Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Finals Revision > 06/06/2021 > Flashcards

06/06/2021 Flashcards

1
Q

Investigation for pulmonary embolism in patient with renal impairment

A

V/Q scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Infective endocarditis valve in IVDU

A

tricuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does the management of bradycardia depend on

A
  1. identifying presence of ‘adverse signs’

2. identifying the potential risk of asystole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what indicates haemodynamic compromise in bradycardia

A
  • shock
  • syncope
  • myocardial ischaemia
  • heart failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

management of bradycardia with adverse signs

A

atropine 500mcg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the risk factors for asystole

A
  • complete heart block with broad complex QRS
  • recent asystole
  • mobitz type II AV block
  • ventricular pause > 3 seconds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

management of AF with collapse

A

immediate DC cardioversion followed by thromboprophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

sign of pulmonary hypertension

A

loud second heart sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

splitting of first heart sound

A

mitral valve closes significantly before the tricuspid, inspiration is a cause of this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

soft second heart sound

A

aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

reversal of dabigatran

A

idarucizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

reversal of warfarin

A

vit K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

reverse unfractionated heparin

A

protamine sulphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

eisenmeger

A

reversal of a left to right shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Aortic stenosis management: ____ if symptomatic, otherwise cut-off is gradient of __ mmHg

A

AVR

40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

pharmacological managment of orthostatic hypotension

A

Fludrocortisone and midodrine are pharmacological options for treatment of orthostatic hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ECG changes for thrombolysis or percutaneous intervention:

A

> ST elevation of > 2mm (2 small squares) in 2 or more consecutive anterior leads (V1-V6)
OR
ST elevation of greater than 1mm (1 small square) in greater than 2 consecutive inferior leads (II, III, avF, avL) OR
New Left bundle branch block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Poorly controlled hypertension, already taking an ACE inhibitor and a thiazide diuretic

A

add a CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The long saphenous vein passes anterior to the ————- and is commonly used for _______ ________

A

The long saphenous vein passes anterior to the medial malleolus- and is commonly used for venous cutdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

management of angina

A

1) aspirin + statin
2) sublingual GTN
3) beta blocker or CCB (verapamil or diltiazem if monotherapy, long acting dihydropyridine CCB (nifedipine) if used with bblocker)
4) if dual therapy not adequaate then PCI or CABG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ST elevation + PR depression

A

pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what foods should those on warfarin avoid

A

broccoli, sprouts, spinach, kale (high Vit K)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

inferior MI plus aortic regurg murmur

A

ascending aorta dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is contraindicated in ventricular tachycardia

A

verapamil- precipitate cardiac arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

anti-anginal causing GI ulceration

A

nicorandil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

secondary prevention of MI

A

dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin + second antiplatelet)

ACE inhibitor

beta-blocker

statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

coarctation of the aorta presentation

A

acute circulatory collapse at 2 days of age when duct closes- heart failure & absent femoral pulses

systolic murmur under left clavice and over back

28
Q

types of aortic dissection

A

Type A- ascending aorta- control BP (IV labetaolol + surgery)

Type B- descending aorta- control BP (IV labetalol)

29
Q

long-term management of unprovoked pulmonary embolisms

A

6 months apixaban

30
Q

investigating aortic dissection in clinically unstable patients

A

transoesophageal echogardiography

31
Q

which antibiotic can cause long QT syndrome

A

erythromycin

32
Q

system used in the assessment of suspected obstructive sleep apnoea

A

epworth scale

33
Q

system used to determine the need to anticoagulate a patient in atrial fibrillation

A

CHA2DS2-VASc

34
Q

system used to measure disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis

A

DAS28

35
Q

acute pulmonary oedema management

A

IV diuretics- furosemide

36
Q

Poorly controlled hypertension, already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic. K+ > 4.5mmol/l

A

Add an alpha or beta blocker

37
Q

when should treatment with statins be discontinued?

A

if serum transaminase concentrations rise to and persist at 3 times the upper limit of reference range

38
Q

persistent ST elevation following recent MI, no chest pain-

A

left ventricular aneurysm

39
Q

management of major bleeding in warfarinised patients

A

stop warfarin, give IV vit K 5mg, prothrombin complex concentrate

40
Q

For patients of black African or African–Caribbean origin taking a calcium channel blocker for hypertension, if they require a second agent consider

A

angiotensin receptor blocker in preference to an ACE inhibitor

41
Q

risk factors for silent MI

A

diabetes

elderly

42
Q

massive PE + _______ = thrombolyse

A

hypotension

43
Q

standford B

A

site of the dissection is the descending aorta.

44
Q

Management of stanford B dissection

A

Appropriate first line medical management is IV beta blockade and analgesia.
If blood pressure and heart rate remain raised then vasodilators may be considered

45
Q

drugs that reduce mortality in patients with LVF

A 
>ACE-inhibitors
>Beta-blockers
>Angiotensin receptor blockers
>Aldosterone antagonists
>Hydralazine and nitrates
46
Q

management of torsades des pointes

A

IV magnesium sulphate

47
Q

Anteroseptal

A

V1-V4

Left anterior descending

48
Q

Inferior

A

II, III, aVF

Right coronary

49
Q

Anterolateral

A

V4-6, I, aVL

Left anterior descending or left circumflex

50
Q

Lateral

A

I, aVL +/- V5-6

Left circumflex

51
Q

Posterior

A

Tall R waves V1-2

Usually left circumflex, also right coronary

52
Q

when is 3rd heart sound considered normal?

A

<30

53
Q

MOA of bumetanide

A

Furosemide - inhibits the Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

54
Q

signs and symptoms of malignant hypertension

A

> Papilloedema
Retinal bleeding
Increased cranial pressure causing headache and nausea
Chest pain due to increased workload on the heart
Haematuria due to kidney failure
Nosebleeds which are difficult to stop

55
Q

patients who require anticoagulation but do not want regular monitoring

A

NOACs

56
Q

HOCM is associated with sudden death in young athletes due to …..

A

ventricular arrythmia

57
Q

dabigatran reversal

A

idarucizumab

58
Q

offer both …. ….. as licensed first line treatment for heart failure

A

ACE inhibitor + beta blocker

59
Q

if symptoms of HF persist after 1st line treatment then consider;

A

aldosterone antagonist
angiotensin receptor blocker
hydralazine + nitrate

60
Q

if symptoms of HF persist despite 1st and 2nd line treatment consider

A

cardiac resynchronisation therapy

digoxin

61
Q

A patient with AF + an acute stroke (not haemorrhagic) should have anticoagulation therapy started….

A

two weeks after the event

62
Q

when are nitrates contraindicated

A

aortic stenosis- risk of profound hypotension

63
Q

pulmonary embolism ABGs

A

hyperventilation, causing a drop in arterial carbonic dioxide partial pressure and thus alkalosis

64
Q

warfarin ___ be used in breastfeeding

A

can

65
Q

target of INR

A
  1. 5
    - DVT, PR, APS, A FIB, Cardioversion etc
  2. 5
    - recurrent DVT or PE

Finals Revision (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions