Part 2a Chat GPT FAR Questions Flashcards by Todd Schak

What is the purpose of FAR Part 1?
A) To outline the procedures for resolving disputes
B) To provide an overview of the Federal Acquisition Regulation System
C) To specify the different types of government contracts
D) To establish guidelines for contract terminations

B) To provide an overview of the Federal Acquisition Regulation System

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Which part of the FAR establishes the framework for all federal acquisition regulations?
A) FAR Part 15
B) FAR Part 16
C) FAR Part 52
D) FAR Part 1

D) FAR Part 1

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Who is responsible for the maintenance of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)?
A) Office of Management and Budget (OMB)
B) General Services Administration (GSA)
C) Federal Acquisition Regulatory Council
D) Department of Defense (DoD

C) Federal Acquisition Regulatory Council

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What is the purpose of the FAR System, according to FAR 1.101?
A) To provide instructions on negotiating government contracts
B) To ensure purchasing meets the government’s requirements for quality and timeliness
C) To manage federal budgeting and expenditures
D) To establish uniform policies and procedures for acquisition by all executive agencies

D) To establish uniform policies and procedures for acquisition by all executive agencies

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According to FAR 1.102, the vision of the Federal Acquisition System is to deliver which of the following?
A) Lowest-cost goods and services
B) On-time delivery regardless of quality
C) Best value products or services to the customer
D) Contracts based on relationships with contractors

C) Best value products or services to the customer

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According to FAR 1.102-2(c), what must the Federal Acquisition System emphasize?
A) Competition, innovation, and cost control
B) Innovation, speed, and collaboration with large businesses
C) Budget control and rapid procurement
D) Strict adherence to acquisition timelines

A) Competition, innovation, and cost control

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What does FAR 1.104 state about the language used in the FAR?
A) The FAR uses strict legal language for interpretation by lawyers.
B) The FAR is written in plain language to be understood by all users.
C) The FAR avoids technical terms wherever possible.
D) The FAR uses informal language to allow flexibility in contract interpretation.

B) The FAR is written in plain language to be understood by all users.

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How are changes to the FAR made, according to FAR 1.501-1?
A) By the head of the contracting agency
B) By the Federal Acquisition Regulatory Council through public participation
C) By individual government contracting officers
D) By the Department of Justice

B) By the Federal Acquisition Regulatory Council through public participation

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Which of the following is true about deviations from the FAR, according to FAR 1.403?
A) Deviations are never allowed.
B) Only the contractor can request deviations.
C) Agencies may authorize deviations if necessary for specific acquisitions.
D) Deviations must be approved by Congress.

C) Agencies may authorize deviations if necessary for specific acquisitions.

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What is the role of the Defense Acquisition Regulations Council (DARC)?
A) To issue Defense-specific acquisition regulations
B) To ensure the FAR complies with state laws
C) To negotiate contracts on behalf of federal agencies
D) To resolve contract disputes between contractors and the governmen

A) To issue Defense-specific acquisition regulations

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According to FAR 1.102-2(d), what is the responsibility of contracting officers in ensuring the integrity of the procurement system?
A) To follow only the directives issued by their superiors
B) To exercise personal initiative and sound business judgment
C) To approve all contracts without question
D) To always prioritize cost savings over quality

B) To exercise personal initiative and sound business judgment

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What is the threshold for notifying Congress of any proposed deviations from the FAR according to FAR 1.404?
A) $500,000
B) $10,000,000
C) $50,000,000
D) $100,000,000

B) $10,000,000

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According to FAR 1.106, what is the OMB Control Number used for?
A) To track contractor performance
B) To identify paperwork approval for information collection requirements
C) To assign unique identification numbers to contracts
D) To categorize deviations to the FAR

B) To identify paperwork approval for information collection requirements

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Which of the following is NOT part of the Federal Acquisition Regulatory Council (FAR Council)?
A) Administrator of the Office of Federal Procurement Policy (OFPP)
B) Secretary of Defense
C) Secretary of the Treasury
D) Administrator of General Services

C) Secretary of the Treasury

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**19. Under FAR 1.102-4(e), when can innovative procurement techniques be used?
A) Only if approved by the head of the contracting activity
B) Only when there is a national emergency
C) As long as they are not prohibited by law, executive order, or regulation
D) They cannot be used under any circumstances

C) As long as they are not prohibited by law, executive order, or regulation

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According to FAR 1.301, what is the purpose of agency acquisition regulations?
A) To replace the FAR for certain agencies
B) To supplement the FAR with specific agency guidance
C) To create separate regulations for state and local contracts
D) To allow contractors to develop their own procedures

B) To supplement the FAR with specific agency guidance

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According to FAR 1.402, who has the authority to approve individual deviations from the FAR?
A) The Office of Management and Budget (OMB)
B) The President of the United States
C) The head of the contracting activity (HCA)
D) The contractor

C) The head of the contracting activity (HCA)

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According to FAR 1.102-2(b), what is one of the guiding principles for the Federal Acquisition System?
A) Contracts should be awarded based solely on price.
B) The system should be responsive to the needs of its customers.
C) Only fixed-price contracts should be used.
D) The procurement process should avoid competition

B) The system should be responsive to the needs of its customers.

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According to FAR 1.202, who is responsible for determining whether a proposed contract action is in the best interest of the government?
A) The contractor
B) The General Services Administration (GSA)
C) The contracting officer
D) The Federal Acquisition Regulatory Council

C) The contracting officer

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According to FAR 1.102-4, what does the absence of a specific prohibition in the FAR imply?
A) The action is allowed, as long as it aligns with law and policy.
B) The action is automatically disallowed.
C) The contracting officer must obtain approval from Congress.
D) The contractor must propose an alternative.

A) The action is allowed, as long as it aligns with law and policy.

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What is the primary objective of FAR Part 3?
A) To regulate subcontracting plans
B) To prevent improper business practices and conflicts of interest
C) To ensure competition in contracting
D) To establish standards for contract administration

B) To prevent improper business practices and conflicts of interest

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According to FAR 3.104-3, which of the following is considered procurement information?
A) A contractor’s monthly revenue
B) A government employee’s salary
C) Bid prices submitted in response to a solicitation
D) Information available on public websites

C) Bid prices submitted in response to a solicitation

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What does FAR 3.104 prohibit related to procurement integrity?
A) Providing excessive bid discounts
B) Disclosing or obtaining contractor bid or proposal information before contract award
C) Providing false data on subcontractor performance
D) Awarding contracts without public notice

B) Disclosing or obtaining contractor bid or proposal information before contract award

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Under FAR 3.104, what is the consequence for violating procurement integrity rules?
A) Termination of the contract
B) Suspension or debarment
C) A written warning
D) An immediate award of the contract to a different contractor

B) Suspension or debarmen

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6. Which of the following individuals are covered under the procurement integrity rules of FAR 3.104? A) Only contracting officers B) Only contractors C) Government officials, contractors, and subcontractors involved in procurement D) Only subcontractors

C) Government officials, contractors, and subcontractors involved in procurement

9. Under the Anti-Kickback Act of 1986, which of the following is considered a kickback? A) Any legitimate payment to a subcontractor for services B) A payment made by a subcontractor to secure a contract C) An award fee provided by the government for exemplary performance D) A commercial discount given by the contractor to the government

B) A payment made by a subcontractor to secure a contrac

10. Under FAR 3.502-2, contractors must do which of the following to comply with the Anti-Kickback Act? A) Report any suspected violations B) Withhold 10% of payment to subcontractors C) Provide the government with a complete list of subcontractors D) Refuse all subcontracting agreements

A) Report any suspected violations

12. According to FAR 3.601, contracts may not be awarded to which of the following? A) A foreign company B) A federal employee or their immediate family members C) A large business D) A nonprofit organizatio

B) A federal employee or their immediate family members

13. FAR 3.502 requires which of the following related to the Anti-Kickback Act of 1986? A) The collection of reports on government employee performance B) Written notice of subcontractor violations C) Annual reporting of contractor revenues D) Disclosure of conflicts of interest in government contracts

B) Written notice of subcontractor violations

15. Under FAR 3.104-5, if a contractor discloses procurement-sensitive information to another contractor, what should happen? A) A fine will be imposed B) The contract will be terminated C) The disclosure will be reported to the agency head for possible corrective action D) The contractor will be suspended from further government contracts

C) The disclosure will be reported to the agency head for possible corrective action

17. Under FAR 3.704, which of the following is a potential remedy if a contract is found to have been influenced by bribery? A) The contractor can reapply for the contract. B) The contract is voided and rescinded. C) The contract remains in effect but with a penalty. D) The contractor receives a performance warning.

B) The contract is voided and rescinded.

18. According to FAR 3.104-4, when is a government employee permitted to accept employment from a contractor? A) After one year of leaving the government position B) While still employed by the government C) During the contract bidding process D) If they have no involvement in the contractor’s procurement activities

D) If they have no involvement in the contractor’s procurement activities

19. Which of the following is true under FAR 3.1003 regarding improper business practices? A) Contractors must adhere to all applicable labor laws. B) Contractors must self-report any credible evidence of a violation of federal law. C) Contractors must resolve conflicts of interest after contract award. D) Contractors are not required to report misconduct if it does not affect contract performance.

B) Contractors must self-report any credible evidence of a violation of federal law.

21. What does FAR 3.402 prohibit regarding contingent fees? A) Contractors from charging fees for routine administrative tasks B) Contractors from paying fees to secure government contracts C) The government from reimbursing contractors for employee wages D) Contractors from charging above a set price limit for services

B) Contractors from paying fees to secure government contracts

23. What is the penalty for knowingly engaging in conduct prohibited by the Anti-Kickback Act under FAR 3.502-2? A) A fine of up to $100,000 B) A prison sentence of up to 5 years C) Suspension or debarment from government contracting D) A written warning from the contracting officer

C) Suspension or debarment from government contracting

25. FAR 3.104 applies to which phase of the acquisition process? A) The pre-solicitation phase B) Only after contract award C) All phases of the acquisition process D) Only during the contract closeout

C) All phases of the acquisition process

1. What is the primary purpose of FAR Part 6? A) To outline rules for cost-reimbursement contracts B) To provide policies and procedures to ensure full and open competition C) To establish small business set-aside procedures D) To define policies for using indefinite-delivery contracts

B) To provide policies and procedures to ensure full and open competition

2. Which of the following is the default competition requirement under FAR Part 6? A) Full and open competition B) Sole-source procurement C) Limited competition D) Small business set-asides

A) Full and open competition

3. Under FAR 6.302, when is a sole-source contract permitted? A) When there is only one responsible source and no other supplies or services will satisfy agency requirements B) When competition would lead to higher prices C) When the contracting officer prefers to deal with one contractor D) When it is the most convenient option

A) When there is only one responsible source and no other supplies or services will satisfy agency requirements

4. What is the primary document used to justify other than full and open competition? A) Market research report B) Justification and Approval (J&A) C) Contracting officer’s determination D) Source selection plan

B) Justification and Approval (J&A)

6. Under what condition can an agency cite an unusual and compelling urgency as an exception to full and open competition? A) When the agency needs to make a small purchase B) When the government would be seriously injured without the goods or services C) When multiple contractors are unavailable due to scheduling conflicts D) When the agency has not completed market research

B) When the government would be seriously injured without the goods or services

7. What must contracting officers do to justify a procurement made under unusual and compelling urgency? A) Submit an oral explanation to the head of the agency B) Obtain a Justification and Approval (J&A) document after the contract is awarded C) Provide a written determination within 10 days D) Avoid publicizing the contract opportunity

C) Provide a written determination within 10 days

8. Which of the following is NOT a permissible reason for limiting competition according to FAR Part 6? A) To avoid the expense of conducting a competition B) To protect national security C) Unusual and compelling urgency D) When a statute authorizes a specific source

A) To avoid the expense of conducting a competition

9. According to FAR 6.202, what is the purpose of establishing or maintaining alternate sources? A) To increase contractor profits B) To diversify government procurement to avoid dependency on a single source C) To ensure higher pricing D) To reward incumbent contractors

B) To diversify government procurement to avoid dependency on a single source

10. Under FAR 6.302-7, when can a contract be awarded based on public interest? A) When it is authorized in writing by the President of the United States B) When the contracting officer determines it is too expensive to compete C) When the agency head determines that full and open competition is not in the public interest D) When the government is purchasing commercial items

C) When the agency head determines that full and open competition is not in the public interest

11. For a Justification and Approval (J&A), who typically approves the document for contracts exceeding $700,000 but not over $13.5 million? A) The head of the contracting activity B) The contracting officer C) The head of the agency D) The President of the United States

A) The head of the contracting activity

12. Which type of acquisition is specifically exempt from FAR Part 6 competition requirements? A) Commercial items acquisitions B) Foreign military sales C) Sealed bidding D) Micro-purchases

D) Micro-purchases

13. What is the maximum dollar amount for contracts that can be awarded without full and open competition when using the unusual and compelling urgency exception? A) $100,000 B) $10 million C) No limit, but must be justified D) $500,000

C) No limit, but must be justified

14. What action must a contracting officer take to justify other than full and open competition for a sole-source award? A) Obtain approval from the head of the agency B) Issue a public notice C) Prepare a Justification and Approval (J&A) and get it approved by the appropriate official D) Provide a cost-benefit analysis to Congress

C) Prepare a Justification and Approval (J&A) and get it approved by the appropriate official

15. Under FAR Part 6, when is limited competition permissible? A) For contracts over $10 million B) When required by law or statute C) When the agency decides to perform a task internally D) For contracts below the simplified acquisition threshold

B) When required by law or statute

16. Which competition requirement applies to all procurement contracts above the simplified acquisition threshold unless otherwise authorized by law? A) Limited competition B) Sole-source acquisition C) Full and open competition D) Commercial item acquisition

C) Full and open competition

7. What does FAR 6.302-2 state regarding contracts awarded based on unusual and compelling urgency? A) The contracting officer must delay the award until all competition processes are complete B) The contracting officer may limit the number of sources solicited C) The contract must be awarded to a small business D) The head of the agency must sign off on all awards

B) The contracting officer may limit the number of sources solicited

19. Which FAR Part 6 exception allows an agency to award a contract to a particular source to maintain an industrial base? A) FAR 6.302-2 (Unusual and Compelling Urgency) B) FAR 6.302-5 (Authorized or Required by Statute) C) FAR 6.302-3 (Industrial Mobilization) D) FAR 6.302-4 (International Agreement)

C) FAR 6.302-3 (Industrial Mobilization)

20. Which of the following is NOT a justification for using other than full and open competition? A) Industrial mobilization B) The only known source C) High administrative costs of competition D) National security

C) High administrative costs of competition

22. What is the minimum approval level for a J&A for contracts exceeding $13.5 million? A) The agency head B) The contracting officer C) The head of the contracting activity D) The Deputy Assistant Secretary

A) The agency head

24. Under which condition is competition not required for modifications to an existing contract? A) When the modification is within the scope of the original contract B) When the modification exceeds $5 million C) When the contractor requests a change D) When the contract involves foreign military sales

A) When the modification is within the scope of the original contract

25. Under FAR 6.302-4, a contract may be awarded without full and open competition if required by: A) A contractor's sole-source request B) An international agreement C) The contracting officer’s determination D) Market research findings

B) An international agreement

1. What is the purpose of FAR Part 7? A) To outline rules for cost-reimbursement contracts B) To establish policies for acquisition planning and market research C) To define the rules for termination of contracts D) To guide contractors in creating proposals

B) To establish policies for acquisition planning and market research

2. Acquisition planning must be conducted for all acquisitions except: A) Contracts below the simplified acquisition threshold B) Micropurchases C) Commercial items D) Sole-source contracts

B) Micropurchases

3. Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when developing an acquisition plan according to FAR 7.105? A) Need for publicizing the contract action B) Competition requirements C) Contract type selection D) Contractor's past performance

D) Contractor's past performance

4. What is the primary purpose of acquisition planning under FAR Part 7? A) To maximize competition and ensure contract compliance B) To ensure government needs are met in a timely and cost-effective manner C) To determine the appropriate contract type D) To allow for a simplified acquisition proces

B) To ensure government needs are met in a timely and cost-effective manner

6. Acquisition plans must address the extent of competition required and any barriers to competition. Which FAR subpart discusses competition in detail? A) FAR Part 6 B) FAR Part 13 C) FAR Part 15 D) FAR Part 14

A) FAR Part 6

7. According to FAR 7.102, agencies shall perform acquisition planning for all acquisitions except for: A) Actions with urgency B) Contracts for non-commercial items C) Simplified acquisition purchases D) All commercial item procurements

C) Simplified acquisition purchases

9. Who is responsible for developing acquisition plans for procurements? A) Contracting Officer B) Program Manager C) Contracting Officer's Representative (COR) D) The head of the agency

A) Contracting Officer

0. What is the requirement for written acquisition plans for contracts exceeding $50 million, according to FAR 7.105? A) They are optional but recommended B) They must be prepared and approved by the agency head C) They are not required for commercial item acquisitions D) They are mandatory and must be detailed

D) They are mandatory and must be detailed

11. Which of the following must be included in a written acquisition plan? A) The name of the potential contractor B) A list of potential subcontractors C) A description of the contract type D) The contractor’s profit margin

C) A description of the contract type

12. What is the primary document used to lay out the strategy for meeting the government's acquisition needs? A) Statement of Work (SOW) B) Acquisition Plan C) Performance Work Statement (PWS) D) Market Research Report

B) Acquisition Plan

13. According to FAR 7.107, what is the primary reason for consolidating contract requirements? A) To reduce administrative costs B) To award to a single contractor C) To achieve cost savings and efficiency D) To limit competition

C) To achieve cost savings and efficiency

15. What is the minimum threshold for consolidation of contract requirements to require a determination that consolidation is necessary and justified? A) $1 million B) $5 million C) $10 million D) $50 million

C) $10 million

16. When is a written acquisition plan required for interagency acquisitions? A) When the action exceeds $5 million B) When the action exceeds $10 million C) When the action exceeds the simplified acquisition threshold D) When the action is awarded on a sole-source basis

B) When the action exceeds $10 million

17. According to FAR 7.107, what should be included in an analysis for bundling requirements? A) Expected cost savings B) Number of small business subcontractors C) The contractor’s previous bundling performance D) The contractor’s proposed delivery schedule

A) Expected cost savings

1. Which of the following describes the importance of competition in acquisition planning according to FAR 7.105? A) Agencies should avoid competition when it delays the procurement process B) Competition should be maximized to promote efficiency and lower costs C) Competition should only be used for commercial items D) Agencies must always award contracts to the lowest bidder

B) Competition should be maximized to promote efficiency and lower costs

23. According to FAR 7.107-2, what is the contracting officer required to do when acquisition strategies involve bundling? A) Notify the head of the agency B) Justify the bundling in writing C) Seek approval from Congress D) Award the contract to a small business

B) Justify the bundling in writing

25. When is the use of bundling permitted under FAR Part 7? A) When it provides substantial benefits to the government B) When it reduces the number of competitors C) When the government prefers to work with a single source D) When small businesses are excluded

A) When it provides substantial benefits to the government

1. What is the primary purpose of FAR Part 9? A) To establish policies and procedures for source selection B) To establish the qualifications and responsibilities of contractors C) To outline the requirements for bid protests D) To provide guidance on subcontracting policies

B) To establish the qualifications and responsibilities of contractors

2. FAR Part 9.103 discusses the responsibility of prospective contractors. Before awarding a contract, the contracting officer must determine that a prospective contractor: A) Has an active System for Award Management (SAM) registration B) Is responsible and has the financial resources to perform the contract C) Is the lowest-priced bidder D) Has the best past performance

B) Is responsible and has the financial resources to perform the contract

3. What must the contracting officer consider to determine if a contractor is responsible? A) Financial resources B) Ability to comply with delivery schedules C) Performance record D) All of the above

D) All of the above

5. According to FAR 9.104-6, a contractor must be registered in which system before being awarded a contract? A) Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA) B) System for Award Management (SAM) C) General Services Administration (GSA) D) Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS)

B) System for Award Management (SAM)

9. What is the purpose of pre-award surveys under FAR 9.106? A) To verify the contractor's marketing capabilities B) To evaluate the prospective contractor's ability to perform a contract C) To negotiate contract pricing D) To ensure contractor compliance with labor laws

B) To evaluate the prospective contractor's ability to perform a contract

11. When a contracting officer is unable to determine that a contractor is responsible, the contract must: A) Be awarded to the next lowest-priced bidder B) Be referred to the agency's head for determination C) Not be awarded to the contractor D) Be delayed until further market research is conducted

C) Not be awarded to the contractor

13. What is the maximum period for a suspension of a contractor according to FAR 9.407-4? A) 12 months B) 18 months C) 24 months D) 36 months

C) 24 months

14. What is a contractor's duty during the debarment or suspension process? A) Submit quarterly reports B) Continue performing existing contracts C) Provide the government with evidence of corrective action D) Cease all federal contract work immediately

C) Provide the government with evidence of corrective action

15. What is the standard duration of a debarment as provided in FAR 9.406-4? A) 12 months B) 18 months C) 24 months D) 36 months

D) 36 months

17. What type of contract can a contracting officer NOT award to a contractor that is listed as debarred, suspended, or proposed for debarment? A) Commercial item contracts B) Fixed-price contracts C) Indefinite-delivery contracts D) Cost-reimbursement contracts

D) Cost-reimbursement contracts

19. Who has the authority to suspend or debar a contractor under FAR 9.406? A) Contracting officer B) Agency head C) The Suspension and Debarment Official (SDO) D) Inspector General

C) The Suspension and Debarment Official (SDO)

20. Which of the following is NOT a basis for suspension according to FAR Part 9? A) Fraud B) Bribery C) Lack of adequate financial resources D) Criminal offense related to government contracts

C) Lack of adequate financial resources

23. According to FAR 9.407-3, what is the burden of proof required for a suspension? A) Clear and convincing evidence B) A preponderance of the evidence C) Adequate evidence D) Reasonable doubt

C) Adequate evidence

24. FAR 9.409 provides examples of causes for debarment. Which of the following is NOT a cause for debarment? A) Theft B) Fraud C) Defective pricing D) Breach of contra

D) Breach of contract

1. What is the purpose of FAR Part 12? A) To establish guidelines for sole-source contracts B) To provide policies for the acquisition of commercial items C) To outline the rules for international contracts D) To govern small business set-asides

B) To provide policies for the acquisition of commercial items

3. What is a commercial item as defined by FAR 2.101 and applicable in FAR Part 12? A) Any item that is developed for governmental use only B) An item custom-made for government specifications C) Any item that is of a type customarily used by the general public D) An item that is only available through federal supply schedules

C) Any item that is of a type customarily used by the general public

5. FAR Part 12 requires that solicitations for commercial items be written: A) In a detailed technical format B) In a clear and concise manner C) Using highly technical specifications D) Based on a cost-reimbursement approach

B) In a clear and concise manner

7. According to FAR 12.208, which financing method is preferred when acquiring commercial items? A) Government financing B) Progress payments based on cost C) Performance-based payments D) Advance payments

C) Performance-based payments

9. Which of the following types of contracts is NOT authorized under FAR Part 12? A) Fixed-price contracts B) Time-and-materials contracts C) Cost-plus-fixed-fee contracts D) Indefinite-delivery contracts

C) Cost-plus-fixed-fee contracts

0. FAR Part 12 acquisitions are meant to reduce: A) Oversight and surveillance requirements B) Contracting officer workload C) The need for market research D) The cost of contract performance

A) Oversight and surveillance requirements

11. FAR Part 12 allows the use of simplified acquisition procedures for commercial items up to what threshold? A) $100,000 B) $500,000 C) $7 million D) $13 millio

C) $7 million (for certain acquisitions, including acquisitions under the Commercial Item Test Program)

12. Under FAR Part 12, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a commercial item contract? A) Use of customary market terms and conditions B) Extensive government-unique specifications C) Commercial warranties are preferred D) Price based on market competition

B) Extensive government-unique specifications

15. Which of the following terms and conditions is mandatory in commercial item contracts as per FAR 52.212-4? A) Inspection and acceptance B) Cost-reimbursement C) Performance-based payments D) Liquidated damages

A) Inspection and acceptance

17. When acquiring commercial items, what type of market research is required by FAR Part 12? A) Detailed technical analysis B) A combination of written surveys and in-person interviews C) Market research appropriate to the circumstances D) No market research is required

C) Market research appropriate to the circumstances

19. When acquiring commercial items, FAR Part 12 encourages the use of: A) Contractual incentives B) Government-unique contract clauses C) Extensive compliance requirements D) Standard form contracting only

A) Contractual incentives

21. Under FAR Part 12, tailoring of terms and conditions must be: A) Approved by the agency head B) Consistent with customary commercial practice C) Submitted for public review D) Approved by the contracting officer’s supervisor

B) Consistent with customary commercial practice

22. FAR Part 12 requires agencies to ensure that commercial item acquisitions are: A) Based on detailed government specifications B) Timely and cost-effective C) Based on market analysis only D) Awarded as sole-source contracts

B) Timely and cost-effective

23. What is a primary goal of FAR Part 12 when acquiring commercial items? A) To minimize risk to contractors B) To maximize competition C) To minimize the use of performance-based payments D) To maximize use of government-unique requirements

: B) To maximize competition

1. What is the primary goal of FAR Part 19? A) To ensure full and open competition B) To establish price reasonableness C) To support small businesses and ensure a fair proportion of contracts are awarded to them D) To facilitate the acquisition of commercial items

C) To support small businesses and ensure a fair proportion of contracts are awarded to them

3. What is the Small Business Administration (SBA) role under FAR Part 19? A) To award contracts directly B) To ensure the eligibility of small businesses for set-asides C) To approve all small business contracts D) To draft all contract clauses

B) To ensure the eligibility of small businesses for set-asides

4. Under FAR 19.502-2, which acquisitions must be set aside for small businesses? A) All acquisitions regardless of size B) Acquisitions valued between $10,000 and the simplified acquisition threshold C) Acquisitions over the simplified acquisition threshold D) Acquisitions exceeding $10 million

B) Acquisitions valued between $10,000 and the simplified acquisition threshold

5. Under FAR Part 19, a small business set-aside means: A) A percentage of the contract award must go to small businesses B) Only small businesses may submit offers C) Small businesses are given priority, but large businesses may still compete D) All offers must come from large businesses

B) Only small businesses may submit offers

6. A HUBZone small business concern must be: A) Located in a high-income area B) Located in a historically underutilized business zone C) A veteran-owned business D) A women-owned small business

B) Located in a historically underutilized business zone

7. The 8(a) Business Development Program is designed to: A) Help women-owned businesses exclusively B) Assist small disadvantaged businesses in competing in the marketplace C) Support large businesses through federal contracts D) Promote joint ventures with foreign companie

B) Assist small disadvantaged businesses in competing in the marketplace

8. What percentage of subcontracting dollars must be awarded to small businesses under a federal prime contract, if required? A) 10% B) 23% C) 50% D) 30%

B) 23%

0. What is the purpose of a small business subcontracting plan under FAR 19.704? A) To ensure large businesses meet their diversity quotas B) To demonstrate that the prime contractor will provide opportunities for small businesses as subcontractors C) To limit competition to only small businesses D) To guarantee cost-savings for the government

B) To demonstrate that the prime contractor will provide opportunities for small businesses as subcontractors

13. What is the maximum size standard for a business to qualify as a small business under FAR 19.102? A) 500 employees B) 1,000 employees C) 1,500 employees D) It varies by industry

D) It varies by industry

15. What is the role of a Cognizant Administrative Contracting Officer (ACO) in FAR Part 19? A) To negotiate contracts with large businesses B) To administer the small business subcontracting plan C) To approve subcontract awards D) To manage HUBZone contracts

B) To administer the small business subcontracting plan

16. What does the certificate of competency (COC) program under FAR 19.6 allow the SBA to do? A) Certify a business as a small business B) Certify that a small business is competent to perform a contract C) Disqualify small businesses from contracts D) Audit small business financials

B) Certify that a small business is competent to perform a contract

17. The rule of two requires: A) Two or more small businesses must submit offers for a contract to be set aside B) Two or more large businesses must compete for the award C) Two or more agencies must approve small business set-asides D) Two or more subcontractors must be small businesses

A) Two or more small businesses must submit offers for a contract to be set aside

19. What is the simplified acquisition threshold for small business set-asides under FAR Part 19? A) $150,000 B) $250,000 C) $500,000 D) $1 million

B) $250,000

20. Under FAR Part 19, a joint venture involving a small business must ensure that: A) The small business performs at least 25% of the contract B) The small business performs at least 50% of the contract C) The large business controls the joint venture D) The joint venture partners split the work equally

B) The small business performs at least 50% of the contract

22. Under FAR Part 19, contract bundling is: A) Encouraged to reduce administrative burden B) Discouraged as it limits small business participation C) Required for all contracts over $1 million D) Only used in construction contracts

B) Discouraged as it limits small business participation

23. Which type of business has priority under a small business set-aside? A) HUBZone small businesses B) 8(a) small businesses C) There is no priority, all small businesses compete equally D) Veteran-owned small businesses

C) There is no priority, all small businesses compete equally

24. Under FAR 19.1503, a sole-source award may be made to a Women-Owned Small Business (WOSB) when: A) The WOSB is the only business capable of performing B) The contract value is less than $7 million C) The contract is over $100,000 D) The WOSB is in a designated NAICS code

D) The WOSB is in a designated NAICS code

25. FAR Part 19 allows small businesses to receive assistance with what type of contracts? A) Only cost-reimbursement contracts B) Any federal contract, including competitive and set-asides C) Only firm-fixed-price contracts D) Only construction contracts

B) Any federal contract, including competitive and set-asides

Part 2a Chat GPT FAR Questions Flashcards

FAR Part 1, 3, 6, 7, 9, 12, 19,