OEQ Flashcards

1
Q

Patients with Barretts Esophagus are at risk of developing what type of malignancy?

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What terminology is used to describe metastasis of an adenocarcinoma to the B/L ovaries?

A

Krunkenberg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Average lifespan of RBC:

A

4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe “hair on end”

A

Thassalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sickle cell anemia substitutions:

A

Valine for glutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Autoimmune disease:

A

B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Patient with Plummer Vinson present with which type of anemia:

A

Iron deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Decreased number of neutrophils:

A

Neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which is NOT part of the portal triad:

A

Central vein (portal triad = arteriole, bile duct and portal vein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which is enteric ally transmitted?

A

Hep A and Hep E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What low grade lymphoma is associated with patients Sjrogens?

A

MALToma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of necrosis is seen in TB?

A

Caseous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name three types of lung cancers:

A
  1. small cell carcinoma
  2. squamous cell carcinoma
  3. adenocarcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of MEN disease presents with neuromas?

A

Men 2B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Insulin is secreted by:

A

beta eclls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Regeneration of the liver occurs via:

A

Metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which pathosis presents with non-vital tooth and epithelial lining?

A
  • Periapical cyst
  • periapical granuloma
  • periapical abscess
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Peutz-Jeghers type of polyp:

A

Harmatuous polyp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Gene translocation for CML Philadelphia chromosomes:

A

9 to 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Plummer Vincent is NOT:

A

Pernicious anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Increased risk for adenocarcinoma:

A

Barretts Esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Meckel Diverticulum occurs in:

A

Small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Peripheral edema is correlated with:

A

Right heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Infection of the blood:

A

septicemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which has an A1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Panacinar emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What type of collapsed lung is caused by obstruction of the airway?

A

Resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What type of collapsed lung is caused by fluid within the pleural cavity?

A

Compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most common neoplasm of liver:

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of collapsed lung is caused by local or generalized fibrotic changes?

A

Contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

COPD consists of:

A

Chronic bronchitis and emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Mesothelioma is a benign outgrowth of the pleura. It decreases with asbestos exposure:

A

Both statements false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Someone with hashimotos is prone to developing:

A

Non-hodgkin lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Oral pigmentation:

A

Addisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Most common leukemia in children:

A

ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Universal donor:

A

O neg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Yellowing of the gingiva:

A

Jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which is NOT a risk factor for cholesterol stones?

A

gallbladder stasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Head and neck malignancy:

A

Gardner syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does not have to do with hyper pituitary hormones?

A

Sheehan syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is co-assocaited with hep D?

A

Hep B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What type of candidiasis cannot wipe off?

A

Hyperplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Step ladder:

A

Sickle sell anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Thrombocytopenia purpura platelet count would be:

A

too little

44
Q

Multiple myeloma appears as:

A

Punched out radiolucency

45
Q

Kid regularly has aphthous ulcers on tongue, chronic gingivitis, and bone loss:

A

Cyclic neutropenia

46
Q

Which is associated with neoplasm?

A

Human herpes type 4

47
Q

When a thrombus becomes dislodged from a vessel and travels to another site in the vasculature:

A

Embolization

48
Q

Which of the following does NOT cause gingival hyperplasia?

A

Perry Romberg

49
Q

Pure hypertrophy occurs in:

A

Skeletal muscle after working out

50
Q

The end result of irreversible injury to a cell:

A

Necrosis

51
Q

The changes of one mature cell type to another:

A

metaplasia

52
Q

Liver regeneration occurs via:

A

Hyperplasia

53
Q

Pyknosis is associated with:

A

Shrinking of the nucleus

54
Q

Karyorrhexis is associated with:

A

Fragmentation

55
Q

Infection of the blood is:

A

septicemia

56
Q

Caseous necrosis is seen in:

A

tuberculosis infectons

57
Q

Mast cells secrete:

A

Histamine

58
Q

The primary cell of chronic inflammation:

A

Mononuclear cell

59
Q

Acute inflammation without consolidation that ravels thought the tissues:

A

cellulitis

60
Q

Which of the following disease realists in failure KILL?

A

MPO Deficiency

61
Q

Failure in adhesion:

A

LAD

62
Q

Condition characterized by too few neutrophils:

A

Agranulocytosis

63
Q

Failure to phagocytose:

A

Brutons’ agammaglobulinemia

64
Q

What periapical granuloma has epithelium?

A

Periapical cyst

65
Q

Which of the following will form granulomatous inflammation?

A

Acid fast bacilli

66
Q

Which type of cell will produce the most scarring??

A

Neurons and cardiac myocytes

67
Q

Healing by primary intention pulls margins together. Secondary intention doesn’t pull margins together

A

Both true

68
Q

Which vitamin deficiency will cause a defect in wound healing?

A

Vitamin C

69
Q

Which compartment holds the most fluid?

A

Intracellular

70
Q

T-lymphocytes come form the ____ and then travel to the lymph node:

A

Thymus

71
Q

Dental anomaly that can result from congenital syphillus:

A

Hutchinson’s incisors, mulberry molars

72
Q

Order these terms in increasing size: Purpura, petechiae, and ecchymosis (largest last)

A
  1. petechiae
  2. purpura
  3. ecchymosis
73
Q

Which of th following can cause transformations (Neoplastic)?

A

HSV4- Epstein barr

74
Q

Which presents as a unilateral dermatomal infection of face and oral mucosa?

A

Herpes zosters

75
Q

Which of the following presents with koplik spots?

A

Measles (rubeola)

76
Q

Kid presents with mandibular molar with hyperplasia toward the coronal end of the tooth. What is the diagnosis?

A

Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis (pulp polyp)

77
Q

Which of the following does not present as a radiolucency?

A

Parulis

78
Q

The end of the sinus tract:

A

Parulis

79
Q

Complication of cavernous sinus thrombosis:

A

Retrograde infection

80
Q

All of the following describe actinomycosis except:

A

Fungal infection

81
Q

Which tissue is edema the LEAST tolerated in?

A

Lung or brain

82
Q

If you have right heart failure you have:

A

Pitting edema

83
Q

Having palatal petechia is common in which of the following?

A

Infectious mono

84
Q

Regernation of the liver occurs:

A

via hyperplasia

85
Q

Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

a- brutons agammglobulinemia
b- Sjogrens syndrome
c- autoimmune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)
d- grave’s disease
e- systemic lupus erythematosus

A

A- Brutons agammaglobulinemia

86
Q

Low virulence will:

A

threaten immunocompromised populations

87
Q

Blood transfusion gone bad:

A

Type II hypersenitivity

88
Q

Unwanted blood clot:

A

Thombus

89
Q

What is an example of fibrosis hyperplasia?

A

fibroma

90
Q

The primary cell of ACUTE inflammation:

A

Neutrophils

91
Q

What type of cell is this? Cytoplasm pushed to side and big nucleus-

A

plasma cell

92
Q

Which infection is seen in the photo hard palate sores:

A

Recurrent intraoral herpes (abrasive looking spots)

93
Q

Hyperplastic candidiasis:

A

cannot be wiped off

94
Q

Inflmaattion edema are:

A

protein rich

95
Q

Myasthenia gravis is caused by:

A

antibody inhibition

96
Q

What terminology is used to denote inflammation of the bone marrow?

A

Osteomyelitis

97
Q

What terminology is used to denote inflammation of the skin?

A

Dermatitis

98
Q

What terminology is used to denote inflammation of the nasal mucosa?

A

Rhinitis

99
Q

Inflammation of the ear?

A

Otitis

100
Q

Inflammation of the lymph vessel:

A

Lymphadenitis

101
Q

flat with broad base:

A

Sessile

102
Q

stem-like:

A

pedunculated

103
Q

Small less than 1cm lesion with serious fluid:

A

vesicle

104
Q

Large solid lesion greater than 1cm:

A

nodule

105
Q

Penetrates epithelial tissue:

A

ulcers

106
Q

Appears dark, destruction of bone:

A

radiolucent

107
Q
A