CFCM Practice Guide Test Flashcards
1
Q
- How often are statutory acquisition-related dollar thresholds in the FAR adjusted for inflation?
a. Annually
b. Biannually
c. Every five years
d. Nnly as required
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 1.109
A
c. Every five years
2
Q
- A form of written approval signed by an authorized official that is required by statute or regulation as a prerequisite to taking certain contract actions is defined as a
a. ratification.
b. determination and findings.
c. contracting officer’s final decision.
d. waiver.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 1.701
A
b. determination and findings.
3
Q
- Contracting officers below the level of
shall be selected and appointed.
a. cabinet secretary
b. director of contracting
c. a flag officer or member of the Senior Executive Service
d. a head of a contracting activity
SOURCE(S): FAR 1.601
A
d. a head of a contracting activity
4
Q
According to the FAR conventions at subpart 1.1, each authority is delegable unless
a. it does not make sense to delegate.
b. specifically stated otherwise.
c. the procurement is over the simplified acquisition threshold.
d. the procurement is over $6.5 million.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 1.108
A
b. specifically stated otherwise.
5
Q
- When an imperative sentence directs action in the FAR, who is responsible for the action unless another party is expressly cited?
a. the head of contracting activity
b. the Secretary of the Army
c. the contracting officer
d. the contracting specialist
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 1.108(f)
A
c. the contracting officer
6
Q
- Unauthorized commitments are agreements that are NOT binding solely because
a. the agreement is not made in the best interests of the government.
b. all requirements of executive orders were not followed in their development.
c. the supplies or services are not ultimately acceptable to the government and the government will not obtain benefit.
d. the government representative who made the agreement lacked the authority to enter into it.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 1.6
A
d. the government representative who made the agreement lacked the authority to enter into it.
7
Q
- The simplified acquisition threshold for any contract in support of contingency operations to be awarded and performed, or purchase to be made, outside the U.S. is
a. $250,000.
b. $300,000.
c. $1.5 million.
d. $1.5 million.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 2.101
A
d. $1.5 million.
8
Q
- Which of the following is a commercial item?
a. A nondevelopmental item, if the procuring agency determines the item was developed exclusively at private expense and sold in substantial quantities, on a competitive basis, to multiple state and local governments.
b. An item that evolved from an item that has not been sold to the general public.
c. A commercial item that has received modifications not available in the commercial marketplace.
d. A nondevelopmental item used exclusively for governmental purposes.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 2.101
A
a. A nondevelopmental item, if the procuring agency determines the item was developed exclusively at private expense and sold in substantial quantities, on a competitive basis, to multiple state and local governments.
9
Q
- Consolidating two or more requirements for supplies or services, previously provided or performed under separate smaller contracts, into a solicitation for a single contract that is likely to be unsuitable for award to a small business concern is defined as
a. combining.
b. consolidating.
c. bundling.
d. mixing.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 2.101
A
c. bundling.
10
Q
- Which of the following are included in the definition of “contracts”?
a. Awards and notices of awards and grants.
b. Letter contracts and cooperative agreements.
c. Letter contracts and job orders.
d. Blanket purchase agreements and imprest funds.
A
c. Letter contracts and job orders.
11
Q
- The government can minimize the opportunity for buying in by using which of the following techniques:
a. simplified acquisition procedures
b. priced options, amortization of nonrecurring costs, and simplified acquisition procedures
c. simplified acquisition procedures, costs, and multiyear contracting
d. multiyear contracting, priced options, and amortization of nonrecurring costs
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 3.501-2
A
d. multiyear contracting, priced options, and amortization of nonrecurring costs
12
Q
- A contractor’s arrangements to pay contingent fees for soliciting government contracts have long been considered contrary to public policy because
a. they discourage competition.
b. they may lead to exercise of improper influence.
c. they result in excessive overhead costs.
d. accountability of costs is difficult to track.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 3.402
A
b. they may lead to exercise of improper influence.
13
Q
13.
is any money, fee, commission, credit, gift, gratuity, thing of value, or compensation of any kind which is provided, directly or indirectly, to any prime contractor, prime contractor employee, subcontractor, or subcontractor employee for the purpose of improperly obtaining or rewarding favorable treatment in connection with a prime contractor in connection with a subcontract relating to a prime contract.
a. Buying in
b. Kickback
c. Partnership
d. Bundling
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 3.502-1
A
b. Kickback
14
Q
- A contract with a corporation shall be signed
a. by the chief financial officer.
b. by the head of the contracts department.
c. in the corporate name, followed by the word
“by” and the signature and title of the person authorized to sign.
d. by the chief executive officer followed by the word “by” and the signature and title of the
person authorized to bind the corporation.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 4.102
A
c. in the corporate name, followed by the word
“by” and the signature and title of the person authorized to sign.
15
Q
- Contractors must retain all records pertaining to a government contract for a minimum of
a. five years from the date of contract closeout, unless otherwise specified.
b. three years from the date of final payment, unless otherwise specified.
c. three years from the date of contract completion, unless otherwise specified.
d. five years from the date of contract completion, unless otherwise specified.
ANSWER：—_
SOURCE(S): FAR 4.703
A
b. three years from the date of final payment, unless otherwise specified.
16
Q
- Contractor representations and certifications
a. are submitted individually to each contracting office with other proposal documents.
b. are to be verified upon receipt with other active contracts to ensure conformity.
c. are submitted through the System for Award Management.
d. are required to be updated every 18 months.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 4.1200
A
c. are submitted through the System for Award Management.
17
Q
- Agencies must implement OMB guidance for personal identity verification when
a. contractors have routine physical access to either a federally controlled facility or information system.
b. contractors receive any contract from the Department of Defense or Homeland Security.
c. contractors are required, in the performance of a contract, to attend briefings or meetings at
military installations.
d. contractors remotely access any federal information system.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 4.1301
SOURCE(S): FAR 1.109
A
a. contractors have routine physical access to either a federally controlled facility or information system.
18
Q
- Which of the following is not prohibited under the Prohibition on Contracting for Certain Telecommunications and Video Surveillance?
a. A contractor using a covered
telecommunications system as long as it is not used in the performance of a federal contract.
b. Extending an existing contract that contains covered telecommunication equipment.
c. Entering into a contract that is 30 days or fewer to use a system that uses covered telecommunications equipment.
d. Providing a service that connects to the facilities of a third-party, such as backhaul, roaming, or interconnection arrangements.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 4.2102
A
d. Providing a service that connects to the facilities of a third-party, such as backhaul, roaming, or interconnection arrangements.
19
Q
- What is the dollar threshold for public announcement of contract awards?
a. $500,000
b. $4,500,000
c. $5,000,000
d. $10,000,000
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 5.303
A
b. $4,500,000
20
Q
- Acceptable methods for disseminating information on proposed contract actions include
a. assisting a local trade association in disseminating information to their members, announcements in magazines at no cost, and phone calls.
b. synopsis in the governmentwide point of entry, phone calls, and paid advertisements.
c. paid advertisements in newspapers published and printed in the District of Columbia when supplies and services will not be supplied/ furnished in or around the District of Columbia.
d. announcements in magazines at no cost, assisting a local trade association in disseminating information to their members, and synopsis in the governmentwide point of entry.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 5.101(a) & (b)
A
d. announcements in magazines at no cost, assisting a local trade association in disseminating information to their members, and synopsis in the governmentwide point of entry.
21
Q
- What is the minimum response time for receipt of bids or proposals for noncommercial item solicitations?
a. 15 days from the date of issuance of the solicitation
b. 30 days from the date of publication of a proper notice of intent to contract
c. 45 days from the date of issuance of the solicitation
d. 60 days from the date of issuance of the solicitation
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 5.203(d)
A
b. 30 days from the date of publication of a proper notice of intent to contract
22
Q
- The contracting officer may use competitive
proposals in lieu of sealed bids if
a. time permits the solicitation, submission, and evaluation of sealed bids.
b. award will be made on the basis of price and other price-related factors.
c. it is necessary to conduct discussions.
d. the resulting contract will be with a small business.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 6.401(b)
A
c. it is necessary to conduct discussions.
23
Q
- The contracting officer’s certification can serve as approval of the justification for other than full and open competition for a proposed contract NOT exceeding
a. $25,000.
b. $750,000.
с. $1,500,000.
d. $5,500,000.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 6.304(a)(1)
A
b. $750,000.
24
Q
- FAR part 6, “Competition Requirements,” applies to which of the following?
a. A $1 million contract for services
b. A contract awarded using the simplified acquisition procedures of part 13
c. A contract modification for $1 million that is within the scope and under the terms of an existing contract
d. A $1 million task order placed against a task order contract entered into pursuant to subpart
16.5
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 6.001(a), (c), (f)
A
a. A $1 million contract for services
25
25. If other than full and open competition is anticipated, the acquisition plan must be coordinated with the cognizant
a. competition advocate.
b. head of the contracting activity.
c. small business office.
d. contract administrator.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 7.104(c)
a. competition advocate.
26
26. Acquisition planning should begin
a. when a purchase request is received.
b. when a statement of work is received.
c. as soon as the agency need is identified.
d. within 30 days of receipt of the purchase request.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 7.104(a)
c. as soon as the agency need is identified.
27
27. The specific content of acquisition plans will vary, and are influenced primarily by which factors?
a. the specific type of goods or services being acquired
b. the nature, circumstances, and stage of the acquisition
c. the ultimate government end user of the goods or services
d. the type of contract and the scale of competition
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 7.105
b. the nature, circumstances, and stage of the acquisition
28
28. Market research may indicate that bundling is necessary and justified if
a. the head of the contracting activity determines that it is.
b. there is no material impact to the small business community as defined by the competition advocate.
c. the government would derive measurably substantial benefits.
d. the commercial market indicates that the goods or services are more frequently acquired as a bundle than separately.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 7.107
c. the government would derive measurably substantial benefits.
29
29. The Federal Supply Schedule program provides federal agencies with a simplified process for obtaining commonly used commercial supplies and services at prices associated with volume buying. It is directed and managed by the
a. Commerce Department.
b. Executive Department.
c. General Services Administration.
d. Defense Logistics Agency.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 8.402(a)
c. General Services Administration.
30
30. Which of the following is the name of GSA's
electronic system that allows ordering activities to
post requirements, obtain quotes, and issue orders electronically?
a. GSAAdvantage!
b. GSA SmartPay
c. e-Buy
d. Customer Supply Center
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 8.402(d)
c. e-Buy
31
31. In the event that the Federal Prison Industries
(FPI) and nonprofit agencies participating in the AbilityOne Program produce identical services, the ordering offices shall purchase services from the following sources based on priority. Identify the source that has first priority.
a. AbilityOne-participating nonprofit agencies
b. Federal Prison Industries, Inc.
c. Commercial sourcesd.
Federal Supply Schedule
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 8.603
a. AbilityOne-participating nonprofit agencies
32
32. Normally, testing and approval is appropriate in contracts for
a. research and development.
b. products requiring qualifications before award.
c. products normally sold in the commercial market.
d. products requiring an approved first article to serve as a manufacturing standard.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 9.303
d. products requiring an approved first article to serve as a manufacturing standard.
33
33. A qualification requirement is a government requirement for
a. testing or other quality assurance demonstration that must be completed before award
b. testing that must be completed before the first item is delivered under the contract.
c. testing or other quality assurance demonstration that is always at the contractor's expense.
d. approving a contractor's quality system.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 9.202(a)
a. testing or other quality assurance demonstration that must be completed before award
34
34. The names and addresses of all suspended contractors may be found at the
a. Excluded Parties List.
b. System for Award Management Exclusions.
c. Online Representations and Certifications Application.
d. Contractor Performance Assessment Reports System.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 9.404
b. System for Award Management Exclusions.
35
35. Agencies are required to use the results of market research to determine
a. if detailed government specifications exist.
b. a fair and reasonable price.
c. the government's requirements.
d. the extent to which commercial items or nondevelopmental items could satisfy the need.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 10.001(a)(3)
d. the extent to which commercial items or nondevelopmental items could satisfy the need.
36
36. If market research indicates that neither commercial items nor nondevelopmental items are available to satisfy agency needs, agencies
a. must reevaluate the need and determine whether it can be restated to permit commercial or nondevelopmental items to satisfy them.
b. may set-aside the procurement.
c. are authorized to pursue the acquisition as a restricted procurement.
d. shall solicit and award any resultant contract using FAR part 12 policies and procedures.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 10.002(c), (d)
a. must reevaluate the need and determine whether it can be restated to permit commercial or nondevelopmental items to satisfy them.
37
37. Within what timeframe may previously conducted market research be used before the award of a task or delivery order?
a. Within 6 months, if the information is still current, accurate, and relevant
b. Within 12 months, if the information is still current, accurate, and relevant
c. Within 18 months, if the information is still current, accurate, and relevant
d. Any timeframe is allowed, as long as the information is still current, accurate, and relevant
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 10.002(b)(1)
c. Within 18 months, if the information is still current, accurate, and relevant
38
38. Contract delivery or performance schedules may be expressed by
a. the means determined by the requiring activity.
b. the specific number of days from the date of the contract.
c. the specific time for delivery after receipt by the buyer of each order under the contract.
d. any means the contractor specified in its bid or proposal.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 11.403(a)
b. the specific number of days from the date of the contract.
39
39. To the maximum extent practicable, acquisition officials should state all the following requirements with respect to an acquisition of supplies or services, with the exception of
a. functions to be performed.
b. performance required.
c. essential physical characteristics.
d. preference for commercial or nondevelopmental items.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 11.002(a)
d. preference for commercial or nondevelopmental items.
40
40. A contractor is awarded four separate contracts on the same day. One contract is rated "DO" and has
a final delivery date (FDD) in 60 days. Another contract is rated "DX" and has an FDD in 40 days.
Another contract is rated "DO" and has an FDD in 10 days. The fourth contract is unrated and has an FDD in 15 days. What is the order of priority on the contracts?
a. The unrated contract (15-day FDD), followed by both "DO" contracts that have equal priority
(10-day and 60-day FDD), followed by the "DX" contract (40-day FDD)
b. The "DX" contract (40-day FDD), followed by both "DO" contracts that have equal priority (10-
day and 60-day FDD), followed by the unrated contract (15-day FDD)
c. The "DX" contract (40-day FDD), followed by the "DO" contract (10-day FDD), followed by the unrated contract (15-day FDD), followed by the
"DO" contract (60-day FDD)
d. The "DO" contract (10-day FDD), followed by the unrated contract (15-day FDD), followed by the "DX" contract (40-day FDD), followed by the
"DO" contract (60-day FDD)
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 11.603(a)
b. The "DX" contract (40-day FDD), followed by both "DO" contracts that have equal priority (10-
day and 60-day FDD), followed by the unrated contract (15-day FDD)
41
41. Contracting activities shall employ simplified acquisition procedures to the maximum practicable for acquisitions of commercial items not exceeding
a. $1,000,000.
b. $650,000.
с. $7,500,000.
d. $3,500,000.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 12.203
с. $7,500,000.
42
42. Unless otherwise provided, agencies shall use which of the following contract type(s) for the acquisition of commercial items?
a. Any type of contract
b. Fixed-price contract with prospective price redetermination
c. Firm-fixed-price or fixed-price with economic price adjustment contracts
d. Cost-plus-incentive-fee contracts only
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 12.207
c. Firm-fixed-price or fixed-price with economic price adjustment contracts
43
43. Cost Accounting Standards
a. apply to all acquisitions for commercial items.
b. apply only to commercial acquisitions from large businesses.
c. never apply to commercial acquisitions.
d. do not apply to contracts and subcontracts for commercial acquisition unless the contract provides for an economic price adjustment based on actual costs incurred.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 12.214
d. do not apply to contracts and subcontracts for commercial acquisition unless the contract provides for an economic price adjustment based on actual costs incurred.
44
44. When acquiring commercial items, the contracting officer
a. is not required to establish price reasonableness.
b. can accept the commercial standard for price reasonableness.
c. must establish price reasonableness in accordance with FAR 13.106-3, 14.408-2, or subpart 15.4, as applicable.
d. must establish price reasonableness in accordance with commercial practices.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 12.209
c. must establish price reasonableness in accordance with FAR 13.106-3, 14.408-2, or subpart 15.4, as applicable.
45
45. A system whereby the contracting officer receives authorization from a fiscal and accounting officer to obligate funds on purchase documents against a specified lump sum of funds reserved for a specified time rather than obtaining individual obligation authority on each purchase document is
a. a blanket purchase agreement.
b. long lead funding.
c. bulk funding.
d. a charge account.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 13.101(b)(4)
c. bulk funding.
46
46. When considering a simplified acquisition, which database should contracting officers use as their primary source of vendor information?
a. Federal Procurement Data System (FPDS)
b. Mechanization of Contract Administration
Services (MOCAS)
c. System for Award Management (SAM)
d. Standard Procurement System (SPS)
ANSWER:_
SOURCE(S): FAR 13.102
c. System for Award Management (SAM)
47
47. When using the governmentwide commercial purchase card as a method of payment, contracting officers need to verify a contractor's delinquent debt status in the System for Award Management (SAM) database when those purchases are
a. above the micro-purchase threshold.
b. above the simplified acquisition threshold.
c. above the Truthful Cost or Pricing Data statute (Truth in Negotiations Act (TINA)) threshold.
d. Only from a small business.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 13.201(h)
a. above the micro-purchase threshold.
48
48. A contracting officer's decision not to set aside an acquisition for HUBZone small business or service-disabled veteran-owned small business concerns when it is at or below the simplified acquisition threshold
a. is permitted with the concurrence of the head
of the contracting authority.
b. can be appealed by any small business pursuant to FAR 19.4.
c. is not subject to review under FAR 19.4.
d. must be documented to show that adequate competition exists.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 13.003(b)(3)
c. is not subject to review under FAR 19.4.
49
49. Micro-purchases may be awarded without soliciting competitive quotations if
a. the award is made to a small business.
b. the contracting officer determines that the price is reasonable.
c. like purchases have previously been made from the same vendor.
d. the purchase is to be used for contingency operations or defense against or recovery from attacks.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 13.203(a)(2)
b. the contracting officer determines that the price is reasonable.
50
50. A cash fund of a fixed amount established by an advance of funds, without charge to an appropriation, from an agency finance or disbursing officer to a duly appointed cashier for disbursement as needed from time to time in making payment in cash for relatively small purchases is a/an
a. nonappropriated fund.
b. general fund.
c. imprest fund.
d. administrative commitment document.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 13.001
c. imprest fund.
51
51. Imprest funds may be used for transactions up to
a. $25,000
b. $10,000
с. 1,000
d. $500
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 13.305-3(a)
d. $500
52
52. It is advantageous to establish blanket purchase agreements with firms who
a. have past performance records that show them to be unreliable.
b. bid only on purchases over the simplified acquisition threshold.
c. have provided few purchases at or below the simplified acquisition threshold.
d. offer quality supplies or services at consistently lower prices than their competitors.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 13.303-2(b)(2)
d. offer quality supplies or services at consistently lower prices than their competitors.
53
53. Which of the following is true concerning the use of simplified acquisition procedures?
a. Purchases above the micro-purchase level are generally set-aside for small business.
b. They can be used in the acquisition of commercial items without any limits.
c. They cannot be employed when the governmentwide commercial purchase card is used.
d. There is no requirement for competition.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 13.003(b)(1)
a. Purchases above the micro-purchase level are generally set-aside for small business.
54
54. Which of the following is true concerning blanket purchase agreements (BPAs)?
a. A purchase requisition is required to establish one.
b. Use of a BPA exempts an agency from the responsibility of keeping obligations and
expenditures within available funds.
c. They may be established with more than one supplier.
d. They may be established even if there is an existing requirements contract for the same supply or service.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 13.303-2(c)(1)
c. They may be established with more than one supplier.
55
55. When fast payment procedures are utilized, who is responsible for determining the amount of debts resulting from failure of contractors to properly replace, repair, or correct supplies lost, damaged, or not conforming to purchase requirements?
a. Program manager
b. Contracting officer
c. Head of the contracting activity
d. Accounting and finance officer
b. Contracting officer
56
56. When cancelling a purchase order, if the contractor accepts the cancellation and does not claim that costs were incurred as a result of beginning performance under the purchase order, then
a. no further action is required and the purchase order shall be considered canceled.
b. the contractor receives a cancellation fee equal to 10 percent of the original purchase order price.
c. the contracting officer shall process the termination action.
d. the contractor is entitled to receive the automatic award of any purchase order for the same item or service generated within 90 days of the cancellation.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 13.302-4(b)(1)
a. no further action is required and the purchase order shall be considered canceled.
57
57. Unpriced purchase orders may be used to acquire
a. repairs to equipment requiring disassembly to determine the nature and extent of repairs.
b. commercial or nondevelopmental items.
c. urgently needed supplies available through multiple sources.
d. routine items for stock.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 13.302-2(b)(2)
a. repairs to equipment requiring disassembly to determine the nature and extent of repairs.
58
58. Which of the following about micro-purchases is true?
a. They may not be awarded without soliciting competitive quotations.
b. Only a contracting officer may award them.
c. The governmentwide commercial purchase card is the preferred means to purchase and pay for them.
d. The requirements in FAR part 8 do not apply to them.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 13.201(b), (c), (e); 13.203 (a)(2)
c. The governmentwide commercial purchase card is the preferred means to purchase and pay for them.
59
59. Which of the following is true about quotations?
a. A quotation is not an offer.
b. Solicitation of verbal quotations under the Simplified Acquisition Threshold is discouraged.
c. Restriction of solicitation to suppliers of well-known and widely distributed makes or brands is preferred.
d. Standing price quotations may not be used.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 13.004; 13.106-1(c); 13.104(a)
(2); 13.103
a. A quotation is not an offer.
60
60. Which of the following concerning descriptive literature is true?
a. Contracting officers must require bidders to submit descriptive literature.
b. The contracting officer may waive the requirement for descriptive literature.
c. Descriptive literature is the same as a bid sampled.
d. Unsolicited descriptive literature shall always be disregarded.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 14.202-4, -5(a), (d), (e)
b. The contracting officer may waive the requirement for descriptive literature.
61
61. Which of the following is NOT true regarding awards resulting from an invitation for bids?
a. Bidders must accept all terms and conditions.
b. Faxed bids are always accepted.
c. Bidders must comply with all material aspects of the invitation.
d. Bids must be received by the exact time of bid opening.
b. Faxed bids are always accepted.
62
62. A prebid conference is never to be used for
a. answering industry's questions.
b. substituting an amendment for an ambiguous invitation.
c. explaining requirements.
d. conducting market research.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 14.207
b. substituting an amendment for an ambiguous invitation.
63
63. The first step of two-step bidding involves
a. price analysis only.
b. technical analysis only.
c. price and technical analysis.
d. historical analysis.
b. technical analysis only.
64
64. What is acceptable evidence to establish the time of receipt at the government installation?
a. A U.S. Post Office proof of mailing receipt
b. Other documentary evidence maintained by the contractor
c. Verbal testimony or statements by the bidder's personnel
d. Time/date stamp of that installation on the bid wrapper
d. Time/date stamp of that installation on the bid wrapper
65
65. Which is NOT a reason to reject a bid?
a. The bid does not conform to the delivery schedule.
b. The price is unreasonable.
c. The schedule contains an apparent clerical mistake.
d. The bid states a price as being subject to "price in effect at time of delivery."
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 14.404-2, 14.407-2
c. The schedule contains an apparent clerical mistake.
66
66. Which of the following concerning electronic bids is true?
a. Contracting officers may authorize use of electronic commerce for submission of bids but must specify the electronic commerce method(s) that bidders may use.
b. Contracting officers may not authorize use of electronic commerce for submission of bids.
c. Contracting officers may authorize use of electronic commerce for submission of bids only when urgency prohibits the time needed to obtain conventional bids.
d. If electronic bids are authorized, bidders may use any method of electronic commerce to submit their bid. A firm-fixed-price or fixed-price with economic price adjustment contract will be used.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 14.202-8
a. Contracting officers may authorize use of electronic commerce for submission of bids but must specify the electronic commerce method(s) that bidders may use.
67
67. Which of the following contract types may be used with sealed bidding procedures?
a. Cost-plus-fixed fee
b. Firm-fixed-price and sometimes fixed-price with economic price adjustment
c. Any within the family of fixed-price contract
SOURCE(S): FAR 14.408-6
types
d. Firm-fixed-price only
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 14.104
b. Firm-fixed-price and sometimes fixed-price with economic price adjustment
68
68. In a case where equal low bids are received in response to an invitation for bids, which category of bidder is given the highest priority for award?
a. Small business concerns that are also 8(a)
concerns
b. Small businesses that are owned by service-disabled veterans
c. Small business concerns that are also located in labor surplus areas
d. All small business concerns participate in a lottery and the winner is chosen at random
c. Small business concerns that are also located in labor surplus areas
69
69. Exchanges of information among all interested parties are encouraged
a. from the earliest identification of a requirement through receipt of proposals.
b. from release of the request for proposals through receipt of proposals.
c. from release of the synopsis through receipt of proposals.
d. throughout the acquisition process.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 15.201(a)
a. from the earliest identification of a requirement through receipt of proposals.
70
70. A negotiated contract is
a. awarded after a competitive bid.
b. awarded after a sole-source bidding process.
c. awarded after a two-step bidding process is completed.
d. awarded after using other than sealed bidding procedures.
d. awarded after using other than sealed bidding procedures.
71
71. Tradeoffs in the source selection process are not permitted
a. when all evaluation factors and significant subfactors and their importance are clearly stated in the solicitation.
b. when the trade-off will be between cost/price factors and noncost factors.
c. when it is in the best interest of the government to consider award to other than the lowest-priced offeror.
d. when criteria have been met and the lowest price technically acceptable source selection process is used.
d. when criteria have been met and the lowest price technically acceptable source selection process is used.
72
72. Contracts are to be formatted in accordance with the uniform contract format outlined in FAR part 15. Which contract section is not physically included in the contract, but shall be incorporated by reference in the contract?
a. J (List of Documents, Exhibits, and Other Attachments)
b. K (Representations, Certifications, and Other Statements of Offerors or Respondents).
c. L (Instructions, Conditions, and Notices to Offerors or Respondents)
d. M (Evaluation Factors for Award)
b. K (Representations, Certifications, and Other Statements of Offerors or Respondents).
73
73. The primary objective of discussions is to
a. maximize the government's ability to obtain best value based on the requirement and the evaluation factors.
b. reduce the number of offerors within the competitive range through exploring deficiencies, significant weaknesses, and adverse past performance information.
c. discuss competing offeror technical approaches with other offerors.
d. allow verbal presentations from competitive offerors so that sensitive and proprietary information can be communicated without including it within the formal response to the solicitation.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 15.306(d)(2)
a. maximize the government's ability to obtain best value based on the requirement and the evaluation factors.
74
74. The process of examining and evaluating a proposed price without evaluating its separate cost elements and proposed profit is called
a. technical analysis.
b. price analysis.
c. field pricing support analysis.
d. informal analysis.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 15.404-1(b)
b. price analysis.
75
75. Which statement concerning requests for information (RFIs) is true?
a. Responses to RFIs are not offers and may not be accepted by the government to form a binding contract.
b. Responses to RFIs may be accepted by the government to form a binding contract.
C. RFIs are used when the government desires market information and intends to award a contract immediately.
d. Use of RFIs is limited to purchases not exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold.
a. Responses to RFIs are not offers and may not be accepted by the government to form a binding contract.
76
76. Which statement about proposal revisions is true?
a. A contracting officer may consider a revision to a proposal that has been eliminated or otherwise removed from the competitive range.
b. Final proposal revisions may be verbal.
c. The contracting officer may request or allow proposal revisions to clarify and document understandings reached during negotiations.
d. Cut-off dates for submission of final proposal revisions are negotiated with each offeror.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 15.307(a), (b)
c. The contracting officer may request or allow proposal revisions to clarify and document understandings reached during negotiations.
77
77. The contractor is required to submit certified cost and pricing data for subcontracts that are
a. the lower of either $15 million or valued at more than both the pertinent cost or pricing threshold and more than 10 percent of the prime contractor's price.
b. awarded to first-time subcontractors.
c. valued above $10,000,000 and entered into with small businesses.
d. valued above $10,000,000 and entered into with large businesses.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 15.404-3(c)(1)
a. the lower of either $15 million or valued at more than both the pertinent cost or pricing threshold and more than 10 percent of the prime contractor's price.
78
78. Communication with an offeror for the sole purpose of eliminating minor irregularities, informalities, or apparent clerical mistakes in the proposal is called
a. verification.
b. clarification.
c. discussion.
d. remuneration.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 15.306(a)(1), (2)
b. clarification.
79
79. A proposal may be withdrawn
a. by written notice at any time before award.
b. by verbal notice at any time before award.
c. at any time.
d. at any time with the consent of the contracting officer.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 15.208(e)
a. by written notice at any time before award.
80
80. A certificate of current cost or pricing data
a. does not constitute a representation as to the accuracy of the contractor's judgment on the estimate of future costs or projections.
b. is required upon exercise of an option at the price established at contract award, regardless of dollar value.
c. is required for proposals in support of interim billing price adjustments valued in excess of $500,000.
d. is no longer required.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 15.403-2(a), 15.406-2(b)
a. does not constitute a representation as to the accuracy of the contractor's judgment on the estimate of future costs or projections.
81
81. If defective pricing is discovered after award
a. the government has no recourse.
b. the contractor determines the amount of increase and bills the government.
c. the government is entitled to a price adjustment of any significant amount.
d. a 15 percent penalty applies to any overpayment attributable to the contractor's error.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 15.407-1(b)(1)
c. the government is entitled to a price adjustment of any significant amount.
82
82. Pre-award debriefings shall NOT disclose
a. the number of offerors.
b. a synopsis of the agency's evaluation of the offeror's proposal.
c. a summary of the rationale for eliminating the offeror from the competition.
d. responses to relevant questions about source selection procedures.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 15.505(e), (f)
a. the number of offerors.
83
83. The least-preferred method of submitting ideas/
concepts to the government is
a. in response to broad agency announcements.
b. through participation in small business innovation research programs.
c. in response to program research and development announcements.
d. unsolicited proposals.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 15.602, 15.604(a)(3)
d. unsolicited proposals.
84
84. In response to a widely publicized solicitation for a noncommercial item, a contracting officer only received one responsible offer. The offer is a firm-fixed amount for $1,000,000, which was the same price for a similar item recently purchased by another agency under a contract that resulted from adequate price competition. Which of the following is correct?
a. One offer doesn't meet the requirement for adequate price competition; therefore, certified cost and pricing data is required.
b. The item is noncommercial; therefore, certified cost and pricing data is not required.
c. The offeror is responsible; therefore, certified cost and pricing data is not required.
d. The proposed price is reasonable in comparison to a recent price for a similar item; therefore, certified cost and pricing data is not required.
ANSWER:.
SOURCE(S): FAR 15.403-1
d. The proposed price is reasonable in comparison to a recent price for a similar item; therefore, certified cost and pricing data is not required.
85
85. Contract types are grouped into two broad
categories:
a. commodities and services.
b. fixed-price and cost-reimbursement.
c. fixed-price and redeterminable.
d. small business and large business.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 16.101(b)
b. fixed-price and cost-reimbursement.
86
86. A contract that provides for upward and downward revision of the stated contract price upon the occurrence of specified contingencies is referred to as a
a. fixed-price contract with economic price adjustment.
b. fixed-price incentive contract.
c. fixed-price with prospective redetermination contract.d. fixed-ceiling-price contract with retroactive price determination.
ANSWER:.
SOURCE(S): FAR 16.203
a. fixed-price contract with economic price adjustment.
87
87. A cost-reimbursement contract that provides for an initially negotiated fee to be adjusted later by a formula based on the relationship of total allowable costs to total target costs is known as a
a. cost-plus-award-fee contract.
b. cost-plus-incentive-fee contract.
c. cost-sharing contract.
d. cost-plus-fixed-fee contract.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 16.405.1
b. cost-plus-incentive-fee contract.
88
88. There are three types of indefinite-delivery contracts:
a. definite-quantity contracts, requirements contracts, and indefinite-delivery contracts.
b. definite-quantity contracts, requirements contracts, and indefinite-quantity contracts.
c. definite-delivery contracts, requirements contracts, and indefinite-quantity contracts.
d. definite-delivery contracts, requirements contracts, and indefinite-delivery contracts.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 16.501-2(a)
b. definite-quantity contracts, requirements contracts, and indefinite-quantity contracts.
89
89. The.
_authorize(s) agencies to enter into
agreements to obtain supplies or services from another agency.
a. Economy Act
b. executive orders of the president
c. Contracts for Materials, Supplies, Articles and Equipment Act (Formerly Walsh-Healy Public
Contracts Act
d. Interagency Act
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 17.502.2
a. Economy Act
90
90. — may be used for emergency acquisitions when contract performance must begin immediately.
a. Simplified acquisition procedures
b. Contractor purchasing personnel
c. Letter contracts
d. Governmentwide purchase cards
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 18.112
c. Letter contracts
91
91. Which of the below is NOT an emergency action flexibility authorized to support a contingency operation?
a. Increase in the threshold for advance payments
b. Increase in the micro-purchase threshold
c. Simplified purchase threshold purchase increase
d. Higher dollar limitations for use of SF 44, Purchase Order-Invoice-Voucher
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 18.201
a. Increase in the threshold for advance payments
92
92. If a requirement has been accepted by the SBA
under the 8(a) Program, it must remain in the 8(a)
Program unless
a. the contracting officer approves a determination and findings.
b. the SBA agrees to its release.
c. market research determines that the 8(a)
Program is no longer a sound acquisition strategy.
d. other small business concerns express interest in the requirement.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 19.203(c)
b. the SBA agrees to its release.
93
93. A protest concerning small business representation
a. will not be considered for the instant award.
b. may be considered timely whether filed before or after award if filed by an interested party.
c. is timely if filed by the next lowest bidder after award.
d. may be considered timely if made verbally and confirmed in writing within a five-day period.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 19.302
d. may be considered timely if made verbally and confirmed in writing within a five-day period.
94
94. Which member of the acquisition team is responsible for determining the appropriate NAICS code and related small business size standard?
a. The program manager
b. The contract specialist assigned to the acquisition
c. The contracting officer
d. One level above the contracting officer
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 19.303
c. The contracting officer
95
95. The contracting officer shall set aside a portion of an acquisition, except for construction, for exclusive small business participation when
a. there is a reasonable expectation that only two businesses, one small and one large, will respond with an offer.
b. the requirement is not severable into two or more economic production runs or reasonable lots.
c. the acquisition is subject to simplified acquisition procedures.
d. the requirement is severable into two or more economic production runs.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 19.502-3(a)
d. the requirement is severable into two or more economic production runs.
96
96. If the contracting officer and the SBA area office cannot reach a resolution regarding a small business concern's ability to perform, who is empowered to make the final determination?
a. one level above the contracting officer
b. the SBA associate administrator for government contracting
c. the agency's small business program manager
d. the contracting officer can make the final determination
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 19.602-3
b. the SBA associate administrator for government contracting
97
97. Contractors are required to perform all government contracts, so far as is practicable, without using overtime, EXCEPT when
a. overtime is necessary to meet urgent program needs.
b. overtime will result in a lower overall cost to the government.
c. overtime was approved by the contracting officer's representative.
d. overtime is necessary to meet urgent program needs or will result in a lower overall cost to the government.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 22.103-2
d. overtime is necessary to meet urgent program needs or will result in a lower overall cost to the government.
98
98. The Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards statute (Act) requires which of the following?
a. Each contractor and subcontractor shall furnish a weekly statement of compliance with respect to the wages paid to each employee during the preceding week.
b. It is unlawful to induce any person employed in the construction or repair of public buildings or public works, financed in whole or in part by the United States, to give up any part of the compensation to which that person is entitled under a contract of employment.
c. No laborer or mechanic employed directly upon the site of the work shall receive less than the prevailing wage rates as determined by the Secretary of Labor.
d. Contractors and subcontractors on covered contracts shall pay laborers and mechanics employed in the performance of the contractsone and one-half times their basic rate of pay for all hours worked over 40 in a workweek.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 22.403-3
d. Contractors and subcontractors on covered contracts shall pay laborers and mechanics employed in the performance of the contractsone and one-half times their basic rate of pay for all hours worked over 40 in a workweek.
99
99. Which of the following is not true concerning project wage determinations?
a. They are issued at the specific request of a contracting agency.
b. They are effective for 180 calendar days from the date of determination.
c. They are used only when no general wage determination applies.
d. They apply only to the contracts for which they were issued.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 22.404-1(b)
b. They are effective for 180 calendar days from the date of determination.
100
100. This act provides that contracts in excess of $2,000 to which the United States is a party for construction, alteration, or repair of public buildings within the U.S. shall contain a clause that no laborer shall receive less than the prevailing wage rates as determined by the Secretary of Labor.
a. Construction Wage Rate Requirements statute (Davis-Bacon Act)
b. Service Contract Labor Standards statute (Service Contract Act of 1965)
c. Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards statute (Act)
d. Construction Minimum Wage Act
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 22.403-1
a. Construction Wage Rate Requirements statute (Davis-Bacon Act)
101
101. Which of the following is NOT a statutory exemption to the Contracts for Materials Supplies, Articles, and Equipment Exceeding $15,000 statute (Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act)?
a. Commercial items
b. Perishables, including dairy, livestock, and
nursery products
c. Agricultural or farm products processed for
first sale by the original producers
d. Items manufactured outside the United States
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 22.604
d. Items manufactured outside the United States
102
102. Service contracts valued in excess of
must
contain mandatory provisions regarding minimum wage and fringe benefits, safe and sanitary working conditions, notification to employees of the minimum allowable compensation, and equivalent federal employee classifications and wage rates.
a. $3,000
b. $150,000
с. $650,000
d. $2,500
d. $2,500
103
103. Federal agencies shall advance sustainable
acquisition by ensuring that _
percent of new
contract actions for the supply of products and for
the acquisition of services (including construction)
require that the products are energy-efficient, water-efficient, biobased, environmentallypreferable, non-ozone depleting, or made withrecovered materials.
a. 25
b. 55
с. 75
d. 95
d. 95
104
104. The Freedom of Information Act provides that information is to be made available to the public
a. by publication in the local newspaper.
b. within 72 hours of the initial request.c. seven years after the contract is closed.
d. upon request, providing a copy of a reasonably described record.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 24.201
d. upon request, providing a copy of a reasonably described record.
105
105. For manufactured noncommercial end products, the test to determine the country of origin under the Buy American statute (Act) is a two-part test to
a. define a foreign end product that is manufactured in a foreign country and the foreign cost of the components exceeds 55 percent.
b. define a domestic end product.
c. determine both a foreign and domestic end product.
d. define a domestic end product that is manufactured in the United States and the domestic cost of the components exceeds 55 percent.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 25.101
d. define a domestic end product that is manufactured in the United States and the domestic cost of the components exceeds 55 percent.
106
106. The Buy American statute (Act) restricts the purchase of supplies that are NOT
a. domestic end products.
b. sold by an authorized foreign firm.
c. manufactured in the United States.
d. sold in the United States.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 25.101
a. domestic end products.
107
107. Which of the following is true during a disaster or emergency response?
a. Preference is given to local businesses.
b. The micro-purchase threshold may be applied to all related acquisitions.
c. When transitioning work to local businesses, agencies will automatically be required to cancel or renegotiate existing contracts to accommodate the emergency response.
d. Written justifications are not required.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 26.202, 203 and 204
a. Preference is given to local businesses.
108
108. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. The government encourages the maximum practical commercial use of inventions made under government contracts.
b. The government recognizes rights in data developed at private expense and limits its demands for delivery of that data.
c. The government requires that contractors obtain permission from copyright owners before including copyrighted works, owned by others, in data to be delivered to the government.
d. Generally, the government will refuse to award a contract on the grounds that the prospective contractor may infringe a patent.
d. Generally, the government will refuse to award a contract on the grounds that the prospective contractor may infringe a patent
109
109. Performance and payment bonds are required or may be required for
a. construction contracts and services and supply contracts exceeding $2,000.
b. construction contracts exceeding $150,000.
c. any contract for services.
d. construction contracts exceeding $150,000 and services and supply contracts exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold when necessary to protect the government's interests.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 28.102-1(a), 28.103-1(a), 28.103-2(a)
d. construction contracts exceeding $150,000 and services and supply contracts exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold when necessary to protect the government's interests.
110
110. Which is NOT true of state and local taxes on federal purchases and leases?
a. Generally, the federal government is immune.
b. Where exemptions exist, the contracting officer must take advantage of them.
c. Subcontractor purchases under federal prime contracts are always immune to state and local
taxes.
d. Contractors and subcontractors must consult with the agency when there are exemptions that may apply.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 29.300-305
c. Subcontractor purchases under federal prime contracts are always immune to state and local
taxes.
111
111. Cost Accounting Standards Board rules and regulations apply to
a. negotiated contracts and subcontracts.
b. sealed bid contracts.
c. contracts with small business concerns.
d. bridge contracts.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 30.000
a. negotiated contracts and subcontracts.
112
112. The head of the agency may waive the applicability of Cost Accounting Standards (CAS) for a particular contract or subcontract when one of these conditions exists:
a. The contract or subcontract is less than $50 million, primarily engaged in the sale of commercial items, and has no contracts/ subcontracts subject to CAS.
b. The contract or subcontract is less than $15 million, primarily engaged in the sale of commercial items, and has no contracts/ subcontracts subject to CAS.
c. The contract or subcontract is less than $7.5 million, primarily engaged in the sale of commercial items.
d. The contract or subcontract is less than $5 million, primarily engaged in the sale of commercial items, and has no contracts/ subcontracts subject to CAS.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 30.201-5
b. The contract or subcontract is less than $15 million, primarily engaged in the sale of commercial items, and has no contracts/ subcontracts subject to CAS.
113
113. Which of the following statements about advance agreements is NOT true?
a. Advance agreements may only be negotiated with a particular contractor for a single contract.
b. Advance agreements may be negotiated either before or during a contract.
c. The agreements must be in writing.
d. The agreements must be incorporated into applicable current and future contracts.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 31.109
a. Advance agreements may only be negotiated with a particular contractor for a single contract.
114
114. A cost is reasonable if, in its nature and amount, it does not exceed that which would be
a. incurred by a prudent person in the conduct of competitive business.
b. accrued by a reasonable person in the conduct of competitive business.
c. determined to be allowable by the contracting officer.
d. determined to be allocable by the contracting officer.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 31.201-3
a. incurred by a prudent person in the conduct of competitive business.
115
115. Performance-based payments shall be used only
a. when the contracting officer and the offeror are able to agree on the performance-based payment terms and the contract is a fixed-price type contract that allows for progress payments.
b. when the contracting officer and the offeror are able to agree on the milestones and the contract is a cost-type contract.
c. when the contract does not provide for other methods of contract financing and there are not
measurable criteria for performance.
d. when the contracting officer and the offeror are able to agree on the performance-based terms, the contract is a fixed-type contract, and the contract does not provide for progress payments.
ANSWER:.
SOURCE(S): FAR 32.1003
d. when the contracting officer and the offeror are able to agree on the performance-based terms, the contract is a fixed-type contract, and the contract does not provide for progress payments.
116
116. Which of the following statements concerning customary progress payments is true?
a. Customary progress payment rate is 90 percent (95 percent for small business concerns).
b. An unusual progress payment is defined as any rate that is 10 percent above or below the customary progress payment rate.
c. Customary progress payment rate is 80 percent (85 percent for small business concerns).
d. When advance payments and progress payments are authorized under the same contract, a progress payment rate higher than the customary rate can be authorized.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 32.501-1(a), (b), (c), (d)
c. Customary progress payment rate is 80 percent (85 percent for small business concerns).
117
117. What definition best describes alternative dispute resolution?
a. Procedures used to resolve issues in controversy.
b. Procedures voluntarily used to resolve issues in controversy.
c. Procedures used for asserting and resolving claims.
d. Procedures voluntarily used for asserting and resolving claims.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 33.214
b. Procedures voluntarily used to resolve issues in controversy.
118
118. The government's policy is to try to resolve all contractual issues in controversy by
a. mutual agreement at the contracting officer's level.
b. bilateral agreement at the contracting officer's level.
c. mutual agreement at a level above the contracting officer.
d. unilateral agreement at the contracting officer's level.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 33.204
a. mutual agreement at the contracting officer's level.
119
119. After receiving the GAO's written notice that aprotest has been filed, an agency must give notice
a. of the protest to the contractor or all parties who appear to have a reasonable prospect of receiving award.
b. of the protest only to the prime contractor performing the work.
c. of the protest to all parties who appear to have a reasonable prospect of receiving award and begin compiling the information necessary to report to the GAO.
d. through a governmentwide point of entry.
a. of the protest to the contractor or all parties who appear to have a reasonable prospect of receiving award.
120
120. Does a $75,000 claim resulting from a reduction of $350,000 and an increase of $275,000 require certification?
a. No, because the claimed amount is less than$100,000.
b. Yes, because the aggregate value of the claim exceeds $100,000.
c. No, because the claimed amount is less than $500,000.
d. Yes, because the aggregate value of the claim exceeds $500,000.
b. Yes, because the aggregate value of the claim exceeds $100,000.
121
121. Protests may be filed with
a. either the agency or the Government Accountability Office.
b. the agency, the GAO, or the U.S. Court of Claims.
c. either the contracting officer or the U.S. Court of Federal Claims.
d. Small Claims Court for awards under the Simplified Acquisition Threshold.
b. the agency, the GAO, or the U.S. Court of Claims.
122
122. Who can authorize continued performance in the face of a protest after award?
a. the chief of the contracting office
b. the contracting officer, provided his findings are documented in the file
c. the head of the contracting activity
d. the commanding officer
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 33.104(c)(2)
c. the head of the contracting activity
123
123. The contracting officer shall consider all protests and seek legal advice
a. only if protests are received after award and filed directly with the agency.
b. only if the protest is received prior to award
and filed directly with the Government Accountability Office.
c. whether protests are submitted before or after award.
d. whether protests are submitted before or after award and whether filed directly with the Government Accountability Office, the U.S.
Court of Claims, or the agency.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 33.102
d. whether protests are submitted before or after award and whether filed directly with the Government Accountability Office, the U.S.
Court of Claims, or the agency.
124
124. A protest based upon improprieties in a solicitation must be filed before bid opening or the closing date for receipt of proposals. In all other cases, protests must be filed
a. within 10 calendar days of the time the protester knew or should have known of the basis of the protest, whichever is earlier.
b. within 100 calendar days of the time the protester knew or should have known of the basis of the protest, whichever is earlier.
c. within five days after a debriefing date to the other offerors.
d. within 15 days before the acceptance of offers.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 33.103(e)
a. within 10 calendar days of the time the protester knew or should have known of the basis of the protest, whichever is earlier.
125
125. Which of the following is not part of an Integrated
Baseline Review (IBR)?
a. The ability of the project's technical plan to achieve the objectives of the scope of work;
b. The degree to which the management process provides effective and integrated technical/
schedule/cost planning and baseline control.
c. The degree to which the competitive process assessed the full marketplace potential for the program.
d. The availability of personnel and facilities to execute the program successfully.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 34.202
c. The degree to which the competitive process assessed the full marketplace potential for the program.
126
126. The responsibility for selecting the appropriate type of contract for an R&D requirement belongs to the
a. program manager.
b. contracting officer.
c. acquisition manager.
d. R&D chief.
ANSWER:
SOURCE: FAR 35.006(b)
b. contracting officer.
127
127. The methodologies contracting officers shall use in acquiring construction contracts and architect-engineer services, respectively, are
a. negotiation and sealed bids.
b. sealed bids and negotiation.
c. negotiation and negotiation.
d. sealed bids and barter.
b. sealed bids and negotiation
128
128. A personal services contract is characterized by
a. the annual cost for individual contractor employees.
b. sporadic government control of the contractor's employees.
c. the government giving an order for a specific article or service, with the right to reject the finished product or result.
d. the employer-employee relationship it creates between the government and the contractor's personnel.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 37.104
d. the employer-employee relationship it creates between the government and the contractor's personne
129
129. Award of contracts for recurring and continuing service requirements are often delayed due to circumstances beyond the control of contracting offices. In order to avoid negotiation of short extensions to existing contracts, the contracting officer may include an option clause in solicitations and contracts which will enable the government to require continued performance of any services
a. for up to 6 months, with new labor rates provided by the contractor.
b. until the delay is resolved, with new labor rates provided by the contractor.
c. for up to 6 months, within the limits and at the rates specified in the contract.
d. until the delay is resolved, within the limits and at the rates specified in the contract.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 37.111
c. for up to 6 months, within the limits and at the rates specified in the contract.
130
130. When acquiring services, agencies must use
performance-based acquisition methods to the maximum extent practicable, EXCEPT for
a. renewable energy services.
b. information technology services.
c. trash removal services.
d. research and development services.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 37.102(a)
a. renewable energy services.
131
131. The following activities and programs are excluded or exempted from the definition of advisory or assistance services EXCEPT
a. architectural and engineering services.
b. renewable energy services at government facilities without government capital expense.
c. research on theoretical mathematics and basic research involving medical, biological, physical, social, psychological, or other phenomena.
d. routine information technology services unless they are an integral part of a contract for the acquisition of advisory and assistance services.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 37.202
b. renewable energy services at government facilities without government capital expense.
132
132. The Federal Supply Schedule program provides federal agencies
a. sources for meeting repetitive requirements on a scheduled basis.
b. a simplified process for obtaining commercial supplies and services at prices associated with volume buying.
c. a mandatory source for frequently used
supplies and services at prices associated with volume buying.
d. a simplified process for obtaining complex services that the requiring agency does not have the expertise to buy.
ANSWER:
SOURCE: FAR 38.101
b. a simplified process for obtaining commercial supplies and services at prices associated with volume buying.
133
133. Contracts to acquire information technology systems in successive, interoperable increments are known as
a. multiyear.
b. successive.
c. modular.
d. alpha.
c. modular.
134
134. Prior to entering into a contract for information technology, an agency should analyze
a. features, risks, and cost.
b. technical capabilities, risks, and cost.
c. technical capabilities, benefits, and cost.
d. risks, benefits, and cost.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE: FAR 39.102
d. risks, benefits, and cost.
135
135. The following are examples of types of risk for the acquisition of information technology EXCEPT
a. technical obsolescence.
b. technical feasibility.
c. contract administration.
d. dependencies between a new project and other
projects or systems.
ANSWER:
SOURCE: FAR 39.102
c. contract administration.
136
136. When is an agency required to use a GSA area-wide
contract for ordering utility services.
a. When service is available from more than one
supplier.
b. When the GSA has delegated contracting
authority to that agency.
c. When the head of contracting activity determines that use of the area-wide contract is
not advantageous.
d. When competition is not available.
d. When competition is not available.
137
137. Subject to the fiscal regulations of the agencies and applicable interagency agreements, the requesting agency shall reimburse the servicing agency for rendered contract administration and audit services in accordance with the
a. Service Contract Labor Standards statute (Service Contract Act of 1965).
b. current year fiscal appropriations.
c. Economy Act (31 U.S.C. 1535).
d. Federal Contract Administration Act.
c. Economy Act (31 U.S.C. 1535).
138
138. Which of the following is NOT true with regard to production surveillance?
a. In conducting production surveillance, the CAO personnel are prohibited from using contractor production control or data management systems.
b. The purpose of production surveillance is to determine contractor progress and to identify any factors that may delay performance.
c. Production surveillance involves government review of contractor performance plans, schedules, controls, and industrial processes and the actual performance under them.
d. Contracts at or below the simplified acquisition threshold should not normally require production surveillance.
a. In conducting production surveillance, the CAO personnel are prohibited from using contractor production control or data management systems.
139
139. Which of these is NOT a normal function of a contract administration office?
a. Reviewing the contractor's compensation structure and insurance plans
b. Conducting post-award orientation conferences
c. Assisting the contractor in management of its subcontractors
d. Determining the contractor's compliance with Cost Accounting Standards
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 42.302(a)(1-70)
c. Assisting the contractor in management of its subcontractors
140
140. A contract auditor is responsible for
a. auditing the policies and procedures between the various agencies.
b. auditing a specific agency's procedures and reporting any discrepancies to the requesting activity.
c. submitting information and advice to the requesting activity on contractors' accounting records and financial and cost control system.
d. auditing whatever the government requests.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 42.101
c. submitting information and advice to the requesting activity on contractors' accounting records and financial and cost control system.
141
141. Final indirect cost rates
a. are based upon recent reviews, previous rate audits and experience or similar reliable data.
b. are established by a single agency and are binding on all agencies unless otherwise specifically prohibited.
c. are established once and then may be prospectively or retroactively revised by mutual agreement.
d. may be unilaterally determined by the contracting officer.
b. are established by a single agency and are binding on all agencies unless otherwise specifically prohibited.
142
142. Which of the following is NOT true with respect to suspension of work or stop work orders?
a. The contracting officer may order a suspension of work for a reasonable period of time under a construction or architectural and engineering contract.
b. Stop work order is approved at a level higher than the contracting officer.
c. Stop work orders are applicable to any negotiated fixed-price or cost-reimbursement supply, research, development, or service contract.
d. Government delay of work may be used as a justification for the contracting officer to order a suspension.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 42.1302, 42.1303, 42.1304
d. Government delay of work may be used as a justification for the contracting officer to order a suspension.
143
143. Supplemental agreements are used to
a. issue change orders.
b. issue termination notices.
c. definitize letter contracts.
d. make administrative changes.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 43.103(a)
c. definitize letter contracts.
144
145. Change orders issued under the "Changes" clause of the contract shall use which form?
a. SF 1449
b. SF 33
C. SF 52
d. SF 30
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 43.301
d. SF 30
145
144. "Effective date" means the following:
a. It is the date specified by the offeror in its proposal.
b. For a supplemental agreement, it is the date set by the contracting officer.
c. For a modification issued as a confirming notice of termination for the convenience of the government, it is the same as the effective date of the initial award of the contract.
d. For a solicitation amendment, change order, or administrative change, it is the issue date.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 43.101
d. For a solicitation amendment, change order, or administrative change, it is the issue date.
146
146. Unilateral modifications are NOT used to do which of the following?
a. Reflect other agreements of the parties modifying the contract terms
b. Issue change orders
c. Make changes authorized by clauses other than a "Changes" clause (e.g., "Property" clause,
"Options" clause, or "Suspension of Work" clause)
d. Issue termination notices
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 43.103
a. Reflect other agreements of the parties modifying the contract terms
147
147. If a contractor has an approved purchasing system,
a. consent is required for subcontracts identified in the subcontracts clause of the contract.
b. purchases below the Simplified Acquisition Threshold must be reviewed by the contracting officer.
c. only items on the government qualified products list may be used.
d. F.O.B. origin may not be used.
ANSWER:
SOURCES(S): FAR 44.201-1(a)
a. consent is required for subcontracts identified in the subcontracts clause of the contract.
147
148. The contractor purchasing system review provides the administrative contracting officer a basis for all of the following EXCEPT
a. granting approval of the contractor's purchasing system.
b. withholding approval of the contractor's purchasing system.
c. withdrawing approval of the contractor's
purchasing system.
d. providing suggested changes to the contractor's purchasing system.
ANSWER: _
SOURCES(S): FAR 44.301
d. providing suggested changes to the contractor's purchasing system.
148
149. Which of the following is NOT defined as government property?
a. Government-furnished property
b. Contractor-acquired property
c. Property owned by or leased to the government or acquired by the government under the terms of the contract
d. Intellectual property and software
d. Intellectual property and software
149
150. A latent defect is a defect that
a. exists at the time of acceptance and could be discovered by a reasonable inspection.
b. exists at the time of delivery.
c. exists at the time of acceptance and cannot be discovered by a reasonable inspection.
d. is discovered by the contractor's quality inspector.
ANSWER: _
SOURCE(S): FAR 2.101, 46.101
c. exists at the time of acceptance and cannot be discovered by a reasonable inspection.
150
151. The inclusion of a warranty in federal government contracts is
a. forbidden by statute.
b. allowed only in fixed-price contracts.
c. normally allowed in cost-reimbursement
contracts.
d. not required.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 46.703, 46.705
d. not required.
151
152. How does the government relieve contractors of liability for loss or damage to property of the government that occurs after acceptance or results from defects or deficiencies?
a. By acting as a self-insurer
b. By the contracting officer designating any item with a unit cost greater than $100,000 as a high-value item for which the contractor is not liable
c. By relieving the contractor of liability for loss or damage to all contract end items
d. By requiring appropriate insurance be carried by contractors on cost reimbursement type contracts and reimbursing the contractor for the expense
ANSWER:.
SOURCE(S): FAR 46.803(a)
a. By acting as a self-insurer
152
153. A person holding himself or herself out to the general public to provide transportation for compensation is a
a. contract carrier.
b. universal carrier.
c. common carrier.
d. commercial carrier.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 47.001
c. common carrier.
153
154. Which is not one of the two types of Value-Engineering approaches?
a. Incentive approach
b. Teaming approach
c. Mandatory program
d. None of the above
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 48.101
b. Teaming approach
154
155. A contract should not normally be terminated for convenience but should be permitted to run to completion when the price of the undelivered balance of the contract is less than
а. $25,000.
b. $1,000.
с. $5,000.
d. $10,000.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 49.101(c)
с. $5,000.
155
156. What is the heart of a settlement for a contract
terminated for convenience?
a. Strict accounting principles
b. Business judgment
c. A payment for the work done and also the preparation for work on the terminated portions
d. A strict determination of consequential damages and anticipatory profits
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 49.201(a)
b. Business judgment
156
157. Which agency resolves questions on whether a technology qualifies for SAFETY Act protections?
a. Department of Homeland Security
b. Department of Defense
c. General Services Administration
d. Department of State
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 50.205-1
a. Department of Homeland Security
157
158. Which of the following is true about the use of government sources by contractors?
a. The government often authorizes it under fixed price contracts.
b. It cannot flow down to subcontractors.
c. Contractors can only order items required in the performance of their contracts.
d. Property acquired by the contractor under the contracting officer's authorization shall
automatically vest in the contractor.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 50.101, 102, 103, 106
c. Contractors can only order items required in the performance of their contracts.
158
159. In the following reference, the "2" in "203" refers to the
_: FAR 52.203-7 Anti-Kickback
Procedures
a. part
b. subpart
c. section
d. subsection
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 52.101
b. subpart
159
160. Which of the following is allowed as it relates to forms?
a. Altering a standard form
b. Using a form other than a standard form to
achieve the same purpose.
c. Computer generating most forms without approval.
d. Using outdated forms.
ANSWER:
SOURCE(S): FAR 53.102, 103, and 105
c. Computer generating most forms without approval.
160
