. Flashcards

1
Q

motion to exacerbate lateral epiconylitis

A

wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended

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2
Q

Diagnostic test for meniscal tears

A

MRI

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3
Q

what are the centor criteria

A
  • presence of tonsilar exudate
  • tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis
  • history of fever
  • absence of cough
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4
Q

Management of gastroschisis

A

vaginal delivery may be attempted

newborns should go to theatre ASAP

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5
Q

Management of exomphalos

A

> caesarean section - reduce risk of sac rupture

>staged repair

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6
Q

bilobed nucleus and prominent eosinophilic inclusion-like nuclei

A

reed stenberg cells

classical feature of hodgkins lymphoma

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7
Q

who gets CMV negative packed red cells

A

pregnant patients

neonatal transfusions

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8
Q

why do patients with HL get irradiated red cells

A

prevent the risk of developing transfusion-related GVHD

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9
Q

modifiable risk factor for thyroid eye disease

A

smoking

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10
Q

cause of exopthalmos

A

autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor -> retro-orbital inflammation

inflammation results in glycosaminoglycan and collagen deposition in the muscles

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11
Q

normalising clotting prior to decannulation after cardiac bypass

A

protamine sulphate

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12
Q

when should bisphosphonate treatment be reassessed

A

after 5 year period, reassessed for ongoing treatment with updated FRAX and DEXA

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13
Q

diagnostic criteria for rheumatic fever

A

Evidence of recent streptococcal infection.

2 major or 1 major + 2 minor
Major;
- erythema marginatum
- sydenham's chorea
- polyarthritis
- carditis and valvulitis
- subcutaneous nodules

Minor;

  • raised ESR or CRP
  • pyrexia
  • arthralgia
  • prolonged PR interval
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14
Q

management of rheumatic fever

A

antibiotics: oral penicillin V

NSAIDs

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15
Q

Most common organism found in central line infections

A

staph epidermidis

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16
Q

features of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

urinary incontinence
gait abnormality
dementia

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17
Q

what causes normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

reduced CSF absorption in arachnoid villi

- SAH, head injury, meningitis

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18
Q

associated with perthes disease

A

hyperactivity and short stature

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19
Q

delivery in IHCP

A

IOL at 37-38 weeks

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20
Q

most common cause of osteomyelitis

A

staph aureus

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21
Q

indication for corticosteroid treatment in sarcoidosis

A
parenchymal lung disease
uveitis
hypercalcaemia
neurological signs
cardiac signs
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22
Q

management of patients with raised ICP

A

head elevation to 30
IV mannitol
controlled hyperventilation
removal of CSF

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23
Q

Cancer patient with VTE

A

6 months of DOAC

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24
Q

Management of DVT/PE in pregnancy

A

S/C LMWH

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25
Q

Dabigatran MOA

A

direct thrombin inhibitor

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26
Q

rivaroxaban MOA

A

direct factor Xa inhibitor

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27
Q

heparin MOA

A

activates antithrombin III

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28
Q

warfarin MOA

A

inhibits factors II, VII, IX, and X

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29
Q

presentation of acute chest syndrome

A
dyspnoea
chest pain
cough
hypoxia
new pulmonary infiltrates
30
Q

treatment of acute chest syndorme

A

broad-spectrum AB to cover common infections such as strep pneumonia and mycoplasma, pain control and blood transfusion

31
Q

management of gonorrhoea

A

IM ceftriaxone

32
Q

most common inherited clotting disorder

A

von willebrand’s

33
Q

types of transfusion reaction

A
  • non-haemolytic febrile reaction
  • minor allergic reaction
  • anaphylaxis
  • acute haemolytic reaction
  • transfusion associated circulatory overload
  • transfusion associated lung injury
34
Q

features of non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction

A

Fever, chills

35
Q

management of non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction

A

slow or stop the transfusion

paracetamol

monitor

36
Q

features of minor allergic transfusion reaction

A

pruritis

urticaria

37
Q

management of minor allergic transfusion reaction

A

temporarily stop the transfusion

antihistamine

monitor

38
Q

management of anaphylactic transfusion reaction

A

stop the transfusion

IM adrenaline

ABC support

  • oxygen
  • fluids
39
Q

features of acute haemolytic transfusion reaction

A

Fever, abdominal pain, hypotension

40
Q

features and management of TACO

A

pulmonary oedema, hypertension

slow or stop transfusion

consider loop diuretic

41
Q

signs of TRALI

A

Hypoxia, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, fever, hypotension

42
Q

causes of TRALI

A

secondary to increased vascular permeability caused by host neutrophils that become activated by substances in donated blood

43
Q

cause of TACO

A

Excessive rate of transfusion, pre-existing heart failure

44
Q

cause of acute haemolytic transfusion reaction

A

ABO-incompatible blood e.g. secondary to human error

45
Q

cause of anaphylaxis in transfusion

A

Can be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies

46
Q

antibiotic causing sun sensitivity

A

doxycycline

47
Q

rose spots on abdomen

A

salmonella typhi- typhoid

psittacosis

48
Q

presentation of waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia

A

bone marrow infiltration, splenomegaly and lymphadenopathy

49
Q

difference between waldenstrom’s and myeloma

A

it does not cause lytic bone lesions or hypercalcaemia

50
Q

what can paraproteinaemias cause

A

ischaemic strokes

51
Q

high IgM

A

waldenstrom’s

52
Q

If investigating a suspected DVT, and either the D-dimer or scan cannot be done within _ hours, then start a ____

A

4

DOAC

53
Q

signs of post-thrombotic syndrome

A
painful, heavy calves
pruritis
swelling
varicose veins
venous ulceration
54
Q

who gets necrobiosis lipoidica

A

diabetics

55
Q

conditions that contraindicate platelets

A

TTP

56
Q

treatment of TTP

A

corticosteroids

57
Q

pathophysiology of ITP

A

precipitated by recent URTI
reduction in platelet count
antibodies directed against glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-VI-IX complex

58
Q

presentation of ITP

A

petichiae
pupura
bleeding

59
Q

management of ITP

A

oral pred
pooled IVIG
splenectomy

60
Q

what is evan’s syndrome

A

ITP in association with AIHA

61
Q

most common cause of viral meningitis in adults

A

coxsackie B

62
Q

common presentation of sickle-cell

A

hand-foot syndrome

63
Q

cause of hand-foot syndrome

A

sickling of RBCs interfering with circulation to hands and feet

64
Q

amoebic dysentry

A

profuse, bloody diarrhoea
long incubation period
stool microscopy= trophozoites

65
Q

treatment of dysentry

A

mentronidazole

66
Q

treatment for invasive amoebiasis

A

luminal amoebicide to eradicate the cystic stage which is resistant to metronidazole and tinidazole

67
Q

raised ESR + osteoporosis

A

multiple myeloma

68
Q

primary CNS lymphoma

A

single brain lesion with homogenous enhancement

69
Q

primary CNS lymphoma treatment

A

steroids
chemo
surgical intervention

70
Q

2-level DVT Wells score is ≥ 2 points

A

proximal leg vein ultrasound scan within 4 hours

if -ve D dimer