26/05 Flashcards

1
Q

Widened QRS or arrhythmia in tricyclic overdose

A

give IV bicarbonate

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2
Q

management of tricyclic overdose

A

Consider gastric lavage only if within one hour of a potentially fatal overdose.

Give 50 grams of charcoal if within one hour of ingestion.

Give sodium bicarbonate (50 ml of 8.4%) if:

  • pH <7.1
  • QRS >160 ms
  • Arrhythmias
  • Hypotension
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3
Q

bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

A

tuberculosis

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4
Q

Progressively worsening headache with higher cognitive function impaired

A

urgent imaging

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5
Q

headache red flags

A
  • immunocompromise
  • under 20 with history of malingnacy
  • brain mets
  • vomiting
  • worsening headache +fever
  • sudden onset
  • new onset neuro deficit
  • now onset cognitive dysfunction
  • change in personality
  • impaired consciousness
  • head trauma (3/12)
  • obvious pressure trigger
  • changes with posture
  • symptoms of GCA or glaucoma
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6
Q

pharmacological cardioversion for new onset a-fib

A

> flecainide or amiodarone if there is no evidence of structural or ischaemic heart disease

OR

> amiodarone if there is evidence of structural heart disease.’

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7
Q

side effects of standard heparin

A

Bleeding
Heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia (HIT)
Osteoporosis

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8
Q

side effects of LMWH

A

> Bleeding

> Lower risk of HIT and osteoporosis with LMWH

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9
Q

monitoring of LMWH

A

Anti-Factor Xa (although routine monitoring is not required)

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10
Q

monitoring of standard heparin

A

Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)

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11
Q

heparin overdose

A

protamine sulphate

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12
Q

massive PE + hypotension

A

thrombolyse - alteplase

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13
Q

persistent pyrexia of unknown origin, lymphadenopathy and high WCC

A

lymphoma

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14
Q

causes of PUO

A

neoplasia

  • lymphoma
  • hypernephroma
  • preleukaemia
  • atrial myxoma

Infections

  • abscess
  • TB

connective tissue disorders

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15
Q

how do SGLT2 inhibitors work?

A

in renal proximal tubule- inhibit sodium-glucose co=transporter to reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion

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16
Q

examples of SGLT2 inhibitors

A

canagliflozin
dapaglflozin
empagliflozin

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17
Q

flashers + floaters

A

posterior vitreous detachment

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18
Q

features of lambert eaton

A

> repeated muscle contractions lead to increased muscle strength (in contrast to myasthenia gravis)

> limb-girdle weakness (affects lower limbs first)

> hyporeflexia

> autonomic symptoms: dry mouth, impotence, difficulty micturating

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19
Q

how to differentiate between pseudogout and gout on x-ray

A

chondrocalcinosis

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20
Q

acute hypophosphataemia

A

mild (∼0.64–0.80 mmol/L), moderate (∼0.32–0.64 mmol/L)

severe (<0.32 mmol/L).

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21
Q

acute hypophosphataemia management

A

mild/mod= effervescent tabs

severe/symptomatic= phosphate polyfusor IV

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22
Q

patients on warfarin undergoing emergency surgery

A

> If surgery can wait for 6-8 hours - give 5 mg vitamin K IV

> If surgery can’t wait - 25-50 units/kg four-factor prothrombin complex

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23
Q

digoxin toxicity signs

A

> generally unwell, lethargy, nausea & vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision
arrhythmias (e.g. AV block, bradycardia)
gynaecomastia

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24
Q

management of digoxin toxicity

A
  • Digibind
  • correct arrhythmias
  • monitor potassium
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25
chancroid cause
Haemophilus ducreyi
26
people aged 60 and over with hypercalcaemia or leukopenia and a presentation that is consistent with possible myeloma.
> very urgent protein electrophoresis and a Bence Jones protein urine test (within 48 hours) to assess for myeloma
27
features of myeloma
> bone disease: bone pain, osteoporosis + pathological fractures (typically vertebral), osteolytic lesions >lethargy >infection > hypercalcaemia >renal failure other features: amyloidosis e.g. Macroglossia, carpal tunnel syndrome; neuropathy; hyperviscosity
28
investigations in myeloma
> monoclonal proteins (usually IgG or IgA) in the serum and urine (Bence Jones proteins) > increased plasma cells in the bone marrow > whole-body MRI > X-rays: 'rain-drop skull' (likened to the pattern rain forms after hitting a surface and splashing, where it leaves a random pattern of dark spots). Note that a very similar, but subtly different finding is found in primary hyperparathyroidism - 'pepperpot skull'
29
diagnostic criteria for myeloma
one major and one minor OR three minor Major criteria; > Plasmacytoma (as demonstrated on evaluation of biopsy specimen) > 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample > Elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine Minor criteria; > 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample. > Minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine. > Osteolytic lesions (as demonstrated on imaging studies). > Low levels of antibodies (not produced by the cancer cells) in the blood.
30
why is there hypercalcaemia in myeloma?
1ry- increased osteoclastic bone resorption other- impaired renal function, increased renal tubular calcium reabsorption and elevated PTH-rP levels
31
management of hypercalcaemia
> rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres/day. Following rehydration bisphosphonates may be used. They typically take 2-3 days to work with maximal effect being seen at 7 days calcitonin - quicker effect than bisphosphonates steroids in sarcoidosis
32
presentation of hep A
flu-like symptoms, RUQ pain, tender hepatomegaly and cholestatic LFTs
33
incubation of hep A
2-4 weeks
34
spread of hep A
Faecal-oral
35
who should get hep A vaccine
- going to endemic areas - chronic liver disease - haemophilia - MSM - IVDU - occupational risk
36
what is NHL
lymphoma without reed stenberg cells
37
what cells are affected in NHL
B or T cells
38
NHL is ____ common than HL
NHL is much more common than HL
39
burkitts lymphoma
starry sky appearance
40
most common type of NHL
diffuse large b cell lymphoma
41
who is affected by burkitts lymphoma?
young or immunosuppressed
42
management of PR bleeds
if haemodynamically stable- supportive
43
common peroneal nerve lesion
> foot drop > weakness of foot dorsiflexion > weakness of foot eversion > weakness of extensor hallucis longus > sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg > wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles
44
management of haemothorax
> Patients should all have a wide bore 36F chest drain. > Indications for thoracotomy include; - loss of more than 1.5L blood initially or - ongoing losses of >200ml per hour for >2 hours.
45
untreated hyponatraemia
cerebral oedema
46
management of acute hyponatraemia with severe symptoms
hypertonic saline (3% NaCl)
47
diagnostic features of kawasaki
fever >5d with 4 of the following criteria: A) Conjunctival injection B) Mucous membrane changes (dry cracked lips, strawberry tongue) C) Cervical lymphadenopathy D) Polymorphous rash E) Red and oedematous palms/soles, peeling of fingers and toes.
48
what is the ciliary ganglion
parasympathetic ganglion of the eye
49
anisocoria worse in bright light
inability of pupil to constrict | parasympathetic = constriction therefore problem with parasympathetic merves
50
fragile x testes
big testes
51
most common form of prostate cancer
adenocarcinoma
52
1st line for maintenance remission in chrons
azathioprine or mercatopurine
53
management of red man syndrome
> cessation of the infusion, and when symptoms have resolved, recommencement at a slower rate. > In patients who are more symptomatic antihistamines can be administered, and may require intravenous fluids if the syndrome is associated with hypotension.
54
immunisations at birth
BCG if risk factors | -Tuberculosis in the family in the past 6 months
55
2 months vaccines
> 6-1 vaccine (diptheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hep B) > oral rotavirus > men B
56
3 months vaccine
> 6-1 vaccine > oral rotavirus > PCV
57
4 months vaccine
> 6-1 vaccine | > Men B
58
12-13 months vaccine
> Hib/MenC > MMR > PCV > Men B
59
2-8 years vaccine
flu vaccine (annual)
60
3-4 vaccine
4 in 1 pre-school booster (diptheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio) MMR
61
12-13 years vaccine
HPV
62
13-18 years vaccine
3 in 1 teenage booster (tetanus, diptheria and polio) Men ACWY
63
scintigraphy reveals patchy uptake
toxic multinodular goitre
64
investigation of SUFE
hip x-ray
65
investigation of breech neonates
ultrasound
66
painful limp (perthes) investigation
mri
67
normal pCO2 in acute severe asthma
life-threatening
68
negative result on spirometry for asthma
refer for fractional exhaled nitric oxide testing
69
discharge and vaginal pH <4.5
candidiasis
70
AKI criteria
> increased creatinine (>26 umol/L in 48hrs) > increased creatinine >50% in 7 days > decreased urine output of <0.5ml/kg/hr for more than 6 hours
71
oesophageal cancer in GORDo
oesophageal adenocarcinoma
72
Bell's palsy is a _____ motor neuron condition. Unlike ___ conditions of the face, in ____ conditions the entire side of the patients face is affected
Bell's palsy is a lower motor neuron condition. Unlike UMN conditions of the face, in LMN conditions the entire side of the patients face is affected
73
maintenance fluid calculation in children
100ml/kg for the first 10kg, 50ml/kg for the next 10kg and 20ml/kg for every subsequent kg.
74
side effects of SERM
Tamoxifen > menstrual disturbance: vaginal bleeding, amenorrhoea > hot flushes - 3% of patients stop taking tamoxifen due to climacteric side-effects > venous thromboembolism > endometrial cancer
75
side effects of aromatase inhibitors
Anastrozole and letrozole ``` > osteoporosis NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer > hot flushes >arthralgia, myalgia >insomnia ```
76
A 2-week-old infant with a small chin, posterior displacement of the tongue and cleft palate
pierre-robin syndrome
77
Supravalvular aortic stenosis is found in a 3-year-old boy with learning difficulties
william's syndrome
78
A 9-week-old is noted to have a small chin and rocker-bottom feet
edward's syndrome
79
rocker-bottom feet without small chin
patau's
80
investigation for PSC
ERCP/MRCP
81
marfans mutation
fibrillin-1
82
Acute viral labrynthitis
sudden onset horizontal nystagmus, hearing disturbances, nausea, vomiting and vertigo
83
In acute testicular pain, a unilateral swollen and retracted testicle, with loss of the cremasteric reflex, is characteristic of...
testicular torsion
84
Gestational diabetes: if the fasting plasma glucose is < 7 mmol/l a .....
trial of diet and exercise should be offered for 1-2 weeks
85
most common type of breast cancer
invasive ductal carcinoma
86
ank spon x-ray findings
subchondral erosions, sclerosis | and squaring of lumbar vertebrae
87
Globus, hoarseness and no red flags
laryngopharyngeal reflux
88
bilateral grittiness
blepharitis
89
Complete heart block following a MI?
right coronary artery lesion
90
In suspected SBP- diagnosis ....
is by paracentesis. Confirmed by neutrophil count >250 cells/ul
91
carpal tunnel vs C6 entrapment
More proximal symptoms would be expected with a C6 entrapment neuropathy e.g. weakness of the biceps muscle or reduced biceps reflex.
92
Pepperpot skull
hyperparathyroidism
93
type I hypersensitivity
- Antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells • > Anaphylaxis > Atopy (e.g. asthma, eczema and hayfever)
94
type II hypersensitivity
IgG or IgM binds to antigen on cell surface - Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia - ITP - Goodpasture's syndrome - Pernicious anaemia - Acute haemolytic transfusion reactions - Rheumatic fever - Pemphigus vulgaris / bullous pemphigoid
95
Type III hypersensitivity
Free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine >Serum sickness > Systemic lupus erythematosus > Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis > Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially acute phase)
96
Type IV hypersensitivity
T-cell mediated > Tuberculosis / tuberculin skin reaction > Graft versus host disease > Allergic contact dermatitis > Scabies > Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially chronic phase) > Multiple sclerosis > Guillain-Barre syndrome
97
Type V hypersensitivity
Antibodies that recognise and bind to the cell surface receptors. This either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding > Graves' disease >Myasthenia gravis
98
encephalopathy, jaundice and coagulopathy
liver failure
99
causes of acute liver failure
>paracetamol overdose >alcohol >viral hepatitis (usually A or B) >acute fatty liver of pregnancy
100
features of acute liver failure
``` >jaundice >coagulopathy: raised prothrombin time >hypoalbuminaemia >hepatic encephalopathy >renal failure is common ('hepatorenal syndrome') ```
101
The PTH level in primary hyperparathyroidism may be...
normal