodies

A

Anti-smooth muscle antibodies

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3
Q

Marker of necrosis

A

Lactate dehydrogenase

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4
Q

Wegener’s granulomatosis autoantibodies

A

cANCA

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5
Q

Features of drug induced lupus

A 
>arthralgia
>myalgia
>malar rash
>pleurisy
>ANA positive 
>dsDNA negative
>anti-histone antibodies in 80-90%
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6
Q

Most common causes of drug induced lupus

A

Procainamide

Hydralazine

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7
Q

Less common drug causes of drug induced lupus

A

Isoniazid
Minocycline
Phenytoin

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8
Q

What is plagiocephaly

A

Parallellogram shaped head

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9
Q

What is craniosynostosis

A

Premature fusion of skull bones

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10
Q

What will autoimmune hepatitis show in LFTs

A

raised ALT/AST on LFTs

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11
Q

Antimitochondrial antibody

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

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12
Q

Types of autoimmune hepatitis

A

Type 1

  • ANA and/or SMA
  • children and adults

Type 2

  • anti-liver/kidney microsomal type 1
  • children only

Type 3

  • soluble liver-kidney antigen
  • affects adults in middle-age
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13
Q

Management of autoimmune hepatitis

A

Steroids, immunosuppressants e.g. azathioprine

Liver transplantation

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14
Q

URTI symptoms + amoxicillin -> rash

A

Glandular fever

(EBV)

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15
Q

Haemorrhage 5-10 days after tonsilectomy

A

Wound infection, IV antibiotics

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16
Q

Worsening flu like symptoms + dry cough + erythema multiforme

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

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17
Q

left homonymous hemianopia with some macula sparing

A

right occipital cortex

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18
Q

family history of early blindness is concerned that he is developing ‘tunnel vision’

A

retina

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19
Q

A 3-year-old boy is referred to the clinic with a scrotal swelling. On examination the mass does not transilluminate and it is impossible to palpate normal cord above it.

A

indirect inguinal hernia

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20
Q

Use of 0.9% Sodium Chloride for fluid therapy in patients requiring large volumes

A

hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

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21
Q

Risk factors for graft versus host disease

A
  1. volume and age of transfused blood
  2. depressed immune function. E.G. hodgkin
  3. similar HLA haplotype sharing
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22
Q

adult patients with hydrocele management

A

ultrasound

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23
Q

treatment of primary herpes infections

A

oral antiviral therapy

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24
Q

Area most affected in ischaemic colitis

A

splenic flexure

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25
Q

What age of child have similar vital signs to an adult

A

children over 12

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26
Q

Diagnosis of chlamydia

A

nucleic acid amplification tests on first-catch urine sample

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27
Q

side effect of metformin

A

diarrhoea

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28
Q

side effect of pioglitazone

A

worsening of HF

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29
Q

side effect of gliclazide

A

hypoglycaemia

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30
Q

Management of asthma attack

A

nebulised salbutamol, nebulised ipatroprium bromide, oral prednisolone

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31
Q

Features of ramsay hunt syndrome

A 
auricular pain 
facial nerve palsy
vesicular rash around ear
vertigo
tinnitus
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32
Q

management of ramsay hunt syndrome

A

oral aciclovir and corticosteroids

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33
Q

ptosis + dilated pupil

A

third nerve palsy

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34
Q

ptosis + constricted pupil

A

horners

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35
Q

Presentation of IgA nephropathy

A

Visible haematuria following recent URTI

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36
Q

When does post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis occur?

A

7-14 days after URTI

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37
Q

Features of Wilm’s tumour

A 
abdominal mass
painless haematuria
flank pain
anorexia, fever
unilateral
metastasis (20%, lung common)
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38
Q

inheritance of HOCM

A

autosomal dominant

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39
Q

Common causes of urticaria

A
  • penicillins
  • NSAIDs
  • opiates
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40
Q

marfan’s mutation

A

fibrillin-1

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41
Q

malignancy + raised CK

A

polymyositis

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42
Q

Acne rosacea treatment

A 
mild/moderate = topical metronidazole
severe/resistant = oral tetracycline
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43
Q

CA 19-9

A

pancreatic cancer

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44
Q

CA 125

A

ovarian cancer

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45
Q

CA 15-3

A

breast cancer

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46
Q

PSA

A

prostatic carcinoma

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47
Q

AFP

A

hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma

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48
Q

CEA

A

colorectal cancer

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49
Q

s-100

A

melanoma, schwnanomas

50
Q

bombesin

A

SCLC, gastric cancer, neuroblastoma

51
Q

what is associated with arnold-chiari malformation?

A

syringomyelia

52
Q

Drugs worsening glucose tolerance

A

Thiazides

53
Q

Aspirin MOA

A

non reversible COX 1 and COX 2

54
Q

Management of TTN

A

observation and supportive care

55
Q

INR target venous thromboembolism

A

target INR = 2.5 , if recurrent 3.5

56
Q

INR atrial fibrillation

A

2.5

57
Q

black hairy tongue cause

A

tetracyclines

58
Q

schistosoma risk

A

SCC of bladder

59
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis is most associated with

A

Ulcerative colitis

60
Q

intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy management

A

increases risk of stillbirth
induction of labour at 37-38 weeks
ursodeoxycholic acid
vitamin K supplementation

61
Q

1st line for hypertension in diabetics

A

ACE inhibitors

62
Q

red flags in chronic rhinosinusitis

A
  • unilateral
  • persistent treatments despite compliance with 3 months of treatment
  • epistaxis
63
Q

anticoagulation in heparin induced thrombocytopenia

A

direct thrombin inhibitor e.g. argatroban

64
Q

Spasticity in MS

A

1st Baclofen/gabapentin

2nd diazepam

65
Q

Antibiotic causing idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A

tetracyclines- doxycycline

66
Q

where does bendroflumethiazide act?

A

proximal part of distal convoluted tubule- Na-Cl

67
Q

charcots triad

A

ascending cholangitis- fever, jaundice, RUQ pain

68
Q

what does TB cause?

A

upper zone fibrosis

69
Q

factors exacerbating psoriasis

A

trauma
alcohol
drugs: (BLANAI) beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxycholoquine), NSAIDS, ACE, infliximab
withdrawal of systemic steroids

70
Q

Management strategy for AF

A

Offer rate control as the first‑line strategy to people with atrial fibrillation, except in people whose atrial fibrillation has a reversible cause

71
Q

Management of AF with reversible cause

A

treat underlying cause

rhythm control

72
Q

Migraine triggers

A 
CHOCOLATE
> chocolate
> hangovers
> orgasms
> cheese/caffeine
> oral contraceptives
> lie-ins
> alcohol
> travel
> exercise
73
Q

Management of intertrochanteric hip fracture

A

dynamic hip screws

74
Q

U waves

A

hypokalaemia

75
Q

Management of whooping cough

A

azithromycin or clarithromycin

76
Q

dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulnar fracture

A

monteggia fracture

Monteggia ulna (Manchester United)

77
Q

fracture of the distal radius with an associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint

A

galeazzi

Galeazzi radius (Galaxy rangers)

78
Q

distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement.

A

colles

79
Q

distal radius fracture with volar displacement.

A

smiths

80
Q

fracture of the base of the first metacarpal, that extends into the carpometacarpal joint.

A

bennetts

81
Q

Management of threadworms

A

> CKS recommend a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household
mebendazole is used first-line for children > 6 months old. A single dose is given unless infestation persists

82
Q

What does schobers test <5cm suggest

A

ankylosing spondylitis

83
Q

first line investigation for stable chest pain of suspected coronary artery disease aetiology

A

Contrast-enhanced CT coronary angiogram

84
Q

Beta blockers have what impact on diabetics

A

disguise hypoglycaemia awareness

85
Q

Signs of ecstasy poisoning

A 
>neurological: agitation, anxiety, confusion, ataxia
>cardiovascular: tachycardia
>hypertension
>hyponatraemia
>hyperthermia
>rhabdomyolysis
86
Q

Management of life threatening risk in ICP

A

IV mannitol/frusemide

87
Q

Patients with an uncertain tetanus vaccination history should be given …..

A

a booster vaccine + immunoglobulin, unless the wound is very minor and < 6 hours old

88
Q

What is a sinusoidal ECG pattern

A

severe hyperkalaemia

89
Q

Features of bells palsy

A

> lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy - forehead affected*

>patients may also notice post-auricular pain (may precede paralysis), altered taste, dry eyes, hyperacusis

90
Q

What do SGLT2 inhibitors increase the chance of

A

UTI

91
Q

Lithium use in pregnancy

A

ebstein’s anomaly- posterior leaflets of tricuspid valve are displaced anteriorly towards the apex of the right ventricle

92
Q

Routine monitoring of azathioprine

A

FBC

LFT

93
Q

Cyanotic congenital heart disease presenting at 1-2 months of age is ___

A

TOF

94
Q

Cyanotic congenital heart disease presenting within the first days of life is ___.

A

TGA

95
Q

What are those with turners more at risk of?

A

x-linked conditions

96
Q

Features of duodenal atresia

A

high volume vomits which may or may not be bile stained. Abdominal distension is characteristically absent. Whilst under resuscitated children may be a little dehydrated they are seldom severely ill.

97
Q

Target saturations in COPD are _____% if CO2 is normal on ABG

A

94-98

98
Q

inducers of P450

A
  • antiepileptics: phenytoin, carbamazepine
  • barbiturates: phenobarbitone
  • rifampicin
  • St John’s Wort
  • chronic alcohol intake
  • griseofulvin
  • smoking (affects CYP1A2, reason why smokers require more aminophylline)
99
Q

inhibitors of P450

A 
>antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, erythromycin
> isoniazid
> cimetidine,omeprazole
> amiodarone
> allopurinol
> imidazoles: ketoconazole, fluconazole
> SSRIs: fluoxetine, sertraline
ritonavir
> sodium valproate
> acute alcohol intake
> quinupristin
100
Q

hypocalcaemia, renal failure, high total protein

A

myeloma

101
Q

Alpha-_ _______ promote relaxation of the smooth muscle of the prostate and the bladder to reduce LUTS

A

Alpha-1 antagonists promote relaxation of the smooth muscle of the prostate and the bladder to reduce LUTS

102
Q

sudden visual loss in diabetics

A

vitreous haemorrhage

103
Q

Patients cannot drive for _____ following a first unprovoked or isolated seizure if brain imaging and EEG normal

A

6 months

104
Q

Women with pyrexia >38 degrees during labour should get ….

A

benzylpenicillin as GBS prophylaxis

105
Q

Head injury, lucid interval -

A

extradural (epidural) haematoma

106
Q

midazolam reversal

A

flumazenil

107
Q

an anaesthetic agent which has anti emetic properties

A

propofol

108
Q

What is zero-order kinetics

A

metabolism which is independent of the concentration of the reactant

This is due to metabolic pathways becoming saturated resulting in a constant amount of drug being eliminated per unit time.

109
Q

drugs exhibiting zero order kinetics

A

> phenytoin
salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin)
heparin
ethanol

110
Q

Gaze in infants with hydrocephalus

A

impaired upward gaze

111
Q

Treatment of toxoplasmosis

A

No treatment is usually required unless the patient has a severe infection or is immunosuppressed.

Immunocompromised patients with toxoplasmosis are treated with pyrimethamine plus sulphadiazine

112
Q

What is chlorthalidone

A

Thiazide

113
Q

Manaagement of HF

A

1st. ACE-inhibitor and beta-blocker

2nd aldosterone

3rd ivabridine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin and cardiac resynch

114
Q

An increase in serum creatinine up to __% from baseline is acceptable when initiating ACE inhibitor treatment

A

30

115
Q

bleeding gums deficiency

A

Vit C

116
Q

diarrhoea, confusion and eczematous skin deficiency

A

niacin

117
Q

osteomalacia deficiency

A

vitamin D

118
Q

An ? should be used first-line for black TD2M patients who are diagnosed with hypertension

A

angiotensin II receptor blocker

119
Q

flu-like symptoms, RUQ pain, tender hepatomegaly and cholestatic LFTs

A

hepatitis A

120
Q

side effect of thiazide-like diuretics

A

indapamide

121
Q

Behcet’s syndrome is associated with which skin lesion

A

erythema nodosum

122
Q

management of infant hydrocoeles

A

generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years

Finals Revision (29 decks)

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